Test 2: Questions Flashcards
1
Q
- What is a normal constituent of urine?
a) Sodium
b) Casts
c) Protein
d) Epithelial cells
A
c) Protein
2
Q
- A urine test that is positive for nitrates is indicative of which of the following?
a) Infection
b) Diabetes
c) Kidney stones
d) Renal failure
A
a) Infection
3
Q
- A patient with Dysuria, frequency, suprapubic discomfort is showing signs of
a) Cysticnuria
b) Cystic fibroma
c) Cysticlerosis
d) Cystitis
A
d) Cystitis
4
Q
- Bacteria from the intestines (most commonly _____________________) often infect the urinary tract by ascending from the perineal area into the lower urinary tract.
a) Escherichia coli
b) Bardetella pertussis
c) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
d) Listeria pyrogenesis
A
a) Escherichia coli
5
Q
- Which of the following best describes the pathogenesis of pyelonephritis?
a) It is an obstruction of the ureter resulting an enlarged kidney
b) It is an infection of the renal pelvis and intersitium
c) It is characterized by damage to the glomerular membrane
d) It is characterized by acute tubular necrosis
A
b) It is an infection of the renal pelvis and intersitium
6
Q
- Which of the following best describes the clinical manifestations of pyelonephritis
a) Fever, flank pain, pain at the cost vertebral angle
b) Dysuria, polyuria, hematuria, paresthesia
c) Groin pain, chills, hypothermia, cloudy urine
d) Lower back pain, dysuria, low urine specific gravity
A
a) Fever, flank pain, pain at the costovertebral angle
7
Q
- _________________ is a condition in which urine moves from the bladder back towards the kidney
a) Ureterovesirular junction
b) Parenchyma
c) Vesicoureteral reflux
d) Benign prostatic hypertrophy
A
c) Vesicoureteral reflux
8
Q
- What are signs and symptoms of renal calculi
a) Hematemesis, flank pain, oliguria
b) Flank pain , ipsilateral groin pain, hematuria
c) Contralateral flan pain, polyuria, hematuria
d) Nausea, vomiting, dysuria, melena
A
b) Flank pain , ipsilateral groin pain, hematuria
9
Q
- Which of the following are disorders that increases the risk of nephrolithiasis
a) Gout
b) Enceohalopathy
c) Beaver fever
d) Maytrophic lateral sclerosis
A
a) gout
10
Q
- Hydronephrosis may occur secondary to:
a) Syphilis
b) Pyelonephritis
c) Ectopic pregnancy
d) Nephrolithiasis
A
d) nephrolithiasis
11
Q
- Glomerulonephritis is caused by :
a) Infection of the glomerulus secondary to a urinary tract infection
b) Autoimmune destruction of the glomerular membrane
c) Hydronephrosis from kidney stones
d) Viral infection in blood that migrate to the kidney tubules
A
d) Viral infection in blood that migrate to the kidney tubules
12
Q
- Glomerular disease may be suspected in a patient with which of the following abnormal components of urine?
a) Hydrogen
b) Sodium
c) Protein
d) Nitrates
A
d) Nitrates
13
Q
- The major pathophysiologic feature of glomerulonephritis is which of the following?
a) A dilated kidney resulting in interference with urine outflow
b) Inflammation of glomerular membrane resulting in increased permeability
c) Thickening of the glomerular membrane resulting in decreased permeability
d) Increased filtration resulting in dehydration
A
b) inflammation of glomerular membrane resulting in increased permeability
14
Q
- Which of the following is true of nephritic syndrome
a) It is the excretion of more than 2 mg of sodium per day
b) It is characterized by elevated creatinine
c) It is the excretion of more than 3.5 g protein in the urine per day
A
c) It is the excretion of more than 3.5 g protein in the urine per day
15
Q
- Nephrotic syndrome is most likely with :
a) Diabetes
b) Cirribrosis
c) Hyperthrydoisim
d) allergies
A
a) diabetes
16
Q
- Which of the following lab results are consistent with a diagnosis of renal failure
a) Increased hemoglobin
b) Increased PTT/INR
c) Increased BUN, Creatinine
d) Increased creatinine SGOT
A
c) increased BUN, Creatinine
17
Q
- The abnormal lab consistent with renal failure is referred to as:
a) Aplasia
b) Aphronia
c) Aphrasia
d) Azotemia
A
d) Azotemia
18
Q
- Which of the following contribute to prerenal failure
a) Dehydration
b) Nephrolithiasis
c) Toxic drugs
d) Enlarged prostate
A
a) Dehydration
19
Q
- Untreated prerenal failure may lead to which of the following
a) Nephrolithiasis
b) Urethral stricture
c) Acute tubular necrosis
d) Anasarea
A
a) Nephrolithiasis
20
Q
- What is an early sign of acute renal failure
a) Oliguria
b) Polyuria
c) Tachycardia
d) Anemia
A
a) Oliguria
21
Q
- Patients with chronic renal failure may develop anemia. This is due to which of the following?
A
Decrease in production of eythropoeitin needed for red blood cell production
22
Q
- Benign prostatic hypertrophy is diagnosed by elevated prostatic specific antigen (PSA) in the blood stream
A
FALSE
23
Q
- Loss of blood of bladder control secondary to laughing coughing or sneezing is referred to as:
A
Stress incontinence
24
Q
- Absence of menses is referred to as:
A
amenorrhea
25
25. Bleeding between menstrual cycles is referred to as?
Metrorrhagia
26
26. Which of the following is consistent with ectopic pregnancy?
It is characterized by fertilized ovum implanted outside the uterine cavity
27
27. Which of the following conditions occurs when the placenta is implanted over the cervical os?
Placenta Previa
28
28. Which of the following is a severe form of pregnancy – induces hypertension that is characterized by clonic convulsions?
Eclampsia
29
29. Which of the following is STD’s is a systematic infection of the vascular system resulting in damage to the nervous and cardiovascular system if left untreated?
Syphilis
30
30. Which of the following refers to the sudden separation of the placenta?
Abruption placenta
31
31. Which of the following types of abortion is characterized by uterine bleeding, but no loss of fetus or placenta?
Threatened abortion
32
32. What is the causative organism of genital warts?
Human papilloma virus
33
33. Separation of a fragment of tissue refers to which of the following?
Avulsion
34
34. Which of the following types of fractures is one with multiple bone fragments?
Comminuted fractures
35
35. In which of the following types of fractures is there angulation (overriding) of the bone fragments?
a) displaced
b) Linear
c) Comminuted
d) pathological
a) displaced
36
36. which of the following types of incomplete fractures, commonly found in children is characterized by bending of the bone resulting in fracture on only one side of a long bone?
a) Stress
b) Greenstick
c) Depressed
d) pathological
b) Greenstick
37
37. A patient has a coles fractures. This means that the fracture site is on which of the following anatomical locations?
a) elbow
b) wrist
c) ankle
d) knee
b) wrist
38
38. in which of the following complications of fractures do bone fragments heal in poor alignment?
a) Nonunion
b) malunion
c) delayed union
d) compartment syndrome
b) malunion
39
39. which of the following refers to the grating sensation of bone fragments that occur in fractures.
a) rales
b) subluxation
c) crepitus
d) osteogenesis
c) crepitus
40
40. the partial separation of the bones of a joint is known as:
a) subluxation
b) dislocation
c) malunion
d) nonunion
a) subluxation
41
41. a tear in a ligament is known as a:
a) strain
b) sprain
c) separation
d) spasm
b) sprain
42
42. a 24 year old male sustained a fractured femur from an MVA. Approx. 48 hour post injury has develops a sudden onset of chest pain, tachycardia, dyspnea, and anxiety which of the following pathological states is likely causing these symptoms?
fat embolism
43
43. which of the following laboratory results are elevated when a patient has GOUT
uric acid
44
44. which of the following is consistent with rhabdomyolysis
breakdown of smooth muscle due to the toxins or of skeletal muscle due to the overtraining
45
45. what is a complication of rhabdomyolysis
renal failure
46
46. they major pathophysiological feature of osteoporosis is:
Gradual loss of bone mass due to bone reabsorption
47
47. which of the following risk factors are associated with the development of osteoporosis
female gender, small light bone structures, low dietary calcium, secondary dietary calcium, secondary lifestyle
48
48. a diagnosis of osoteoporosis is made based on which of the following tests?
Bone density
49
49. A sequel of osteoporosis includes:
Kyphosis
50
50. A complication of osteoporosis is which of the following?
Pathological fractures of the vertebral bodies
51
51. The major pathophysiological feature of osteomalacia is:
Abnormal bone mineralization resulting in soft spongy bones
52
52. Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency in:
Vitamin D
53
53. Osteomalacia in children is referred to as:
Rickets
54
54. Osteogenesis imperfect is caused by:
Genetic defects in collagen formation
55
55. Individuals with osteogenesis imperfect are also risk for:
pneumonia
56
56. T or F.
| Paget's disease is characterized by excessive bone remodeling
TRUE
57
57. The most common malignant bone tumor in adolescence is :
Osteosarcoma
58
58. Which of the following is consistent with fibromyalgia
Chronic pain in symtic
59
59. A inherited disorder leading to degeneration of muscle tissue is:
Muscular dystrophy
60
60. Osteotitis deforman is also known as:
Paget’s disease
61
What are the clinical manifestations of nephrotic syndrome?
- Hypoalbumiemia
- Hyperlipidemia
- Edema
- Propensity for thrombus formations
62
Why does hypoalbumiemia occur with nephrotic syndrome?
hypoalbumeimia: is low albumin, albumin is 50 % protein composition.
and so with nephrotic syndrom you have low protein values so the albumine is also low causing hypoalbumiemia
63
Why does hyperlipidemia occur with nephrotic syndrome?
with nephrotic syndrome the kidneys are affected and do not filter well the HDL and LDL creating a build up of lipids in the body : hyperlipidemia
64
Why does edema occur with nephrotic syndrome?
Kidneys are not working well: pushing fluid into insterstitial spaces of the tissue causing edema
65
Why does thrombtic events occur with nephrotic syndrome?
the protein required for homeostasis are lost in the urine, stimulating hepatic synthesis clotting factors
66
What is the treatment of nephrotic syndrome?
- diuretics for edema
- lipid lowering therapy /good diet
- hypertensive meds (beta blockers, ACE inhibitors, calcium channel blockers)
- immunosepressants
- transfusion of albumin
67
What patients are at risk for developing compartment syndrome?
-athletes
young males
pt with bleeding disorders
pt on anticoagulants
68
What are the causes of compartment syndrome?
Causes of compartment syndrome may be divided into three categories: decreased compartment size, increased compartment content, or externally applied pressure.
- injury to tissue surrounding bone with soft tissue
- inflammation, swelling, hemorrhaging, edema
69
How do you recognize compartment syndrome?
Severe pain out of proportion to the injury, paralysis, paresthesia, pallor, pulselessness
70
What is the treatment of compartment syndrome?
Emergent decompression is needed to preserve the limb
