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Pathophysiology 2 > Test 2: Questions > Flashcards

Test 2: Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is a normal constituent of urine?
    a) Sodium
    b) Casts
    c) Protein
    d) Epithelial cells
A

c) Protein

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2
Q
  1. A urine test that is positive for nitrates is indicative of which of the following?
    a) Infection
    b) Diabetes
    c) Kidney stones
    d) Renal failure
A

a) Infection

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3
Q
  1. A patient with Dysuria, frequency, suprapubic discomfort is showing signs of
    a) Cysticnuria
    b) Cystic fibroma
    c) Cysticlerosis
    d) Cystitis
A

d) Cystitis

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4
Q
  1. Bacteria from the intestines (most commonly _____________________) often infect the urinary tract by ascending from the perineal area into the lower urinary tract.
    a) Escherichia coli
    b) Bardetella pertussis
    c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    d) Listeria pyrogenesis
A

a) Escherichia coli

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of pyelonephritis?
    a) It is an obstruction of the ureter resulting an enlarged kidney
    b) It is an infection of the renal pelvis and intersitium
    c) It is characterized by damage to the glomerular membrane
    d) It is characterized by acute tubular necrosis
A

b) It is an infection of the renal pelvis and intersitium

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis
    a) Fever, flank pain, pain at the cost vertebral angle
    b) Dysuria, polyuria, hematuria, paresthesia
    c) Groin pain, chills, hypothermia, cloudy urine
    d) Lower back pain, dysuria, low urine specific gravity
A

a) Fever, flank pain, pain at the costovertebral angle

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7
Q
  1. _________________ is a condition in which urine moves from the bladder back towards the kidney
    a) Ureterovesirular junction
    b) Parenchyma
    c) Vesicoureteral reflux
    d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
A

c) Vesicoureteral reflux

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8
Q
  1. What are signs and symptoms of renal calculi
    a) Hematemesis, flank pain, oliguria
    b) Flank pain , ipsilateral groin pain, hematuria
    c) Contralateral flan pain, polyuria, hematuria
    d) Nausea, vomiting, dysuria, melena
A

b) Flank pain , ipsilateral groin pain, hematuria

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following are disorders that increases the risk of nephrolithiasis
    a) Gout
    b) Enceohalopathy
    c) Beaver fever
    d) Maytrophic lateral sclerosis
A

a) gout

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10
Q
  1. Hydronephrosis may occur secondary to:
    a) Syphilis
    b) Pyelonephritis
    c) Ectopic pregnancy
    d) Nephrolithiasis
A

d) nephrolithiasis

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11
Q
  1. Glomerulonephritis is caused by :
    a) Infection of the glomerulus secondary to a urinary tract infection
    b) Autoimmune destruction of the glomerular membrane
    c) Hydronephrosis from kidney stones
    d) Viral infection in blood that migrate to the kidney tubules
A

d) Viral infection in blood that migrate to the kidney tubules

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12
Q
  1. Glomerular disease may be suspected in a patient with which of the following abnormal components of urine?
    a) Hydrogen
    b) Sodium
    c) Protein
    d) Nitrates
A

d) Nitrates

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13
Q
  1. The major pathophysiologic feature of glomerulonephritis is which of the following?
    a) A dilated kidney resulting in interference with urine outflow
    b) Inflammation of glomerular membrane resulting in increased permeability
    c) Thickening of the glomerular membrane resulting in decreased permeability
    d) Increased filtration resulting in dehydration
A

b) inflammation of glomerular membrane resulting in increased permeability

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of nephritic syndrome
    a) It is the excretion of more than 2 mg of sodium per day
    b) It is characterized by elevated creatinine
    c) It is the excretion of more than 3.5 g protein in the urine per day
A

c) It is the excretion of more than 3.5 g protein in the urine per day

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15
Q
  1. Nephrotic syndrome is most likely with :
    a) Diabetes
    b) Cirribrosis
    c) Hyperthrydoisim
    d) allergies
A

a) diabetes

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following lab results are consistent with a diagnosis of renal failure
    a) Increased hemoglobin
    b) Increased PTT/INR
    c) Increased BUN, Creatinine
    d) Increased creatinine SGOT
A

c) increased BUN, Creatinine

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17
Q
  1. The abnormal lab consistent with renal failure is referred to as:
    a) Aplasia
    b) Aphronia
    c) Aphrasia
    d) Azotemia
A

d) Azotemia

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following contribute to prerenal failure
    a) Dehydration
    b) Nephrolithiasis
    c) Toxic drugs
    d) Enlarged prostate
A

a) Dehydration

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19
Q
  1. Untreated prerenal failure may lead to which of the following
    a) Nephrolithiasis
    b) Urethral stricture
    c) Acute tubular necrosis
    d) Anasarea
A

a) Nephrolithiasis

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20
Q
  1. What is an early sign of acute renal failure
    a) Oliguria
    b) Polyuria
    c) Tachycardia
    d) Anemia
A

a) Oliguria

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21
Q
  1. Patients with chronic renal failure may develop anemia. This is due to which of the following?
A

Decrease in production of eythropoeitin needed for red blood cell production

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22
Q
  1. Benign prostatic hypertrophy is diagnosed by elevated prostatic specific antigen (PSA) in the blood stream
A

FALSE

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23
Q
  1. Loss of blood of bladder control secondary to laughing coughing or sneezing is referred to as:
A

Stress incontinence

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24
Q
  1. Absence of menses is referred to as:
A

amenorrhea

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25
Q
  1. Bleeding between menstrual cycles is referred to as?
A

Metrorrhagia

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following is consistent with ectopic pregnancy?
A

It is characterized by fertilized ovum implanted outside the uterine cavity

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions occurs when the placenta is implanted over the cervical os?
A

Placenta Previa

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is a severe form of pregnancy – induces hypertension that is characterized by clonic convulsions?
A

Eclampsia

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following is STD’s is a systematic infection of the vascular system resulting in damage to the nervous and cardiovascular system if left untreated?
A

Syphilis

30
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the sudden separation of the placenta?
A

Abruption placenta

31
Q
  1. Which of the following types of abortion is characterized by uterine bleeding, but no loss of fetus or placenta?
A

Threatened abortion

32
Q
  1. What is the causative organism of genital warts?
A

Human papilloma virus

33
Q
  1. Separation of a fragment of tissue refers to which of the following?
A

Avulsion

34
Q
  1. Which of the following types of fractures is one with multiple bone fragments?
A

Comminuted fractures

35
Q
  1. In which of the following types of fractures is there angulation (overriding) of the bone fragments?
    a) displaced
    b) Linear
    c) Comminuted
    d) pathological
A

a) displaced

36
Q
  1. which of the following types of incomplete fractures, commonly found in children is characterized by bending of the bone resulting in fracture on only one side of a long bone?
    a) Stress
    b) Greenstick
    c) Depressed
    d) pathological
A

b) Greenstick

37
Q
  1. A patient has a coles fractures. This means that the fracture site is on which of the following anatomical locations?
    a) elbow
    b) wrist
    c) ankle
    d) knee
A

b) wrist

38
Q
  1. in which of the following complications of fractures do bone fragments heal in poor alignment?
    a) Nonunion
    b) malunion
    c) delayed union
    d) compartment syndrome
A

b) malunion

39
Q
  1. which of the following refers to the grating sensation of bone fragments that occur in fractures.
    a) rales
    b) subluxation
    c) crepitus
    d) osteogenesis
A

c) crepitus

40
Q
  1. the partial separation of the bones of a joint is known as:
    a) subluxation
    b) dislocation
    c) malunion
    d) nonunion
A

a) subluxation

41
Q
  1. a tear in a ligament is known as a:
    a) strain
    b) sprain
    c) separation
    d) spasm
A

b) sprain

42
Q
  1. a 24 year old male sustained a fractured femur from an MVA. Approx. 48 hour post injury has develops a sudden onset of chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, and anxiety which of the following pathological states is likely causing these symptoms?
A

fat embolism

43
Q
  1. which of the following laboratory results are elevated when a patient has GOUT
A

uric acid

44
Q
  1. which of the following is consistent with rhabdomyolysis
A

breakdown of smooth muscle due to the toxins or of skeletal muscle due to the overtraining

45
Q
  1. what is a complication of rhabdomyolysis
A

renal failure

46
Q
  1. they major pathophysiological feature of osteoporosis is:
A

Gradual loss of bone mass due to bone reabsorption

47
Q
  1. which of the following risk factors are associated with the development of osteoporosis
A

female gender, small light bone structures, low dietary calcium, secondary dietary calcium, secondary lifestyle

48
Q
  1. a diagnosis of osoteoporosis is made based on which of the following tests?
A

Bone density

49
Q
  1. A sequel of osteoporosis includes:
A

Kyphosis

50
Q
  1. A complication of osteoporosis is which of the following?
A

Pathological fractures of the vertebral bodies

51
Q
  1. The major pathophysiological feature of osteomalacia is:
A

Abnormal bone mineralization resulting in soft spongy bones

52
Q
  1. Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency in:
A

Vitamin D

53
Q
  1. Osteomalacia in children is referred to as:
A

Rickets

54
Q
  1. Osteogenesis imperfect is caused by:
A

Genetic defects in collagen formation

55
Q
  1. Individuals with osteogenesis imperfect are also risk for:
A

pneumonia

56
Q
  1. T or F.

Paget’s disease is characterized by excessive bone remodeling

A

TRUE

57
Q
  1. The most common malignant bone tumor in adolescence is :
A

Osteosarcoma

58
Q
  1. Which of the following is consistent with fibromyalgia
A

Chronic pain in symtic

59
Q
  1. A inherited disorder leading to degeneration of muscle tissue is:
A

Muscular dystrophy

60
Q
  1. Osteotitis deforman is also known as:
A

Paget’s disease

61
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • Hypoalbumiemia
  • Hyperlipidemia
  • Edema
  • Propensity for thrombus formations
62
Q

Why does hypoalbumiemia occur with nephrotic syndrome?

A

hypoalbumeimia: is low albumin, albumin is 50 % protein composition.
and so with nephrotic syndrom you have low protein values so the albumine is also low causing hypoalbumiemia

63
Q

Why does hyperlipidemia occur with nephrotic syndrome?

A

with nephrotic syndrome the kidneys are affected and do not filter well the HDL and LDL creating a build up of lipids in the body : hyperlipidemia

64
Q

Why does edema occur with nephrotic syndrome?

A

Kidneys are not working well: pushing fluid into insterstitial spaces of the tissue causing edema

65
Q

Why does thrombtic events occur with nephrotic syndrome?

A

the protein required for homeostasis are lost in the urine, stimulating hepatic synthesis clotting factors

66
Q

What is the treatment of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • diuretics for edema
  • lipid lowering therapy /good diet
  • hypertensive meds (beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers)
  • immunosepressants
  • transfusion of albumin
67
Q

What patients are at risk for developing compartment syndrome?

A

-athletes
young males
pt with bleeding disorders
pt on anticoagulants

68
Q

What are the causes of compartment syndrome?

A

Causes of compartment syndrome may be divided into three categories: decreased compartment size, increased compartment content, or externally applied pressure.

  • injury to tissue surrounding bone with soft tissue
  • inflammation, swelling, hemorrhaging, edema
69
Q

How do you recognize compartment syndrome?

A

Severe pain out of proportion to the injury, paralysis, paresthesia, pallor, pulselessness

70
Q

What is the treatment of compartment syndrome?

A

Emergent decompression is needed to preserve the limb

Pathophysiology 2 (3 decks)

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