TEST 2 - SAMPLE QUESTIONS Flashcards
Which of the following statements is accurate when discussing self-treatment options with a patient?
A. “Over-the-counter medications are not as potent as prescription drugs.”
B. “Herbal remedies have not demonstrated any adverse effects with their use.”
C. “Natural health products are safe to use when taking prescription drugs.”
D. “Consult with a pharmacist when considering over-the-counter medication therapy.”
D
Over-the-counter medications can be appropriately used, but it is always best to use them in consultation with the health care provider.
What is the nurse’s best response when a patient questions a nurse about natural health treatments for arthritic pain?
A. “Ginkgo biloba has shown tremendous benefit as an anti-inflammatory agent.”
B. “High doses of vitamins have been used for many years to help maintain joint health.”
C. “There really are no safe herbal treatments for medical problems, including pain.”
D. “Consult with your health care provider before considering a natural health product for pain.”
D
Glucosamine sulphate with chondrotin has demonstrated benefits for pain symptoms. However, they, and other natural health treatments, should always be used in consultation with the health care provider.
Dietary supplements are regulated by which federal legislation?
A. Natural Health Products Regulations
B. Over-the-Counter Product Regulations
C. Canada Gazette
D. Therapeutic Products Index
A
Dietary supplements are considered a natural health product and therefore are regulated according to the federal Natural Health Products Regulations.
The medical use of cannabis is considered legal in Canada for which of the following types of medical disorders? A. Obsessive-compulsive disorder B. Pain from a cancer source C. Alcohol withdrawal syndrome D. Postoperative appendectomy pain
B
Different types of cannabis preparations are legally available by prescription to control pain in patients with advanced cancer.
When administering intravenous magnesium sulfate, the nurse will monitor for which of the following signs and symptoms of hypermagnesemia? A. Depressed tendon reflexes B. Hyperthermia C. Diaphoresis D. Tachycardia
A
Signs and symptoms of excess magnesium include tendon reflex loss, difficult bowel movements, central nervous system depression, respiratory distress, heart block, and hypothermia.
A patient reports experiencing a metallic taste in his mouth that is increasing in intensity. What does the nurse suspect is causing this symptom?
A. An overdose of vitamin A
B. A toxic amount of vitamin D
C. A deficiency of vitamin B6
D. A subtherapeutic level of vitamin B
B
The toxic effects of vitamin D include weakness, fatigue, headache, anorexia, dry mouth, metallic taste, nausea, vomiting, ataxia, and bone pain.
Cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12) is indicated for the treatment of which of the following medical conditions? A. Acute lymphocytic leukemia B. Pernicious anemia C. Bone marrow suppression D. Optic nerve atrophy
B
Cyanocobalamin is used to treat deficiency states of vitamin B12. The most common manifestation of untreated cyanocobalamin deficiency is pernicious anemia.
Which of the following are symptoms specific to vitamin C toxicity? A. Excessive bleeding tendencies B. Constipation C. Seizure activity D. Abdominal cramps
D
Megadoses of vitamin C can cause nausea and vomiting, headache, abdominal cramps, and the development of renal stones.
Vitamin K is an antidote for which of the following types of medication? A. Oral anticoagulants B. Intravenous antibiotics C. Intramuscular analgesics D. Steroid ointments
A
Vitamin K is an essential nutrient for the synthesis of clotting factors. It is also the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin), an oral anticoagulant. The administration of vitamin K enhances the coagulation process, thus minimizing a patient’s risk for excessive bleeding.
The nurse would question a physician’s order for vitamin D in a patient with which of the following diagnosis? A. Chronic renal failure B. Hypothyroidism C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Grave’s disease
C
Vitamin D is contraindicated with hypercalcemia, a clinical manifestation of hyperparathyroidism.
To prevent osteoporosis, menopausal women are encouraged to take which of the following types of mineral supplements? A. Calcium B. Magnesium C. Zinc D. Phosphorous
A
Calcium replacement is encouraged for women in the menopausal and postmenopausal state of development, as they become depleted of the necessary calcium stores secondary to hormonal changes. As calcium stores become depleted, the bone becomes porous, putting older women at risk for pathological fractures.
Which of the following is the most appropriate drug classification to treat a patient with a diagnosis of anxiety? A. Barbituate B. Hypnotic C. Anxiolytic D. Muscle relaxant
C
The anxiolytic drug class is a type of benzodiazepine that is prescribed to relieve anxiety.
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with a benzodiazepine overdose. The nurse immediately prepares to administer which of the following antidotes from the emergency drug cart? A. flumazenil (Anexate) B. naloxone (Narcan) C. naltrexone (ReVia) D. nalmefene
A
Flumazenil (Anexate) is the antidote for benzodiazepine overdoses
Which of the following drug classifications is the preferred choice for treating symptoms of alcohol withdrawal? A. Barbituates B. Sedatives C. Muscle relaxants D. Benzodiazepines
D
Benzopdiazepines are used in the treatment and prevention of alcohol withdrawal symptoms due to their skeletal muscle relaxant effect. Additionally, the benzodiazepine central nervous system (CNS) receptors are found in the same location as the CNS receptors that play a role in addiction.
Older adults who take sedatives are at high risk for which of the following safety events? A. Gastrointestinal bleed B. Falls C. Hypertension D. Decreased visual acuity
B
Older adults are at risk for falls based on the adverse effects of most sedative medications. The effects of lethargy, dizziness, and hypokinesia are adverse effects of barbiturates and benzodiazepines.
Which of the following nursing diagnoses is appropriate for a patient who has received a sedative-hypnotic agent? A. Risk for injury B. Fluid volume excess C. Risk for infection D. Alteration in tissue perfusion
A
Sedative-hypnotics cause CNS depression, putting the patient at risk for injury
A patient is admitted to the emergency department with an overdose of a barbiturate. The nurse immediately prepares to administer which of the following from the emergency drug cart? A. flumazenil (Anexate) B. Ipecac syrup C. Naloxone HCl D. Activated charcoal
D
There is no antidote for barbiturates. The use of activated charcoal absorbs any drug in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing absorption.
During patient teaching, which of the following statements by the nurse best explains the difference between a sedative and hypnotic?
A. “Sedatives are much stronger than hypnotic drugs and should only be used for short periods of time.”
B. “Sedative drugs induce sleep, whereas hypnotic drugs induce a state of hypnosis.”
C. “Sedatives reduce nervousness without causing sleep, whereas hypnotics cause sleep.”
D. “There really is no difference; the terms are used interchangeably.”
C
Many drugs have both sedative and hypnotic properties, with the sedative properties evident at low doses and the hypnotic properties demonstrated at larger doses.
Which of the following would explain the administration of dantrolene (Dantrium) to a patient immediately postoperatively? A. Delirium tremens B. Malignant hyperthermia C. A tonic-clonic seizure D. Respiratory arrest
B
Dantrolene (Dantrium) is a direct-acting musculoskeletal muscle relaxant and is the drug of choice to treat malignant hyperthermia, a complication of generalized anaesthesia.
