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ED Basic Class 24B-2 > Test 3 > Flashcards

Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

identify the five sources of jobs contained in Availability Work Packages
(AWP)

A

-Results of pre-availability test and inspections
-Class Maintenance Plan (CMP) or Integrated CMP (ICMP)
-Current Ship Maintenance Project (CSMP)
-TYCOM authorized repairs
-Authorized alterations

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2
Q

Identify the benefits of Multiple Award Contract Multiple Order (MACMO)
contracts when planning ship maintenance.

A

-firm fixed price contract
-increase competition
-balance risk btw USN and KTR

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3
Q

The integrated schedule (output of planning process) integrates what activities?

A

1) public SY or contractor SY work
2) AIT modernization work
3) ships force maintenance reqts

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4
Q

Identify the roles and responsibilities of availability planning
activities/organizations.

A
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5
Q

Recognize the planning goals to be met prior to availability start.

A
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6
Q

Modeling and Simulation is conducted only during the engineering and manufacturing dev phase of the acquisition life cycle. (true/false)

A

FALSE. Mod and Sim is conducted during the ENTIRE acquisition life cycle.

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7
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered in the test and evaluation master plan?
a) system maturity
b) use existing test facilities
c) consistent with acq strategy
d) lowest cost to contractor

A

d)- cost to contractor is NOT considered in TEMP planning

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8
Q

WHAT IS THE FUNDAMENTAL PURPOSE OF TEST AND EVALUATION?

A

To enable the DOD to acquire systems that work.

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9
Q

What is the process by which a system is compared against requirements through testing?

A

test and evaluation

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10
Q

Results of test and evaluation inform what?

A
  • risk identification
    -reduce cost
    -validate models
    -determine effectiveness, survivability, lethality
    -exit criteria for milestones and decisions of the acq process
    -predict program deviations
    -assist trade studies
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11
Q

Analysis of results from modeling and simulation is an example of what?

A

evaluation

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12
Q

Which part of T&E is most intellectually intensive and must not be forgotten in the schedule?

A

evaluation

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13
Q

which part of T&E is most resource intensive?

A

testing

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14
Q

What type of systems require a Live Fire Test Report?

A

Any systems designed to kill or protect life (lethality and survivability)

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15
Q

What are the major differences btw development T&E and Operational T&E?

A

DT&E is conducted by govt OR contractor and measures technical performance; generally tested in a controlled environment.
OT&E is conducted ONLY by GOVT and determines operational effectiveness; generally tested in the field environment.

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16
Q

In Test and Evaluation, who reports directly to the SECDEF?

A

the Director of Operational T&E
(the Depty Asst SECDEF for Developmental T&E reports to the UnderSECDEF for Research and Engineering who then reports tot he SECDEF)

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17
Q

What two types of T&E is the Director, OT&E responsible for?

A

Operational T&E
Live Fire T&E
(also prepares reports for Full Rate Production Decisions

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18
Q

How does the Test & Eval Master Plan (TEMP) integrate all disciplines with the acq strategy?

A

-it applies to the entire life cycle
-it specifies personnel, funding and test range support (facility needs)
-initial version by M/S A
-includes cybersecurity strategy

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19
Q

What is the primary source document for the TEMP?

A

CDD- capability design document (draft version by M/S A, verified by M/S B (CDD-V)

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19
Q

Who ensures EVMS compliance with DoD directives?

A

DCMA (DoD EVM Executive Agent – Defense Contract Management Agency)

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20
Q

When is the preliminary schedule and estimate of resources required to do the work developed?

A

Prior to PMB (performance measurement baseline) and before contract award.

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21
Q

What is a Performance Measurement Baseline (PMB)?

A

It is a time-phased plan for completed each piece of authorized work.
It is a work plan estimate tied to the negotiated cost of the contract.

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22
Q

Who develops the PMB?

A

the contractor

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23
Q

What influences determination of management reserve?

A

Assessment of program risk

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24
Q

What advantages do Federally Funded Research Centers (FFRDC) and University Affiliated Research Centers (UARC) provide?

A

Leverage research capabilities, drive innovation and problem solving in support of Government sponsor.

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25
Q

How may levels in Technology Readiness?

A

1 through 9

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26
Q

What is Advanced Technology Demo? (ATD)

A

Hardware and software prototypes that:
-Demonstrates feasibility of a technology
-refines basic and applied research
-little to no user involvement
-pre M/S B

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27
Q

What is a Joint Capability Technology Demonstration? JCTDs

A

Provides for more informed acquisition decisions and accelerated acquisition process.
-Develop realistic requirements
-Evaluate military utility
-Develop CONOPS
-“try before buy”

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28
Q

What is the US Technology posture in regards to defense acquisition?

A

Rely on commercial technologies and industry investments.

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29
Q

What are the parts of a presentation?

A

Opening - sets the tone
Body - provide evidence for purpose of brief
Closing - drive home takeaways, reinforce take-aways

30
Q

Steps to prepare a presentation.

A

1) Analyze the Audience
2) Understand the Deliverable
3) Determine the purpose

31
Q

What are the components for effective presentation delivery techniques?

A

Verbal
Vocal
Visual

32
Q

Which of the following are NOT risk indicators?
– Application of management reserves
– Significant revisions of PMB
– Zero variance
-On schedule
– Sudden change in monthly performance trends
– Linear downward cost variance
– Unreasonable TCPI

A

On schedule

33
Q

What is the purpose of a Life Cycle Cost Estimate?

A

-Form basis of program budgets
-Required by acquisition regulation
-Support HQ analyses
-Defend program budget requirements
-Choosing a contractor in a source selection

34
Q

What is the learning curve theory?

A

Notionally: As production of product quantity increases, the labor hours per unit to produce the product decreases
More detail: as the quantity of a product produced doubles, the per unit production hours expended decreases at a fixed rate or constant %

35
Q

What influences the Learning Curve Theory?

A

– Worker experience
– Uninterrupted production
– Consistent design
– Tooling improvements
– Emphasis on productivity

36
Q

What cost element does the Learning Curve Theory apply to?

A

production labor only for repeatable processes

37
Q

What is “will cost”?

A

Funded-to level, what the program “will cost”

38
Q

What is “should cost”?

A

The desired cost of the program after cost savings from management initiatives.
ex Will Cost - Mngmt Initiatives = Should Cost

39
Q

Which of the following is NOT a “should cost” management opportunities/initiative:
– Learning curve improvements
– Process improvements
– Changes in contracting
– More COTS parts
– Competition
– Incentives

A

– More COTS parts. Using GFE is an opportunity to save money.

40
Q

High level estimates and subjectivity are disadvantages for which of the following cost estimation techniques?
a) analogy
b) parametric
c) engineering
d) actuals

A

a) analogy

41
Q

What are the advantages of the analogy method in cost estimating?

A

-inexpensive, easily changed
-can be based on experience

42
Q

Which cost estimating method is accurate but time consuming?

A

engineering method

42
Q

Which cost estimating method uses statistical techniques and why is that helpful?

A

parametric method. it is inexpensive, easily changed and utilizes a multitude of quantitative measurements

43
Q

Which cost estimating method requires a WBS?

A

engineering method

44
Q

Which cost estimating method is also known as the “bottom-up” estimate?

A

engineering method

45
Q

which cost estimating method utilizes extrapolation and when?

A

actuals method, used in development and production. need data in order to extrapolate, so cannot use early in development.

46
Q

When is EOA?

A

before M/S B

47
Q

When is OA?

A

before M/S C

48
Q

What is the source document for measurable parameters to be tested?

A

CDD

49
Q

When is IOT&E?

A

after M/S C

50
Q

true/false: if a live fire full up system test waiver is requested, no proof of meeting requirements is necessary.

A

FALSE- SECDEF must approve the waiver and include a report stating how the system lethality or survivability will be evaluated (meet requirements).

51
Q

Does integrated DT/OT remove the requirement for IOT&E?

A

NO- IOT&E must be done independently and cannot be combined

52
Q

What are the risks for integrated testing?

A

Integrated DT/OT risks:
-test events may be longer/more complex
-test failures can have larger effects
-KTR negative influence of OT results
-Independent testers see the sys while it is immature

53
Q

What is the purpose of T&E?

A

Enable the DoD to acquire systems that WORK. Process to compare a system to its requirements.
-identify risks
-reduce costs
-validate mod/sim
-determine effectiveness, lethality
-exit criteria for M/S decisions

54
Q

What responsibilities does the Director of Operational and T&E have?

A

Test plans for:
OT&E
LFT&E

Full Rate Production Reports:
BLRIP report
LFT&E report

Annual report to Congress

55
Q

How does modeling and simulation help the acquisition life cycle and when it is used?

A

It helps by reducing risks and it used throughout the entire life cycle.

56
Q

true/false: SUBSAFE was created to increase safety of submariners.

A

FALSE. It was created after the USS Thresher disaster to assure operation of critical systems/components to recover from a flooding casualty.

57
Q

What is the 8010 Manual?

A

It is a document for fire prevention and response in the industrial environment.
It applies to ships AND subs.

58
Q

What are the two requirements to perform work on a ship or submarine?

A

1) Technical Work Document
2) Authorization

59
Q

What are the 3 types of Technical Work Documents? And how do you select which one to use?

A

1) Maintenance Procedure
2) Formal Work Package
3) Controlled Work Package

Use the JFMM and consider complexity of task and level of skill required.

60
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Repair Activity?

A

–
Ensure you have TUM qualified people
–
Ensure your personnel understand the Tag-Out (T/O)
–
Ensure accuracy and adequacy of the T/O
–
Sign the T/O as the RA representative
–
Ensure that when the T/O is no longer needed, sign for their removal

61
Q

What is the main planning output before starting an AVAIL?

A

an integrated schedule of all work for the AVAIL

62
Q

Who maintains the baseline AWP?

A

SUBMEPP- subs
CPA- carriers (carrier planning activity)
SURFMEPP- surface ships

63
Q

What are the 5 sources of AWP work candidates?

A

1) Class Maintenance Plan (CMP)
2) Authorized ALTS
3) TYCOM repairs
4) TSRA-Total Ship Readiness Assessments (results of pre-AVAIL tests and inspections
5) Current Ship Maintenance Project (CSMP)

64
Q

What are the advantages of a Multi Award Contract Multi Option (MACMO)

A

-firm fixed price contract for surface ship repair
-separates planning activity from the executing activity
-maximizes competition

65
Q

During an AVAIL, who is responsible for certification of work accomplished?

A

the Naval Supervising Activity…GOVERNMENT never KTR
ie RMC, SUPSHIP, NSY
ie CHENG

66
Q

During an AVAIL who is responsible for the work tasks being accomplished?

A

the Lead Maintenance Activity who can be the KTR or a public shipyard. They integrate activities and track progress.

67
Q

During an AVAIL, what is a “key event” and what is a “milestone”?

A

– Key Event: High level breakdown of principle activities with hard dates set for completion
– Milestone: Lower level that supports higher level events i.e., Key Events

68
Q

Who has total responsibility at a Public Shipyard?

A

The Project Superintendent

69
Q

Who reports to the Project Superintendent and directs the project planning and job sequencing?

A

the Project Engineering and Planning Manager

70
Q

Who is in charge at an RMC?

A

The Project Manager is the RMC org lead and the Port Engineer is the maintenance team lead and the TYCOM rep.

71
Q
A

ED Basic Class 24B-2 (3 decks)

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