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Endo/Repro > Test 2 (Week 4) > Flashcards

Test 2 (Week 4) Flashcards

1
Q

what can be used for pharmacological induction of labor?

A

oxytocin

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2
Q

What are the 2 forms of chlamydia and which is the infectious form?

A

elementary body and reticulate body; elementary body is infectious form

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3
Q

What’s the function of oxytocin in regards to lactation?

A

stimulates myoepithelial cell contraction to enable milk produced to be ejected from the gland.

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4
Q

circumscribed nodule of crowded, uniform, medium sized glands

A

Gleason Grade 1

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5
Q

Patients with decreased percentages of free PSA have an _____ risk of prostate cancer.

A

increased

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6
Q

What is epispadias and what is is incidence?

A

urethra opens up along dorsum of penis; usually associated with bladder exostrophy or ventral body wall defects; 1/30,000

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7
Q

Which receptors do granulosa cells have?

A

FSH and LH (only later in the process do they express LH receptors

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8
Q

Torsion of the testis is a ____.

A

medical emergency

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9
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

ampulla of oviduct

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10
Q

Tumor is circumscribed, but minimal extension of glands into the surrounding prostate is present at the edges of the nodule

A

Gleason Grade 2

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11
Q

Which hormone dominates the luteal phase?

A

progesterone

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12
Q

What serum marker is used to detect yolk sac tumors/endodermal sinus tumors?

A

alpha-fetoprotein

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13
Q

What’s the function of the corpus luteum?

A

provides progesterone for implantation of blastocyst and maintenance of zygote until placenta can take over

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14
Q

What’s the definition of early term?

A

between 37 weeks and 38 weeks 6 days

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15
Q

What causes the difference between male and female hematocrit?

A

the stimulatory effect of testosterone one EPO production

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16
Q

What does the follicle become after the egg is extruded?

A

corpus luteum

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17
Q

A pre-pubertal testicular teratoma is ____.

A

benign

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18
Q

What is gender identity?

A

Inner sense of one’s own maleness or femaleness -usually by the age of 3

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19
Q

What’s the pathologic hallmark of syphilis caused orchitis?

A

obliterative endarteritis

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20
Q

What must testosterone be converted to before it can have an effect on neurons?

A

estrogen

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21
Q

What does androgen binding protein do?

A

Binds to Testosterone, DHT, and estradiol to make these steroids less lipophilic and concentrates them within the luminal fluid of the seminiferous tubules

ABP binding of testosterone enhances spermatogenesis

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22
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of Finasteride?

A

blocks 5-alpha reductase from converting testosterone to DHT

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23
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of Degarelix and what is it used to treat?

A

GnRH receptor antagonist; approved for advanced prostate cancer

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24
Q

What are the most common benign tumors of the uterus?

A

Leiomyoma

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25
Q

What is PSA? What levels of serum PSA are considered abnormal?

A

serine protease produced in the prostatic epithelium; >4 ng/ml is considered abnormal

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26
Q

What does the urogenital sinus become in females?

A

greater vestibular glands and urethral/paraurethral glands

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27
Q

What’s the function of the peg cells in the oviduct mucosa?

A

they are secretory and serve to nourish the oocyte, inhibit the growth of microorganisms, aid in transport, and effect sperm capicitation

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28
Q

Fused, ill-defined glands with poorly formed lumina; Cribriform glands

A

Gleason Grade 4

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29
Q

List the orally effective androgen that are subject to abuse by athletes and body builders.

A

oxandrolone, fluoxymesterone, stanozolol

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30
Q

What do sertoli cells produce that results in degeneration of paramesonephric ducts?

A

anti-mullerian hormone

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31
Q

Describe how dihydrotestosterone (DHT) is produced.

A

Testosterone is converted to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) by 5-alpha-reductase in the prostate

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32
Q

XY germ cells carry which gene that encodes “testis determining factor”?

A

SRY gene

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33
Q

Androgenic alopecia is male pattern balding due to the effect of ________.

A

DHT on hair follicles in the skin.

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34
Q

What stimulates an oocyte to complete Meiosis I?

A

LH; specifically, LH stimulates meiosis inducing factor production by granulosa cells

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35
Q

What are progesterone and estrogen levels like during regular lactation?

A

very low; usually results in amenorrhea and cessation of menstrual cycles

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36
Q

What do leydig cells do?

A

secrete testosterone

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37
Q

What causes paraphimosis?

A

When a phimotic prepuce (foreskin) is forcibly retracted over the glans penis, marked constriction and swelling may block replacement

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38
Q

What coincides with the rapid weight gain of the fetus at 34-40 weeks?

A

rapid ossification of fetal bones

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39
Q

What do sertoli cells secrete?

A

androgen binding protein (increases concentration of testosterone) and inhibin (inhibits pituitary FSH)

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40
Q

What’s the fate of the mesonephric and paramesonephric ducts in the male?

A

mesonephric duct persists, paramesonephric duct degenerates

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41
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of Ketoconazole and what is it used for?

A

inhibits steroid synthesis; it’s an anti fungal agent, but it’s used to suppress steroid synthesis in patients with testosterone-responsive metastatic prostate cancer

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42
Q

What’s the diagnostic hallmark of yolk sac tumors seen on histology?

A

Schiller-Duval body

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43
Q

What is Oxymetholone and what is it used for?

A

17alpha analog; anemia (stimulates EPO) oral administration

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44
Q

What’s the most common node to which germ cell tumors will spread?

A

para-aortic retroperitoneal nodes

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45
Q

Describe the route by which TB spreads in the male genitalia

A

begins in epididymis and spreads to testis

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46
Q

What’s the drug of choice for chlamydial genital tract infections?

A

doxycycline

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47
Q

Levels of what steroids will be high in menopause?

A

LH and FSH

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48
Q

Solid sheets of cells, Single cells or cords of cells , Comedonecrosis

A

Gleason Grade 5

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49
Q

Which duct develops in males: mullerian or wolffian?

A

Wolffian

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50
Q

Why do the majority of prostatic adenocarcinomas not present with urinary tract symptoms?

A

b/c the majority of these tumors are in the peripheral zone (posterior aspect adjacent to rectum)

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51
Q

What stimulates development of external genitalia in the female?

A

estrogens

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52
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally age 13 years or younger).

A

Pedophillic disorder

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53
Q

Embryos with two paternal chromosomes is the cause of what?

A

complete hydatidiform mole and may produce choriocarcinoma

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54
Q

What’s the definition of post term?

A

after 42 weeks

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55
Q

What is Finasteride used to treat?

A

BPH and male pattern baldness

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56
Q

How do you calculate Gleason score?

A

most common Gleason grade + second most common Gleason grade scale is from 2-10 with higher score suggesting worse prognosis

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57
Q

How is chlamydia often diagnosed?

A

nucleic acid amplification test

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58
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent and intense sexual arousal from observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, in the process of disrobing, or engaging in sexual activity, as manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviors.

A

Voyeurisitic disorder

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59
Q

What is Anti-Mullerian Hormone diagnostic of?

A

reproductive stage. high blood AMH means higher remaining egg supply

low AMH = decreasing numbers of small follicles

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60
Q

What does AMH stand for?

A

Anti-Mullerian Hormone

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61
Q

Describe the route by which syphilis spreads in the male genitals

A

starts in testis and spreads to involve epididymis

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62
Q

What enzyme converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) ?

A

5alpha-reductase

63
Q

What’s the definition of late term?

A

41st week

64
Q

What’s the most common testicular tumor in men over 60?

A

lymphoma

65
Q

What are the 2 cell components of an ovary?

A

Theca cells and granulosa cellls

66
Q

Single, discrete glands of varying size and shape that infiltrate amongst benign prostate

A

Gleason Grade 3

67
Q

What will the mesoneprhic duct develop into in males?

A

SEED structures Seminal vesicles, epididymis, ejaculatory ducts, ductus deferens

68
Q

What’s the function of prolactin in regards to lactation?

A

stimulates milk production in the epithelial cells of the breast

69
Q

What are the side effects of androgens in women?

A

virilization: acne, facial hair, deep voice, muscle development

70
Q

A post-pubertal testicular teratoma is ____.

A

malignant

71
Q

What are the two types of cells in oviduct mucosa?

A

Peg cells and ciliated cells

72
Q

The functionalis layer of the endometrium is supplied by ____.

A

coiled arteries

73
Q

What is cryptorchidism and what is its incidence?

A

failure of testes to reach scrotal sac by 4th month; 3% of newborns

74
Q

the testes themselves do not function properly

A

primary hypogonadism

75
Q

What is hypospadias and what is its incidence?

A

abnormal opening of urethra on ventral side of shaft; 3-5/1000 births

76
Q

Which cells secrete androgen binding protein?

A

secreted by Sertoli cells in response to FSH

77
Q

What must testosterone be converted to before it can have an effect on the prostate?

A

dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

78
Q

What do the genital swellings become in males?

A

scrotum

79
Q

Which hormone dominates the follicular phase?

A

estrogen (estradiol)

80
Q

What stimulates development of external genitalia in the male?

A

dihydrotestosterone

81
Q

What are the side effects of androgens in men?

A

impotence, decreased spermatogenesis, gynecomastia, liver abnormalities, psychotic episodes “roid rage”

82
Q

What is condyloma acuminatum?

A

Benign papillary squamous neoplasm caused by HPV (sexually transmitted) –Commonly type 6 and 11–

83
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the physical or psychological suffering of another person, as manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviors.

A

sexual sadism disorder

84
Q

Hypospadias is a malformation of the urethral groove on which surface of the penis?

A

ventral surface

85
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of Flutamide?

A

blocks androgen receptor

86
Q

The Basalis layer of the endometrium is supplied by ____.

A

straight arteries

87
Q

What do the genital swellings become in females?

A

labia majora

88
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the exposure of one’s genitals to an unsuspecting person, as manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviors.

A

Exhibitionistic disorder

89
Q

If secondary hypogonadism is suspected, the patient should be evaluated for a_____.

A

pituitary tumor

90
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent and intense sexual arousal from either the use of nonliving objects or a highly specific focus on nongenital body part(s), as manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviors.

A

Fetishistic disorder

91
Q

web neck, dwarfism, infertile, amenorrhea, look female, streak gonads, cardiac and renal abnormalities

A

Turner’s Syndrome, XO

92
Q

Which receptors do theca cells have?

A

LH

93
Q

Describe the morphology of neisseria gonnorhea

A

gram negative, aerobic, intracellular diplococci

94
Q

What’s a very common metastasis site for late prostate cancer?

A

bone; usually axial skeleton (spine or pelvic girdle)

95
Q

From what is the lower 2/3 of the vagina formed from?

A

elongation and canalization of sinovaginal bulbs (outgrowths of urogenital sinus)

96
Q

Which zone of the prostate is the most common site of BPH?

A

transition zone (periurethral location)

97
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent and intense sexual arousal from touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person, as manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviors.

A

Frotteuristic Disorder

98
Q

What’s the fate of the mesonephric and paramesonephric ducts in the female?

A

mesonephric duct degenerates, paramesonephric duct persists

99
Q

What do the urethral folds become in males?

A

ventral shaft of penis

100
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent and intense sexual arousal from cross-dressing, as manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviors.

A

Transvestic disorder

101
Q

Which zone of the prostate is the most common site of prostatic adenocarcinoma?

A

peripheral zone (posterior aspect adjacent to rectum)

102
Q

Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the act of being humiliated, beaten, bound, or otherwise made to suffer, as manifested by fantasies, urges, or behaviors.

A

Sexual Masochism Disorder

103
Q

What’s the definition of full term?

A

between 39 weeks and 40 weeks 6 days.

104
Q

What enzyme converts testosterone to estradiol 17beta?

A

aromatase

105
Q

how do sperm go from the rete to the epididymis?

A

via efferent ducts

106
Q

Germ cell tumors most commonly spread via lymphatics. When they spread hematogenously though, where do they most often go to?

A

lungs

107
Q

impaired testicular function is a consequence of hypothalamic or pituitary disorders, such as a pituitary tumor

A

secondary hypogonadism

108
Q

What’s the drug of choice for gonorrhea?

A

ceftriaxone (but don’t forget to throw in doxy to cover for chlamydia

109
Q

What’s the function of the ciliated cells in the oviduct mucosa ?

A

aid in transport of the oocyte

110
Q

the preferred sexual differentiation of the partner

A

sexual object choice

111
Q

What does the urogenital sinus become in males?

A

bulbourethral glands and prostate glands

112
Q

What is an acquired mutation present in 40-50% of prostatic adenocarcinomas?

A

TMPRSS2-ETS fusion genes

113
Q

What is Methyltestosterone and what is it used for?

A

17alpha analog; hypogonadism, delayed puberty, palliative tx of breast cancer

oral or buccal administration

114
Q

Which duct develops in females: mullerian or wolffian?

A

Mullerian

115
Q

What serum marker is used to detect pure type seminoma?

A

beta-hCG

116
Q

Age-associated decrease in androgen production in men

A

andropause (late-onset hypogonadism)

117
Q

male phenotype with small penis and rudimentary testes, low androgen production

A

Klinefelter’s Syndrome, XXY

118
Q

The Gleason grading system is based on ______ alone.

A

architecture alone (not nuclear atypia)

119
Q

What is phimosis?

A

the orifice of the foreskin is too small to permit normal retraction

120
Q

In folliculogensis, a primordial follicle develops into a ____.

A

Griffian follicle

121
Q

remnant of corpus luteum after it undergoes apoptosis

A

corpus albicans

122
Q

Describe the partnership between Theca cells and granulosa cells.

A

theca cells produce androgens. Granulosa cells convert these androgen to estrogen

123
Q

Embryos with two maternal chromosomes is the cause of what?

A

ovarian teratomas

124
Q

Where do sinovaginal bulbs come from?

A

outgrowths of urogenital sinus

125
Q

Epispadias is a malformation of the urethral groove on which surface of the penis?

A

dorsal surface

126
Q

What is a Gartner’s cyst?

A

cyst of remnant mesonephric duct in a female

127
Q

What is needed to produce the LH surge required for ovulation?

A

an increase in estradiol to stimulate LH surge

128
Q

What does the fused paramesonephric ducts give rise to?

A

body and cervix of the uterus as well as the vaginal fornices (upper 1/3 of vagina)

129
Q

What are the functions of sertoli cells?

A

supportive, nourishes developing sperm

130
Q

What are the side effects of androgens in children?

A

epiphyseal closure and abnormal sexual maturation

131
Q

What’s the role of glycerophosphocholine (produced by Principal cells)?

A

inhibits capacitation until sperm meets secondary oocyte in uterine tube

132
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of DES and what can it be used for?

A

synthetic estrogen; palliative treatment of metastatic prostatic carcinoma (estrogens suppress hypothalamic release of GnRH)

133
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of Gossypol?

A

causes vacuolization and breakdown of Sertoli cells and reduces sperm density (used as male contraceptive)

134
Q

When do the urethral folds fuse to form the penile urethra?

A

8th month

135
Q

Which androgen is related to BPH?

A

dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

136
Q

What organism cause acute bacterial prostatitis ?

A

E. coli and other gram negative rods

137
Q

In what part of the ovary will you find less mature, developing follicles?

A

periphery of the ovary

138
Q

What does the genital tubercle become in the male?

A

glans penis, corpus cavernosum, corpus spongiosum

139
Q

How do sperm go from the seminiferous tubules to the rete?

A

via tubuli recti

140
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of Leuprolide and how is it used?

A

GnRH analog; when given in pulsatile fashion, it stimulates gonadotropins. When given in continuous fashion, it inhibits gonadotropins

141
Q

What has gotten twisted in torsion and what affects is this producing?

A

twisting of spermatic cord; obstructs venous drainage and arterial supply

142
Q

In which part of the epididymis will you find the most mature sperm?

A

the tail

143
Q

What’s the function of inhibin?

A

inhibits FSH production; may suppress secretion of GnRH at hypothalamus

144
Q

What’s the role of granulosa cells?

A

support oocyte (analogous to sertoli cells)

145
Q

What do the urethral folds become in females?

A

labia minora

146
Q

What is sexual identity ?

A

Sexual Identity is the pattern biologic sex characteristics: chromosomes, external and internal genitalia, hormonal composition, gonads, secondary sex traits.

147
Q

How are sertoli cells connected to one another?

A

occluding (tight) junctions

148
Q

What can be used as a treatment for hirsutism in women?

A

spironolactone

149
Q

How is the broad ligament of the uterus formed?

A

fusion of the two paramesonephric ducts

150
Q

What does the genital tubercle become in the female?

A

glans clitoris, vestibular bulbs

151
Q

What developmental process has been interrupted if a male patient is born with hypospadias?

A

closure of urethral folds

152
Q

What developmental structure persists and allows for the appearance of a congenital inguinal hernia?

A

patent processus vaginalis

153
Q

A hydrocele arises from fluid collection in what developmental structure?

A

tunica vaginalis

Endo/Repro (4 decks)

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