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ANAP 510 Lancaster qtr 3 > test 2 pinky and the brain > Flashcards

test 2 pinky and the brain Flashcards

1
Q

paired or unpaired? parietal

A

paired, two pariahs

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2
Q

paired or unpaired? temporal

A

paired, two temples

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3
Q

paired or unpaired? frontal

A

unpaired, one forehead

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4
Q

paired or unpaired? sphenoid

A

unpaired, one nose

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5
Q

paired or unpaired? occipital

A

unpaired, one occiput

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6
Q

paired or unpaired? ethmoid

A

unpaired, one nose

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7
Q

paired or unpaired? maxilla

A

paired, two faced

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8
Q

paired or unpaired? zygomatic

A

paired, two cheek bones

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9
Q

paired or unpaired? palatine

A

paired, two nares

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10
Q

paired or unpaired? lacrimal

A

paired, two tear ducts

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11
Q

paired or unpaired? nasal

A

paired, two nares

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12
Q

paired or unpaired? inferior nasal concha

A

paired, two nares

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13
Q

paired or unpaired? mandible

A

unpaired, one lower jaw bone

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14
Q

paired or unpaired? vomer

A

unpaired, one nose

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15
Q

number of bones in the skull

A

22, the average age for traumatic skull injuries from unfortunate ski accidents without a helmet

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16
Q

paired or unpaired? auditory ossicles including malleus, incus, and stapes

A

paired, with two ears…

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17
Q

paired or unpaired? hyoid

A

unpaired, (“lateral to the greater cornu”)

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18
Q

number of bones associated but not attached to the skull, including the auditory ossicles and hyoid bone

A

7

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19
Q

the coronal suture goes all the way from __ to __ and separates the __ and __ bones

A

left to right separates frontal and parietal

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20
Q

the sagittal suture goes from __ to __ and separates the __ bones

A

front to back separates the left and right parietal bones

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21
Q

the lambdoid suture separates the parietal from __

A

occipital

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22
Q

the squamous suture separates the temporal from __

A

parietal

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23
Q

the __ process is the larger and the __ process is the smaller extentions on the inferior aspect of the temporal bone

A

mastoid is bigger, like a mast on a sail boat styloid is smaller, like a stylus for your tablet

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24
Q

The zygomatic arch is composed of two processes of two bones connected like a bridge, what are they called? think “vice versa”

A

zygomatic process of temporal bone temporal process of zygomatic bone

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25
Q

The occipital bone has a BIG hole in the bottom called the __ __, and two legs on either side of the big hole that stand on C1 called occipital __

A

foramen magnum occipital condyles

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26
Q

the greater wing of the __ bone, from the lateral view, is bordered by the frontal, parietal, temporal, and zygomatic bone.

A

sphenoid it’s kind of stuck in the middle behind your eye

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27
Q

Where is your “genu”

A

chin

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28
Q

What is the opening in the temporal bone where sounds waves pass through?

A

external auditory meatus

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29
Q

What does the mandible use to articulate with the zygomatic arch?

A

the mandibular condyle

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30
Q

What bone(s) form(s) the roof of the orbit?

A

frontal

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31
Q

What bone(s) form(s) the roof AND lateral wall of the orbit? (according to slide 10, but it looks more like the posterior wall to me on slide 9)

A

sphenoid

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32
Q

What bone(s) form(s) the lateral wall of the orbit?

A

zygomatic

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33
Q

What bone(s) form(s) the floor of the orbit?

A

maxilla

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34
Q

What bone(s) form(s) the medial wall of the orbit?

A

lacrimal, ethmoid, palatine

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35
Q

what lobes of the brain rest in the anterior cranial fossa? the medial cranial fossa? the posterior cranial fossa?

A

anterior - frontal medial - temporal and parietal posterior - occipital

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36
Q

the word foramen means a __ opening, the plural of foramen is foramina

A

small

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37
Q

what is the opening into the carotid canal? it usually is filled with cartilage in adults

A

the foramen lacerum

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38
Q

which cranial nerves passe through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

CN 7 facial and cranial nerve 8 acoustic AKA vestibulocochlear, imagine a small number eight sitting inside your ear

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39
Q

the foramen magnum is the dividing point between the __ and the __ cord

A

medulla spinal cord

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40
Q

the rooster’s comb AKA the __ __ is part of the __ bone, and the dura mater attaches here

A

crista galli ethmoid bone

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41
Q

what passes through the foramina rotundum?

A

maxillary branch of trigeminal nerve

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42
Q

what passes through the optic foramina?

A

optic nerve cn2, goes through optic foramina to optic canal

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43
Q

the turkish saddle AKA the __ __ is part of the __ bone and it holds the anterior and posterior __ glands

A

sella turcica sphenoid bone pituitary glands

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44
Q

because the sella turcica surrounds the pituitary gland on all sides and inferiorly, if the pit gland were to hypertrophy its only option would be to expand upwards and compress CN__ and then __

A

CN2 optic hypothallamus

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45
Q

the foramen spinosum and the foramen ovale are found in what bone very close to the sella turcica? which is more mediaL?

A

sphenoid bone ovaLe more mediaL, spinosum “spinned” outwards

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46
Q

the jugular foramen is sort of between the __ and __ bones, pretty close to foramen magnum, but not as close as the __ canal which is almost inside the foramen magnum

A

occipital and temporal bones hypoglossal canal

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47
Q

superior orbital fissure

A

“nerves 3,4,6 make your eyes do tricks, part of 5” occulomotor, trochlear, abducens nerves, opthalmic branch of trigeminal

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48
Q

internal acoustic meatus

A

facial and vestibulocochlear AKA acoustic nerves

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49
Q

jugular foramen

A

glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves

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50
Q

hypoglossal canal inside the foramen magnum

A

hypoglossal nerve

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51
Q

what passes through foramen ovale?

A

mandibular branch of trigeminal

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52
Q

three branches of trigeminal for three foramen: opthalmic, maxillary, mandibular branches

A

superior orbital fissure, foramen rotundum, foramen ovale

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53
Q

three openings in the temporal bone and what goes through them

A

carotid canal (internal carotid artery) external auditory meatus (soundwaves) internal auditory meatus (facial and auditory CN 7 and 8)

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54
Q

two openings in the occipital bone and what goes through them

A

hypoglossal canal (hypoglossal CN 12) foramen magnum (spinal cord, spinal accessory CN 11, vertebral arteries)

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55
Q

one opening in the ethmoid bone and what goes through it

A

olfactory foramen (olfactory CN1)

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56
Q

five openings in the sphenoid bone and what passes through them

A

foramen ovale (mandibular branch of trigeminal 5) foramen rotundum (maxillary branch of trigem 5) foramen spinosum (middle meningeal artery) optic foramen/canal (optic CN2, opthalmic artery) superior orbital fissure (CN3, 4, 6, part of 5, opthalmic veins) “3,4,6 make your eyes do tricks, 5 opthalmic branch of trigem”

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57
Q

one opening between temporal and occipital and what passes through it

A

jugular foramen (internal jugular vein, CN 9,10,11 glossopharyngeal, vagus, spinal accessory)

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58
Q

What are the four parts of the brainstem? hint- none of them contain the words “thalamus” or “lobe”

A

–Medulla oblongata –Pons –Midbrain –Reticular formation/Reticular activating system

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59
Q

What are the four parts of the diencephalon? hint- they all end with “thalamus” :)

A

–Thalamus –Subthalamus –Epithalamus –Hypothalamus

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60
Q

what are the four parts of the cerebrum? hint- they all end with “lobe” :)

A

–Frontal lobe –Parietal lobe –Occipital lobe –Temporal lobe

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61
Q

what separates the left and right cerebral hemispheres?

A

the “long”itudinal fissure, it’s the longest axis from front to back, separates the two sides.

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62
Q

what separates the frontal lobes from the parietal lobes?

A

the central sulcus, it’s in the “center” between the front and back hemispheres

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63
Q

no specific structure separates the parietal and occipital lobes, it’s separated more by __

A

function

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64
Q

where are the precentral and postcentral gyri located?

A

anterior and posterior to the central sulcus

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65
Q

what separates the frontal and parietal from the temporal lobes?

A

the lateral fissure, it’s on the lateral sides of the brain

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66
Q

what are by far the largest structures of the diencephalon?

A

the left and right thalamus

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67
Q

hypothalamus is a cluster of __, thus __ matter, and it is connected to the anterior and posterior __ gland

A

cluster of nuclei, thus grey matter pituitary gland

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68
Q

corpus callosum consists of __ that connect the left and right cerebral hemispheres

A

tracts

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69
Q

CSF is produced by the __ plexus by __ cells

A

choroid plexus ependymal cells

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70
Q
A

pyramidal decussation, where descending somatic motor pathways (corticospinal tracts) cross over (decussate) to the opposite side of the spinal cord, left brain controls the right side of the body and vice versa

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71
Q
A

olives, transmission of sound impulses and balance

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72
Q

where are the nuclei (nerve cell bodies) for CN 9, 10, 11, 12 located?

A

medulla oblongata

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73
Q

name the nucleus associated with Sensory fibers for CN 9 and 10

A

nucleus SolilatariuS in the medulla oblongata

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74
Q

name the nucleus associated with Motor fibers for CN 9 and 10

A

nucleus aMbiguus in the medulla oblongata

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75
Q

where are the inspiratory and expiratory centers?

A

medulla oblongata

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76
Q

the nucleus cuneatus and nucleus gracilis are associated with __ __ pathways in the medulla

A

ascending sensory pathways

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77
Q

two areas in the medulla (raphe magnus nucleus and reticularis paragigantocellularis) and one area in the pons (periaquaductal gray matter) are associated with modulation of __ transmission

A

modulation of pain transmission

rapheal the ninja turtle lived in a gigantic gray water duct where he supressed pain transmission (mu, delta, kappa receptors, endorphins, enkephalins, dynorphins neurotransmitters)

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78
Q

where are the nuclei for various AUTOnomic nuclei located that control such things as swallowing, vomiting, sneezing, coughing, and the cardiovascular vasomotor center?

A

the medulla

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79
Q

where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone located?

A

in the floor of the fourth ventricle in the medulla

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80
Q
A

top arrow = nucleus cuneatus

bottom arrow = nucleus gracilis

both associated with ascending sensory pathways

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81
Q
A

pons, ABOVE the medulla, contains tracts that connect the cerebrum to cerebellum, also the nuclei for CN 5, 6, 7, 8, the pneumotaxic respiratory center, periaquaductal grey matter, and part of the locus ceruleus

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82
Q

the locus ceruleus is a group of __ secreting neurons which synapse with higher brain centers and excite them via __, an important part of wakefulness and alertness, many antidepressants aimed at increasing __ at these synapses

A

norepinephrine secreting neurons

norepi

norepi

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83
Q

where is the locus ceruleus located?

A

Pons

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84
Q

where is the periaquaductal grey matter located?

A

pons

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85
Q

where is the pneumotaxic respiratory center?

A

pons

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86
Q

where are the nuclei for CN 5,6,7,8?

A

pons

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87
Q

where are the cerebral to cerebellar tracts?

A

pons

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88
Q
A

midbrain, specifically superior and inferior colliculi that make up the corpora quadrigemina of the tectum (roof)

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89
Q
A

diencephalon, specifically thalamus (big) and pineal body (small)

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90
Q

where are the nuclei for CN 3 and 4? occulomotor and trochlear

A

midbrain

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91
Q

where are the nuclei for CN 1 and 2?

A

totally different than the other ten

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92
Q

tectum is another word for __

tegmentum is another word for __

parts of the __

A

tectum - roof

tegmentum - floor

parts of the midbrain

93
Q

what is the corpora quadrigemina? where is it?

A

the four twin bodies that make up the two superior and two inferior colliculi of the tectum (roof) of the midbrain

94
Q

the inferior colliculi of the midbrain receives impulses from CN _, __ impulses before transmitting those impulses to higher brain centers for interpretation, also send impulses to superior colliculi

A

CN 8 acoustic

sound impulses

95
Q

the superior colliculi receives impulses from CN _ (__ impulses), also from inferior colliculi, skin, and cerebral hemispheres

A

CN 2 visual impulses, when you’re duck hunting and cannot shoot anything because you have a disfunction of your superior colliculi

96
Q

tectum (roof) of midbrain functions

superior - visual impulses for shooting birds

inferior - auditory impulses from ears

A
97
Q

the tegmentum (floor) of the midbrain has ascending sensory tracts of course, but it also contains two very special parts called the __ nuclei and the __ __

A

red nuclei

sustantia nigra

98
Q

the red nuclei is the origin of the ___ tract, an extrapyramidal motor tract that controls unconscious motor movements, well defined in cats who can do summersaults through the air and always land on their feet

the red nuclei is found in __

A

rubrospinal

found in the tegmentum (floor) of the midbrain

99
Q

what is the red portion? what is the blue portion?

A

red = diencephalon

blue = brainstem, brainstem

100
Q

what is the substantia nigra? where is it located? what is it associated with?

A

the origin of the nigrostriatal pathway (which terminates on the corpus STRIATUM of cerebrum), part of basal nuclei, associated with dopamine and parkinsons disease, located in tegmentum (floor) of midbrain.

101
Q

the reticular formation is a cloud of nuclei (grey matter) that synapse with higher brain centers to release excitatory neurotransmitters and causes alertness. an __ pathway

A

oscillating pathway

sound impulses (alarm clock), light impulses (turn on bathroom light), touch impulses (splash cold water on face, shave), olfactory impulses (smell coffee brewing)

102
Q
A

parietal

103
Q
A

temporal

104
Q
A

frontal

105
Q
A

sphenoid

106
Q
A

occipital

107
Q
A

ethmoid

108
Q
A

maxilla

109
Q
A

zygomatic

110
Q
A

lacrimal

111
Q
A

nasal

112
Q
A

inferior nasal concha

113
Q
A

mandible

114
Q
A

vomer

115
Q
A

coronal suture

116
Q
A

sagittal suture

117
Q
A

lambdoid suture

118
Q
A

squamous suture

119
Q

name some important nuclei that make an important contribution to the reticular activating system

perhaps a blue area?

A

locus cerulius

120
Q

sequence of breathing-

  1. medullary inspiratory center automatically generate impulses
  2. descending tracts synapse with phrenic nerve in cervical spine
  3. phrenic nerve innervates diaphragm which contracts and shortens, pulls lungs down into thorax
  4. simultaneously, intercostal nerves activate EXternal intercostal muscles, pull ribs up and out, A/P diameter increased
  5. simultaneously, pontine pneumotaxic center EXcited, which sends INhibitory impulses to medullary inspiratory center
  6. medullary inspiratory center inhibited, no more impulses to phrenic, diaphragm relaxes and domes up against lungs
  7. simultaneously external intercostals relax, ribs down and in, A/P diameter decreased
A

slide 25

121
Q

normally, expiration is a __ process when the signal to inspire ceases

A

passive

122
Q

active (not passive) expiration sequence

  1. medullary expiratory center synapses with internal intercostals, pulls ribs down and in, decreases A/P size
  2. usually only for really active expiration
A

slide 25

123
Q

central chemoreceptors in the medulla monitor __ changes in the __

A

pH changes in the CSF

124
Q

what is the main determinant of CSF pH?

A

CO2 carbon dioxide

125
Q

increased CO2 in the CSF decreases the pH, causing __ rate and depth of respirations

decreased CO2 in the CSF increases the pH, causing __ rate and depth of respirations

A

increased CO2 increases rate and depth

decreased CO2 decreases rate and depth

126
Q

what are a person’s main drive to breathe from breath to breath?

A

central chemoreceptors that monitor pH (CO2) in the CSF

BUT, they can reset themselves to a chronically acidic pH (COPD) then they are no longer the main drive

127
Q

peripheral chemoreceptors monitor the __ in the aortic and carotid bodies, excited when the __ drops below 60, sends impulse to medullary inspiratory center to increase breathing

A

PaO2

PaO2

128
Q

stretch receptors in lungs __ inspiration, called the __-__ reflex

A

inhibit inspiration when the lungs stretched to vital capacity

herring-brewer reflex

129
Q

what is the largest part of the diencephalon?

A

thalamus

130
Q

what is located between the left and right lobes of the thalamus?

A

third ventricle

131
Q

what is a nucleus?

A

a cluster of nerve cell bodies and their dendrites, and where neurons synapse with those dendrites

132
Q

what is the thalamus?

A

a cluster of nuclei

133
Q

almost ALL sensory afferent input that is transmitted from the sensory organs to the spinal cord to the brain first stop in one of the nuclei of the ___, and then the __ determines which part of the brain that sensory input needs to go to, like a traffic director or a dispatcher

A

thalamus

thalamus

134
Q

the lateral geniculate body of the thalamus is associated with CN __. then the thalamus directs sensory input from that nerve to the __ lobes

A

CN 2, optic nerve

goes to occipital lobes

135
Q

the medial geniculate bodies of the thalamus receive sensory input from CN __, then direct the impulse to the __ lobe

A

CN 8 auditory nerve

temporal lobe

136
Q

ventral and medial nuclei of the thalamus direct all other sensory input besides for __ and __ input

A

optic (lateral geniculate)

auditory (medial geniculate)

137
Q

the subthalamus is one of the structures that makes up the __ nuclei

A

basal nuclei

138
Q

the epithalamus is composed of two things _ and _

A

habenular nucleus (part of limbic, deals with emotional and visceral response to odors)

pineal body (secretes melatonin, possibly affects onset of puberty

139
Q

the habenular nucleus in the hypothalamus is part of the __ system, and controls our __ response to odors

think of a jalapeno doing the limbo after smelling some garlic bologna gunshot wound on a hot southern night without air conditioning

A

limbic system

emotional response to odors

140
Q

the pineal body is also in the hypothalamus, secretes __, also controls onset of __ and regulates the estrous cycle

A

melatonin

onset of pubert

141
Q

what is the name of the stalk between the hypothalamus and the pituitary?

A

the infundibulum

142
Q

the PORTAL of capillaries and a connecting vein, a PORTAL between the anterior pituitary and the hypothalamus, a blood PORTAL, this is how hormones from the hypothalamus regulate hormone secretion from the anterior pituitary

A

hypothalamohypophyseal PORTAL system

143
Q

if the hypothalamus secretes xzxz RELEASING hormone, the anterior pituitary will then release xzxz hormone

A

examples

GH releasing hormone - GH synthesis and secretion

GH inhibiting hormone AKA somatostatin - inhibition of GH

TSH releasing hormone - TSH synthesis and secretion

ACTH releasing hormone - ACTH synthesis and secretion

gonadotropin releasing hormone - FSH and LH synthesis and secretion

prolactin releasing hormone - prolactin synthesis and secretion

prolactin inhibiting hormone - inhibition of prolactin synthesis and secretion

144
Q

what is another name for the posterior pituitary?

A

neurohypophysis

145
Q

what is the name of the TRACT between the hypothalamus and the POSTerior pituitary?

A

hypothalamohypophyseal TRACT

axons originate in the hypothalamus and terminate in posterior pituitary

146
Q

two hormones that are synthesized in the hypothalamus and then transported through the axoplasm of the hypothalamohypophyseal TRACT to the posterior pituitary where they are stored for future use are __ and __

A

ADH aka vasopressin

oxytocin

147
Q

how is ADH aka vasopressin synthesized and released?

A

made in supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus, transported to posterior pituitary via hypothalamohypophyseal TRACT, stored in posterior pituitary, released in response to osmoreceptors (OUTSIDE THE BBB, in direct contact with interstitial fluid) in hypothalamus that monitor osmolality of interstitial fluid

increased osmolality = increased ADH = retain water and decrease osmolality

148
Q

where do we find osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus and what do they measure?

A

OUTSIDE THE BBB

measure osmolality of interstitial fluid

149
Q

where are the receptor sites for ADH/vasopressin?

how is it released from the posterior pituitary?

A

renal tubules, vascular smooth muscle (intense vasoconstriction)

released by calcium dependent exocytosis

150
Q

where is oxytocin made, stored, released, blah blah blah

oxytocin- the trust hormone

A

synthesized in hypothalamus, transported to posterior pit via hypothalamohypophyseal TRACT, stored in posterior pit, released by uterine contraction and nipple stimulation, causes more uterine contraction (positive feedback) and letdown of milk from mammary ducts

151
Q

other functions of the hypothalamus, most of it unconsciously

A

autonomic center (HR, BP, urination, peristalsis), swallowing, temp regulation, hunger, RAS sleep/wake

152
Q

precentral gyrus AKA primary __ cortex

A

primary motor cortex

153
Q

prefrontal lobes are highly developed in humans, they are associated with our __

A

intelligence, emotions, musical talents, abstract reasoning, creativity, mathematical abilities, artsy-fartsy

154
Q

people who are left prefrontal lobe dominant are usually __

A

right handed, highly mathematical, organized, scientific,

155
Q

people who are right prefrontal lobe dominant are usually __

A

left handed, artists, musicians, creative, artsy-fartsy

156
Q

“guess what happened after people had a prefrontal lobe lobotomy”

A

“not much” lol

157
Q

what controls skeletal muscle movement throughout the body?

A

the precentral gyrus AKA primary motor cortex

158
Q

what “pre-plans” motor movements?

A

the premotor area in front of the primary motor cortex

159
Q

the motor homunculus

A
160
Q

primary sensory cortex AKA __ gyrus

A

postcentral gyrus

161
Q

sensory homunculus

A
162
Q

the sensory association area compares a sensation with previous __ associated with that sensation

A

experiences

the more repetitive, the stronger the stimulus, the greater the experiences associated with that stimulus, the stronger the response

163
Q

do sensory pathways decussate (cross) in the pyramids?

A

nope, only motor crosses at the pyramids, sensory crosses at (the level of the spinal cord I think?)

164
Q

where are the visual cortex and visual association areas located

A

occipital lobes

165
Q

the visual cortex “sees” but does not “__” the image

test question

A

“recognize”

recognition is a function of the visual association area AND final interpretation in other parts

166
Q

how does a word travel from paper to brain?

A

CN 2, lateral geniculate bodies in thalamus, visual cortex, visual association area, wernicke’s area

167
Q

what is the area responsible for choosing words and sequences before they are spoken?

A

wernicke’s area

168
Q

sequence for speaking

A

wernicke’s area chooses word, to broca’s area for planning muscle movement of speech, then primary motor cortex, then to muscles and speaking is accomplished

169
Q

which area is affected if someone has a receptive aphasia?

A

wernickes, can’t recognize the words coming in

170
Q

what area is affected in someone with an expressive aphasia?

A

broca’s. they know the word they want to say but cannot plan the motor movement to speak it.

171
Q

someone with word salad or repetitive

A

wernicke’s

172
Q

what is the sequence of hearing?

A

CN 8 auditory nerve, medial geniculate in thalamus, primary auditory cortex, auditory association area,

173
Q

where are the basal nuclei located?

A

throughout the brain

174
Q

where is the substantia nigra located?

A

tegmentum (floor) of midbrain

175
Q

what composes the corpus striatum?

A

caudate nucleus and lentiform nucleus

176
Q

where does the nigrostriatal pathway originate and terminate?

what does it do?

A

originates in the substantia nigra

terminates in the corpus striatum

it transports dopamine from substantia nigra to corpus striatum to produce movement. loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra is consistent with parkinson’s.

177
Q

what are the two divisions of the lentiform nucleus?

what do they do?

A

putanem and globus palladis

help regulate movement

178
Q

what the heck do the basal nuclei do?

A

regulate skeletal muscle motor movement at the unconscious level

179
Q

what is the sequence for the basal nuclei to regulate motor movement at the unconscious level

test question

A

nigrostriatal tract - dopamine released at synapse of caudate nucleus - inhibits output at caudate nucleus - simultaneously pathways from primary motor cortex that terminate at caudate nucleus release acetylcholine which excites output from caudate nucleus. also pathways with origin in globus pallidus which terminate at caudate nucleus and release glutamate which excites caudate nucleus

180
Q

neurotransmitters at caudate nucleus, where they originate, and excite/inhibit

A

dopamine from nigrostriatal - inhibitory

acetylcholine from primary motor cortex - excitatory

glutamate from globus pallidus - excitatory

181
Q

output from the caudate nucleus regulates __ pathways

A

motor

182
Q

why do we give parkinsons patients sinemet?

A

they have a deficiency of dopamine at nigrostriatal pathway / deficiency of dopamine receptors at caudate nucleus leading to over-excitation by acetylcholine from primary motor and glutamate from globus pallidus

183
Q

the limbic system controls our __ response to our environment, parts of motivation, perceptions of pain and pleasure, gut response to emotion, mood, appetite, fear, sexuality, anger

A

emotional

184
Q

what does the hypocampus do?

why do they say elephants have a great memory when it is really the hippos that have the best memory in the animal world

A

transfer short to long term memory and associated emotions, recall memories and associated emotions into present

185
Q

limbic system

A
186
Q

what does the cerebellum do?

A

coordinates actual vs. desired motor movement

187
Q

parkinsons causes __ tremors

problems with the cerebellum causes __ tremors

A

parkinsons - non-intention tremors (no tremor when picking up water cup)

cerebellum - intention tremors (spills water all over self)

188
Q

are the meninges surrounding the brain CONTINUOUS with those around the spinal cord?

A

yes

189
Q

is the dura mater attached to the periosteum?

A

yes

190
Q

how far down into the longitudinal fissure does the dural venous sinus go?

A

corpus callosum

191
Q

where is the CSF in relation to the meninges?

A

subarachnoid

192
Q

what bone is the crista galli located on?

A

ethmoid

193
Q

identify the superior sagittal sinus, the falx cerebri, and the inferior sagittal sinus

A
194
Q

identify the tentorium and falx cerebelli

A
195
Q

supra vs. infra tentorial

A
196
Q

another look of the falx and tentorium

A
197
Q

which is more rapidly lethal, infra or supra tentorial lesions?

A

infratentorial, because that’s where your life sustaining functions are maintained like breathing, HR

198
Q

is the midbrain supra or infra tentoral?

A

it’s midway between both

199
Q

is the pons and brainstem infra or supra tentoral?

A

infratentorial

200
Q

is the cerebrum infra or supra tentorial?

A

supratentorial

201
Q

around the brain the dura is __ layers

around the spinal cord the dura is __ layer

A

brain- 2 layers of dura

spinal cord- 1 layer of dura

202
Q

is the dura attached to any points on the spinal cord

A

no

203
Q

identify the lateral, third and fourth ventricles

A
204
Q

the septum pellucidum is a thin membrane separating the anterior horns of the left and right lateral ventricles

A
205
Q

another septum pellucidum pic

A
206
Q

the third ventricle is located in the diencephalon in between the left and right lobes of the _

A

thalamus

207
Q

where is most CSF produced?

A

lateral ventricles

208
Q

how does CSF get into the spinal cord?

A

the central canal of the spinal cord is continuous with the fourth ventricle

209
Q

what is the only way that CSF normally exits the ventricles?

A

three foramina in the floor of the fourth ventricle where CSF exits into subarachnoid space and spinal cord.

210
Q

how does CSF exit subarachnoid into the dural sinuses and venous blood?

A

arachnoid granulations

211
Q

where do dural sinuses empty?

A

internal jugulars then into superior vena cava

212
Q

can you point out the superior sagittal sinus, the inferior sagittal sinus, and the internal jugular?

A
213
Q

How much CSF in the…

ventricles?

subarachnoid space?

total?

A

ventricles 23ml

subarachnoid 127ml

total 150 ml

214
Q

normal CSF pressure in supine position in mmH2O

A

50-100 mmH2O

215
Q

how much CSF is produced daily despite rate of absorption and intracranial pressure?

A

500-750 mls

216
Q

which has more protein, CSF or blood? how much does CSF have?

A

blood has way more, CSF has 10-45 mg/dl, of which 10-30 mg/dl is albumin

if someone made steak into a pill it would have 10-45 mg/dl of protein

217
Q

CSF has how many WBCs per microliter?

A

0-5

218
Q

CSF has how many RBCs per microliter?

A

0

219
Q

CSF has how much glucose in mg/dl?

A

50-75 mg/dl

think of 50-75 teaspoons of sugar pouring into your brain

220
Q

how much sodium in CSF?

A

150mEq/L (technically 147-151)

imagine shaking 150 grains of salt onto a brain before you eat it, you barbarian

221
Q

how much potassium in CSF?

A

3 mEq/L (technically 2.8-3.2 mEq/L)

three bananas a day will keep your brain functioning well before this test

222
Q

how much magnesium in CSF?

A

1 millimol/L (technically 0.78 - 1.26)

think of ONE bottle of best brain mag capsules

223
Q

how much chloride in CSF?

A

120-130 mEq/L (technically 118-132)

during the summer when it gets 120-130* outside your brain wants to go for a swim in the pool

224
Q

what color is CSF?

A

clear, colorless

225
Q

if your CSF was yellow and turbid and had a marked increase in polymorphonuclear WBCs (neutrophils), with decreased glucose, you probably have __ meningitis

A

bacterial

226
Q

if your CSF is clear and has a marked increase in lymphocytes and protein but a normal glucose, you probably have __ meningitis

A

viral

227
Q

The first branch off of the aorta is the __ artery

A

brachiocephalic AKA innominate “nameless”

228
Q

the vertebral artery branches off of what artery?

A

subclavian, which branched off of the brachiocephalic, which came from the aorta

229
Q

about how many ml’s can the cranial vault increase and not have catastrophic increases in ICP?

A

3-4 mls

ANAP 510 Lancaster qtr 3 (3 decks)

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