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PMY > Test 2 Review > Flashcards

Test 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

Anti-arrhythmic and beta-blocker antiarrhythmic are two categories of cardiovascular drugs. What are the other 3 categories?

A

Positive Inotropic Agents
Vasodilators and ACE inhibitors
Aspirin

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2
Q

Aspirin is technically a miscellaneous cardiovascular drug. Why is this?

A

It is used as a blood thinner although this is not its primary effect.

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3
Q

Cardiovascular drugs don’t just effect the heart, but also the ____________

A

circulatory system

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4
Q

What are some responses you can expect when provoking the SYMPATHETIC nervous system?

A

Increase in force of contraction
Increase in blood pressure
increase in heart rate
Construction of all peripheral blood vessels out of the extremedies
Decrease blood flow to non essential tissues and decrease activity of the gastrointestinal tract

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5
Q

The Sympathetic Nervous System primes our bodies for “Fight or Flight” mode. What mode does the Parasympathetic Nervous System prepare our bodies for?

A

“Rest and Restore” by doing the exact opposite of what a provoked Sympathetic system will do.

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6
Q

To effect the heart rate, which nervous system do we provoke?

A

You can provoke either the sympathetic or the parasympathetic nervous system as long as they are balanced

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7
Q

To increase heart rate, you can either increase _________ or decrease ___________

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

Parasympathetic Nervous System

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8
Q

The Sympathetic Nervous System is also known as the

A

Adrenergic system

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9
Q

The Sympathetic System contains which cardiac-function related receptors? There is 4

A

Alpha-1
Alpha-2
Beta-1
Beta-2

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10
Q

Which two neurotransmitters does the Sympathetic or Adregeneric system use?

A

Adrenaline (Epinephrine) and Noradrenalin (Norepinephrine)

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11
Q

If the neurotransmitter connects with the Alpha-1 or Alpha-2 receptors we get increased Heart Rate. If the NT connects with Beta-1 or Beta-2, what would happen?

A

We see increased Heart Rate but not to the same extent

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12
Q

Some Beta receptors are found in the _________

A

bronchioles

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13
Q

Do Beta Blocking medications effect the Beta receptors that are located in the bronchioles?

A

yes

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14
Q

The Parasympathetic Nervous System is also known as the

A

Cholinergic system

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15
Q

Which neurotransmitter does the Parasympathetic or Cholinergic nervous system use?

A

Acetylcholine

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16
Q

What are the basic objectives of treatment? (Cardiovascular drugs)

A 
Control rhythm disturbance 
Maintain or increase cardiac output
Relieve fluid accumulation
Increase oxygenation of blood
Ancillary treatment
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17
Q

What is the difference between an Arteriolar dilatory and Venodilators?

A

Arteriolar dilator: increase the afterload on the heart

Venodilator: increase the preload on the heart

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18
Q

Which cardiovascular drug type helps relieve fluid accumulation?

A

diuretics

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19
Q

cardiovascular system is linked closely to ________ function

A

kidney

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20
Q

Antiarrhythmic drugs don’t tell the heart how to beat but rather ______

A

Allow the heart to calm down and slow

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21
Q

Define supraventricular

A

above the ventricle

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22
Q

What is the most common Antiarrhytmic drug we use?

A

Lidocaine

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23
Q

Which drug is often used for immediate ventricular tachycardia?

A

lidocaine

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24
Q

Why isn’t Lidocaine used as a long term antiarrhythmic drug?

A

it has a very short half life and doesn’t last long

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25
Q

In order for proper heart function we need proper balances of what 3 elements?

A

calcium
sodium
potassium

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26
Q

What two Sodium channels are in the heart?

A

Fast (helps heart muscle contract faster)

Slow (helps heart muscle contact slower)

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27
Q

Lidocaine is a _______ stabilizing drug

A

membrane

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28
Q

Beta Blockers are used for what purpose

A

to re-establish a rhythm or slow the heart rate

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29
Q

Beta Blockers block the Beta receptors in the heart and allow the heart rate to slow down and re-establish rhythm. True or False?

A

True

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30
Q

What two types of Beta Blockers are there? What concerns come with each? (If any)

A

Selective: targets beta-1 or beta-2
Non-Selective: targets both, but will also block the beta receptors in the bronchioles causing Reflex Broncho-Restriction or a minor cough.

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31
Q

What is an important Beta Blocker to know?

A

“Inderal” or “Atenolol” active drug is Propranolol

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32
Q

Why do we start on a low dose of Beta Blockers and gradually increase?

A

A sudden decrease in dose of Beta Blockers will cause upregultion, all of the Beta receptors are opened at once resulting in an accelerated heart rate which is potentially lethal

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33
Q

Positive Inotropic Agents main purpose is to:

A

increase the strength of contraction in a weakened heart

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34
Q

How do Positive Inotropic Agents work?

A

They make more Calcium available to the contractile proteins in the muscle cell

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35
Q

The body has natural positive inotropes called:

A

catecholamines

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36
Q

Positive Inotropic Agents can also be called Adrenerhic or Sympathimimetic. Why?

A

They mimic the sympathetic system

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37
Q

Lanoxin and Cardoxin are brand names for what Positive Inotropic Agent drug?

A

Digoxin

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38
Q

What is the drug of choice for long term positive inotropic effects?

A

digoxin

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39
Q

Vasodilators are used to relieve some of the cardiac workload. How?

A

Opening constricted sphincters
Decreasing resistance to flow
Making it easier for the heart to pump through the vessels

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40
Q

True or false: Reducing the workload on the heart has no long term benefits

A

False. It means the heart will last longer.

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41
Q

The broad term for cardiac disease is:

A

heart failure

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42
Q

Vasoconstriction means _______ blood flow (increase or decrease)

A

decrease

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43
Q

Vasoconstriction causes decreased renal perfusion. The kidney detects this and produces a hormone called _________

A

Renin

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44
Q

Renin combines with ________ which is produced in the liver and creates a substance called ___________

A

Angiotensinogen

Angiotensin-1

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45
Q

Angiotensin-1 combines with Angiotensin-Converting-Enzyme (ACE) and converts it to Angiotensin-2. What is this system called?

A

Renin Aldosterone Angiotensin System (RAAS)

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46
Q

“Enacard” is an important brand name for what drug? What type of drug is it?

A

Enalapril, a vasodilator

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47
Q

“Vetmedin” (Pimobendan) is technically an ________ because it increases force of contraction and has some dialating effects

A

Inodilator

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48
Q

“Prilium” contains what active drug?

A

Imidapril hydrochloride

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49
Q

Nitroglycerin relaxes the primary blood vessels on the _______ side of the cardiovascular system and helps dilate the coronary arterioles

A

venous side

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50
Q

Aspirin is a brand name for what active drug?

A

Acetylsalicylic acid

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51
Q

Aspirin is a blood thinner. How?

A

Reduces the aggregation of platelets

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52
Q

What is the first clinical sign you’d see when blood thinning is occurring?

A

Peticiation on gums or easy bruising

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53
Q

As a blood clot approaches the vessel bifurcation, the clot becomes occluded into the hind end of the cat and immediately creates inflammation. This is a life threatening condition called:

A

Saddle Thrombus (cats only)

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54
Q

Symptoms of Saddle Thrombus include:

A

paralysis, pain, lameness, screaming or howling

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55
Q

How can the owner help their cat suffering from Saddle Thrombus on the way to the vet?

A

Give them a baby aspirin to thin the blood

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56
Q

Morphine does not work for Saddle Thrombus pain control. Why?

A

The dose needed to control such a large amount of pain will stop the lungs

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57
Q

Urinary system drugs can be used for two reasons: What are they?

A

Management of renal disease

Urinary system disorders

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58
Q

True or false: Some drugs work by influencing urine production and electrolyte balance whereas some maintain blood pressure and reduce urinalysis system disease

A

True

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59
Q

Before you see signs of kidney disease, what percentage of nephrons are already dead or non functional?

A

80-90%

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60
Q

Once you see signs of kidney disease, it is easy to treat. True or False.

A

False. There is no reversing kidney damage.

61
Q

The ______ is critical in maintaining blood pressure

A

kidney

62
Q

What are the four types of renal/urinary drugs?

A

Diuretics
Blood Pressure Lowering
Urolith treatment
Urinary incontinence

63
Q

Diuretics lower blood pressure by:

A

making animal excrete water more

64
Q

Urolith treatment drugs do not get rid of crystals but rather they:

A

Change the pH in the environment of the bladder to disintegrate it

65
Q

True or false: Diuretics mainly increase urine formation and promote water loss from tissues

A

true

66
Q

“Where _______ goes, water molecules will follow.”

A

Sodium molecules

67
Q

Diuretics block the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions. What purpose does this serve?

A

Sodium has nowhere to go but out of the kidneys and into the bladder, drawing water with it and therefore flushing it

68
Q

Diuretics is defined as

A

increased urine production that is provoked

69
Q

What is the strongest type of Diuretics we have?

A

Loop Diuretics

70
Q

Loop Diuretics work in what two ways:

A

Prevent reabsorption of Sodium and Potassium from the renal tubules
OR
Enhance the secretion of Sodium and Potassium into the tubules from the loop of Henle

71
Q

Define hypokalemia

A

decreased potassium in the blood

72
Q

Diuretics increase the secretion of Sodium into the Loop of Henle which excretes out. The body recognizes this quick loss of sodium and makes a last minute switch in the distal convoluted tubule from sodium to _________ because it doesn’t draw as much water

A

potassium

73
Q

Furosemide is the active drug and the most commonly used as a Loop Diuretic. What brand name is it sold under?

A

Lasix

74
Q

Loop diuretics given orally have an onset of action in ________ minutes whereas parenteral administration has an onset of action in _________

A

30-60 mins

5 mins

75
Q

Furosemide cannot be used in patients with what two conditions?

A

Hypovolemic (not enough volume in blood system)

Hypotension (low blood pressure)

76
Q

Mannitol 20% increases blood flow to the _________

A

renal medulla

77
Q

Glycerin “Osmoglyn” is an example of an Osmotic diuretic. True or false.

A

True

78
Q

Osmotic Diuretics should not be used in patients with heart failure. why?

A

because it causes water to move out of cells and into vascular space which causes a circulatory overload

79
Q

Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitors can cause a metabolic _______

A

acidosis

80
Q

Caffeine and Theobromide can be considered as which type of renal drug?

A

Methylxanthines

81
Q

Cholingeric Agonists are primarily used to treat “Spinal Cord Bladder”. What does this term mean?

A

There has been damage to the nerves that control relaxation of the urinary bladder outflow sphincters

82
Q

Although they need it most, which species has a compromised mucociliary clesrance?

A

equine

83
Q

We want to control the reflex of coughing. Why?

A

It can cause permanent damage

84
Q

the inside of the nares are called ______ and they are lined with _______ for protection

A

turbinates

cilia

85
Q

Respiratory reflexes include what 3 symptoms all with the purpose of expelling foreign particles?

A

Cough
Sneeze
Reverse Sneeze

86
Q

There are three respiratory therapeutic principles. What are they?

A

control secretions
control reflexes
maintain normal airflow to alveoli

87
Q

What is the purpose of an Expectorant respiratory drug?

A

To liquefy and dilute secretions so that they can easily be eliminated

88
Q

Expectorants are used with productive coughs. Why?

A

Because they liquefy secretions so they can be easily expelled (vs a non productive cough where nothing is being coughed up)

89
Q

Why would we use an Expectorant and not a Cough Suppressant?

A

You want the animal to cough up any mucus or secretions that are in the way, you don’t want to suppress a productive cough

90
Q

What is the risk of using a Cough Suppressant on a Productive cough?

A

Pushing mucus lower and risking pneumonia

91
Q

What is the example of Expectorant drugs we are focusing on?

A

“Guaifenesin” active drug is Glyceryl Guaiacolate

92
Q

Guaifenesin is an Expectorant drug. What else is it used for?

A

As a general anaesthetic in equines or to help maintain a general anaesthetic

93
Q

What does a Mucolytic do?

A

Breaks up mucus, decreasing the viscosity so that the cilia can clear it out

94
Q

What is the common Mucolytic we use?

A

“Mucomyst” or “Mucosil-10” active drug is Acetylcysteine

95
Q

Acetylcysteine, a mucolytic, is given via PO or nebuluzation. What does this mean?

A

You place a mask on the animal that is attached to a motorized machine. The drug is in a reservoir and warmed and vaporized by the machine. It is released through the airways. (Like an inhaler)

96
Q

Acetylcysteine, a mucolytic, is also used commonly for what emergency situation?

A

As an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity in felines

97
Q

Which category of respiratory drug is designed to reduce swelling in the mucus membranes via vasoconstriction of the nasal blood vessels

A

Decongestant

98
Q

Propagest or Pro-in are brand names of what active drug? What type of drug is it?

A

Phenylpropanolamine

Decongestant

99
Q

Antitussives can be used in what two ways?

A

Centrally (cough centres)

Peripherally (sensory nerves)

100
Q

Butorphanok Tartrate is a narcotic we use as an Antitussive. What is it’s common brand name?

A

Torbugesic “Torb”

101
Q

Torbugesic is used for non productive coughs. Why?

A

It sedated and suppresses the respiratory tract, this is best for chronic and unproductive coughs to prevent damage to respiratory tissues. It is also a pain reliever.

102
Q

In a low dose, Torbugesic becomes a ________ drug while at high doses it becomes a ___________ drug

A

Antitussive

Narcotic

103
Q

Dextromethorphan is sold under the brand name Robitussin. It is different than a Antitussive. How?

A

Antitussives suppress the cough, Dextromethorphan raises the reflex threshold so that the patient does not need to cough

104
Q

Hydrocodone Bitrate is a narcotic used for non productive coughs. True or false.

A

True

105
Q

Dextromethorphan is a narcotic cough suppressant.

A

False, it is non narcotic

106
Q

Analeptic is a respiratory stimulant. How does this work?

A

Acts on the central nervous system to stimulate the respiratory centre of the brain

107
Q

Dopram-V is a brand name for which Respiratory Stimulating drug?

A

Doxapram Hydrochloride

108
Q

Doxapram Hydrochloride is good in what emergency situation?

A

After C sections to get neonates to breathe on their own.

109
Q

How is Dopram-V administered to neonates to stimulate breathing?

A

Sublingual drops

110
Q

How do Antihistamines work?

A

Blocks the effects of Histamine

111
Q

How is Histamine produced?

A

After an allergic reaction, Histamine is released from Mast Cells

112
Q

True or False. Antihistamines are given in higher doses after a longer duration of allergic reaction to reverse any Histamine that was released before the patient was seen.

A

False. Histamine cannot be reversed, only prevented.

113
Q

What is the most important Antihistamine we cover?

A

“Benadryl” active drug Diphenhydramine

114
Q

What is Bronchidilation via Cholinergic Blockers?

A

Combined with acetylcholine receptors on the smooth muscle fibres and prevent the bronchoconstricting effects of acetylcholine

115
Q

Ventipulmin is an important brand name for what active drug?

A

Clenbuterol which is a Beta-2-Adregeneric Agonist

116
Q

There are 3 Gastrointestinal Drug Categories. Name them and their effected systems.

A

Gastric drugs: stomach
Enteric drugs: Intestines
Colonic drugs: Cecum/Colon

117
Q

Name the order in which Ruminant Digestion occurs

A 
Esophagus
Reticulum
Rumen
Mouth
Rumen
Omasum
Abomasum (true stomach)
118
Q

How does the Parasympathetic Nervous System effect the Gastrointestinal System when provoked?

A

Increases digestive secretions

Increase blood flow to GI tract

119
Q

acetylcholine increases stomach______

A

acidity

120
Q

What does an Emetic do? Why is it used?

A

Induced vomiting, used for toxicity or drug overdose

121
Q

How does the Emetic work to induce vomiting?

A

Stimulates the vagus nerve

Stimulates the nerves of the inner ear

122
Q

The Emetic Center of the brain is protected by the:

A

Blood Brain Barrier

123
Q

There is a specialized area of receptors in the Central Nervous System that is capable of detecting toxic substances in the blood and cerebralspinal fluid. What is this called?

A

Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone

124
Q

If burns on the oral mucosa are observed in an animal that has ingested an unknown substance, the ingested compound should be assumed to be ______ unless proven otherwise

A

corrosive

125
Q

When inducing vomiting be sure to give an Emetic and stimulate the gag reflex

A

False. Never stimulate the gag reflex.

126
Q

Emetics can be Centrally Acting or Locally Acting. Name one of each.

A

Central: apomorphine
Local: Ipecac

127
Q

True or false. Ipecac Syrup is Hepatotoxic

A

False. It is Cardiotoxic

128
Q

Activated Charcoal is is given before Syrup of Ipecac to induce vomiting. True or false.

A

False, it is given after

129
Q

Antiemetic work by blocking dopamine receptors in CRTZ and emetic centre. What are two drugs in this category?

A

“Reglan” active drug Metoclopramide

130
Q

Antihistamines are also used as Antiemetics. What three drugs?

A

“Benadryl” Diphenhydramine
“Dramamine” dimenhydrinate
“Phenergan” Promethazine

131
Q

What is a common Antiemetic we use?

A

Convenia

132
Q

Laxatives are also called _______ or _________

A

Cathartics

Purgatives

133
Q

What are some reasons why we might use Laxatives?

A

Chronic constipation

Empty colon for radiographs

134
Q

Famotidine, Ranitidine and Cimetidine are all examples of what Gastrointestinal drug?

A

Antacids (systemic)

135
Q

Why might we use caution when giving Antitussives for therapy?

A

They are mostly narcotic based so they cause ataxia, sedation and addiction. There are reversal agents but these aren’t 100% effective.

136
Q

Explain the order of administration for Syrup of Ipecac and Activated Charcoal.

A

Syrup of Ipecac is administered first. This is because you must allow time for the Ipecac to pass into the intestines to produce the local irritant effect. If you were to give Charcoal first, since it is absorbant it will absorb Ipecac and render it useless.

137
Q

Why is Apomorphine administered via the conjunctival sac?

A

It is safer. Apomorphine is an opioid which stimulates the CRTZ but also suppresses CNS, which includes the emetic centre.

138
Q

What does upregulation mean?

A

Beta Blockers inhibit Beta receptors and allow the heart rate to slow down. The body recognizes the blockage and produces more receptors to compensate. If the drug was stopped cold turkey, all of these receptors would begin to tell the heart to beat fast atthe same time.

139
Q

Xylazine, an emetic drug, works best in cats. Why?

A

They have more Alpha 2 receptors

140
Q

Apomorphine, an emetic drug, works best in canines. Why?

A

They have more dopamine receptors

141
Q

Hypersomolar laxative:

A

draws water to themselves to the bowel, where the pressure of the water causes a bowel movement

142
Q

Locally Acting Emetic:

A

Irritants that vet on a certain muscle reflex to get the animal to vomit

143
Q

Antibloat Medication:

A

Causes gas within animal to coalesce (join) for easier expulsion

144
Q

Why might Propanolol, an antiarrhythmic drug, contribute to difficulty breathing in animals with respiratory disease?

A

It is non selective which means it also blocks the Beta receptors in the Bronchioles causing a minor cough

145
Q

Vasoconstriction stimulates RAAS and produces __________

A

renin

146
Q

Renin and Angiotensinogen combine to make:

A

Angiotensin-1

147
Q

Angiotensin-1 combines with ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) to create:

A

Angiotensin-2

148
Q

What caution should be used when using Nitroglycerin

A

wear gloves, don’t let chicken or other pets touch it

PMY (4 decks)

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