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A&P Lab 2 > Test 2 Lab > Flashcards

Test 2 Lab Flashcards

0
Q

the time period between cell division where the cell grows, uses energy and undergoes its normal, active life

A

interphase

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1
Q

The series of events that a cell undergoes throughout its life

A

cell cycle

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2
Q

what are the stages that interphase is broken into?

A

G1, S, G2

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3
Q

the most efficient growth period of the cell. Here the cell is using nutrients. lasts about 8-10 hours

A

G1

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4
Q

checkpoint that makes sure the cell is large enough to divide and has all of the nutrients present

A

G1 checkpoint

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5
Q

this is the phase that the cell is in most of the time

A

G1

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6
Q

where centrioles and centromeres begin replicating

A

late G1

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7
Q

This is the phase where DNA replication occurs and the amount of DNA doubles

A

S phase

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8
Q

how long does the S phase last

A

6-8 hours

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9
Q

what does the S phase checkpoint check for?

A

if DNA replicated properly

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10
Q

shortest stage. here the cell is still growing , metabolizing, and manufacturing proteins. cells move into mitosis from here

A

G2

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11
Q

how long does G2 last?

A

2-46 hours

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12
Q

what does the G2 checkpoint check for?

A

cell size and proper DNA replication

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13
Q

what are the two types of cells and what are the differences between them?

A

somatic cells - main body cells, undergo mitosis

gamete/sex/germ cells - sexual reproduction cells, undergo meiosis

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14
Q

genes that tell the cell to divide - “accelerator genes”

A

oncogenes

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15
Q

tell the cell not to divide - the “brakes” of the cell - give some examples

A

tumor suppressor genes

p53, p21, p27, p57

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16
Q

“suicide” genes

A

apoptosis genes

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17
Q

code for DNA repair enzymes

A

DNA repair genes

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18
Q

what is the difference between karyokinesis and cytokinesis?

A

karyokinesis is nuclear division while cytokinesis is cell division

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19
Q

in terms of karyokinesis and cytokinesis, what to multinucleate cells undergo and what don’t they?

A

they undergo karyokinesis, but not cytokinesis

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20
Q

division of somatic cells

A

mitosis

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21
Q

what does it mean that a cell is 2n?

A

it is diploid

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22
Q

2n -> 46

what does n stand for?

A

the number of sets of chromosomes

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23
Q

what is meiosis?

A

division in sex cells (sperm and egg)

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24
Q

what does meiosis produce?

A

a daughter cell with half the amount of DNA of the parent cell - DNA is reduced from 2 sets to 1

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25
Q

2n = 46 -> n=23

what does this represent?

A

meiosis

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26
Q

microtubules that radiate around each centriole at the end of each cell that hold the apparatus into place

A

astral microtubules

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27
Q

attach to the centromere on the chromosome and are involved in seperating and moving chromosomes. they are coated in kinetochore proteins

A

kinetochore microtubules

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28
Q

do not interact with the centriole, they attach the centriole to centriole and shorten the length of the cell

A

polar microtubules or non-kinetochore microtubules

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29
Q

identical strands of DNA pined at a centromere by DNA Replication

A

chromatids

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30
Q

when determining the amount of chromosomes, what should be counted?

A

the centromeres, not the chromatids

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31
Q

during which phase of the cell cycle does mitosis occur?

A

M phase

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32
Q

why is the chromosome number reduced by half in meiosis?

A

so that when the nuclei of gametes unite in fertilization, the diploid number is restored

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33
Q

charts that show an individuals chromosome number

A

karyotypes

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34
Q

chromosomes 1-22

A

autosomes

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35
Q

homologous chromosomes

A

chromosomes of the same size that contain the same genes

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36
Q

different molecular forms of a gene

A

alleles

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37
Q

segment of DNA that codes for 1 protein

A

gene

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38
Q

what are the two stages of meiosis?

A

stage 1 - Reduction Division - reduce the number of chromosomes
stage 2 - cell division

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39
Q

what occurs during prophase 1?

A

DNA is already replicated, sister chromatids are joined at the centromere and chromatin condenses. Synapsis occurs forming a tetrad, crossing over occurs

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40
Q

pairing of homologous chromosomes

A

synapsis

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41
Q

what occurs during metaphase 1?

A

the homologous chromosomes line up at the equator. This is facilitated by the spindle fibers and the centrioles

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42
Q

what occurs during anaphase 1?

A

the homologous chromosomes are pulled apart, separating the tetrad

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43
Q

what happens in telophase 1?

A

after the new nuclear membrane forms, cytokinesis occurs

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44
Q

what occurs in meiosis 2?

A

mitosis

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45
Q

what occurs in prophase of mitosis?

A

the nuclear membrane breaks down and chromatin condenses

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46
Q

what occurs in metaphase 2 of mitosis?

A

the chromosomes align at the metaphase plate (equator), the spindle fibers attach at the centromeres

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47
Q

what happens during anaphase of mitosis?

A

the centromere is replicated, the kinetochore shortens and pulls the sister chromatids towards the poles

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48
Q

what happens in telophase of mitosis?

A

each cell forms a new nuclear membrane and each cell goes through cytokinesis

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49
Q

the ability of heart muscles to contract on their own

A

automaticity

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50
Q

what do the special fibers in the myocardium do?

A

they rapidly conduct electricity across the muscle tissue and cause the heart to contract

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51
Q

why does the atria contract first and then the ventricles?

A

so that each chamber can fill completely before emptying into the next

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52
Q

what initiates all chamber contractions?

A

a single, common impulse that starts at the sinoatrial node

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53
Q

starts the sequence of depolarization and repolarization

A

sinoartrial node

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54
Q

how fast does the sinoatrial node cause the heart to beat?

A

60-80 beats per minute

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55
Q

the synchronization of the stimulation and contraction of the heart cells

A

syncytium

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56
Q

situated between the atrium and the venticle, it allows for a slightly slower transmission of the impulse to the ventricles

A

atrioventricular node

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57
Q

why does the AV node slow the transmpission of the impuls to the ventricles?

A

so that the atrium can empty and the ventricles can fill before the ventricles contract

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58
Q

how much does the AV node slow the electrical impulse from the SA node?

A

it slows it to 1/25 of the original signal or by about .2 seconds

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59
Q

what is the path of an electrical impulse in the heart?

A

SA node, AV node, AV bundle (bundle of His), Bundle branches, purkinje fibers

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60
Q

when ventricles start the relaxation phase

A

ventricular diastole

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61
Q

these produce electrical signals

A

rhythm generators

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62
Q

these spread the pacemakers signal

A

conductors

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63
Q

cells that mechanically pump the blood

A

contractile cells (myocardium)

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64
Q

what happens to the cells once the electrical signal of depolarization reaches them?

A

they contract

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65
Q

when the repolarization signal reaches the myocardial cells, what happens to them?

A

they relax

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66
Q

how does the sympathetic system effect the heart?

A

it speeds it up, increasing the contractile force when more oxygen is needed

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67
Q

how does the parasympathetic system effect the heart

A

it slows it, when you are relaxed, the parasympathetic system is in control

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68
Q

a straight line on the ECG that occurs before cardiac cycles of depolarization and reploarization

A

baseline/isoelectric line

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69
Q

represents atrial depolarization

A

P wave

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70
Q

result of ventricular depolarization and indicates the start of ventricular contraction

A

QRS complex

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71
Q

result of ventricular repolarization and signals the beginning of ventricular relaxation

A

T waves

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72
Q

why don’t you see an electrical signal for repolarization

A

because the QRS complex is larger and masks it

73
Q

segment of an ECG that contains at least one wave and a straight line

74
Q

periods of time from the end of one T wave to the begging of the next

75
Q

according to the biopac lab manual what is the average resting heart rate for adults?

A

70 beats/minute

76
Q

what is a lead?

A

the arrangement of the positive and negative electrodes with relation to the ground electrode

77
Q

who are slower heart rates typical for?

A

those who regularly exercise, they can be as low as 50 beats per minute

78
Q

left ventricular hypertrophy

A

when athletes develop larger hearts and larger left ventricles

79
Q

trace a drop of blood through the heart

A

superior/inferior vena cava, right atrium, through right AV valve, right ventricle, through pulmonary valve, pulmonary trunk, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, left atrium, left AV valve, left ventricle, aortic valve, ascending aorta, body, vena cavae

80
Q

period on the ECG when the atria are depolarizing

81
Q

period on the ECG when the ventricles are repolarizing

82
Q

Period on the ECG when the ventricles are depolarizing, preceding their contraction

83
Q

An abnormally slow heartbeat, slower than 60 beats/minute

A

Bradycardia

84
Q

a condition in which the heart is uncoordinated and useless as a pump

A

fibrillation

85
Q

an abnormally rapid heartbeat, more than 100 beats/minute

A

tachycardia

86
Q

damage to the AV node, totally or partially releasing the ventricles from the control of the SA node

A

heart block

87
Q

chest pain, resulting from ischemia of the myocardium

A

angina pectoris

88
Q

what is the equation for cardiac output?

A

CO = HR x SV

89
Q

what is the average stroke volume for adults?

A

70 mL/beat

90
Q

what is Starling’s Law?

A

the critical factor that determines the stroke volume (force of the heart beat) is the degree of stretch of the cardiac muscle just before it contracts, consequently the force of heartbeat can be increased by increasing the amount of blood returned to the heart

91
Q

which side of the heart is failing if pulmonary congestion occurs?

A

the left side

92
Q

the pumping action of the healthy heart ordinarily maintains a balance between what two things?

A

cardiac output and venous return

93
Q

what do the QRS and T wave have in common?

A

they show the electrical activity of the ventricles

94
Q

what happens to the valves during ventricular systole?

A

the AV valves are closed and the SL valves are opened

95
Q

what are some functions of blood in the body?

A

transport, protection, and regulation

96
Q

what things does blood transport?

A

Oxygen to cells and CO2 away, nutrients from the digestive system to cells, waste from cells to excretory systems, stem cells from bone marrow to other body parts

97
Q

how is blood involved in protection?

A

inflammation, white blood cells destroy pathogens, antibodies neutralize pathogens and toxins, platelets initiate blood clotting

98
Q

how does blood function in regulation?

A

regulates body fluids, stabilizes pH of extracellular fluid, regulates body temperature

99
Q

what are the formed elements of blood?

A

erythrocytes, platelets, leukocytes

100
Q

what are the parts of blood plasma and what are their percentages?

A

water - 92%
plasma proteins - 7%
dissolved solids - 1.5%

101
Q

what are the types of plasma proteins?

A

albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

102
Q

small plasma proteins that provide osmotic pressure for blood and blood viscosity or resistance to flow

103
Q

most diverse plasma proteins, used to make antibodies and at transport proteins

104
Q

plasma proteins used for clotting

A

fibrinogen

105
Q

4.8 - 5.4 million of these blood cells in the body

A

erythrocytes

106
Q

what is the circulating life of erythrocytes, and what is their function

A

~120 days. They function in hemoglobin production and oxygen transport

107
Q

non-cellular fragments of blood that function in blood clotting

108
Q

large, amoeboid blood cells that function in protection

A

leukocytes

109
Q

what is the number/mm^3 of platelets and leukocytes and what is their circulating lifespan

A

platelets - 250,000 - 400,000 - 9 days

leukocytes - 5,000 - 10,000 - varies

110
Q

modified monocytes in the liver and spleen that phagocytically remove dead blood cells and particles

A

kupfer cells

111
Q

what are the 5 types of leukocytes and what are their concentrations in the blood?

A 
neutrophils 60-70%
lymphocytes 25-30%
monocytes 3-8%
eosinophils 2-4%
basophils <1%
112
Q

what are the granular leukocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

113
Q

what are the agranular leukocytes?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

114
Q

highly phagocytic and aggressive during early bacterial infection - leukocytes

A

neutrophils

115
Q

leukocytes that dampen allergic reactions by secreting antihistamins - they also protect against parasitic worms

A

eosinophils

116
Q

leukocytes that trigger allergic reactions by secreting histamines

117
Q

leukocytes that provide immunity

A

lymphocytes

118
Q

leukocytes that are highly phagocytic - most aggressive - during bacterial infections

119
Q

what is the name for the disease where a person has too little white blood cells, and what is the disease where they have too many

A

too little - leukopenia

too many - leukemia

120
Q

a measure of the red blood cell content of an individual’s blood

A

hematocrit

121
Q

anemia

A

low red blood cell count

122
Q

why might a person experiencing anemia have low energy or stamina?

A

lack of oxygen that is carried to the tissues

123
Q

what proportion of a hematocrit is the plasma, and what is the plasma

A

the plasma is the liquid portion - 55%

124
Q

what are the solid portions of the hematocrit

A

the buffy coat (white blood cells and platelets) and the red blood cells

125
Q

how can you determine the hematocrit?

A

by spinning a capillary tube containing blood in a centrifuge

126
Q

how does the Rh factor of blood operate?

A

on general dominance and recessiveness of alleles

127
Q

what makes an Rh group positive or negative?

A

if the D antigen is present on the surface of the red blood cell, the cell is Rh+, if the D antigen is absent it is Rh-

128
Q

in terms of Rh blood types, what is dominant and what is recessive?

A

the presence of the D antigen, or RH+ is dominant to the lack of the D antigen or RH-

129
Q

why is it dangerous for a woman to be RH- and carry an RH+ baby?

A

the woman’s body could build antibodies against the Rh factor in the baby’s blood and cause the baby to abort.

130
Q

HDN

A

a hemolytic disease of the newborn when the baby is born with anemia due to the mother’s antigen destroying the blood cells

131
Q

what can Rh- women take if they are at risk for building antibodies against their fetus’s Rh+ blood, and how does this work?

A

they can take RhoGAM which binds to fetal red blood cell antigens so that they won’t stimulate the mother to make antigens against it

132
Q

what is the ABO blood group based on?

A

glycoportien that is antigenic on the surface of RBC

133
Q

what genes are involved in the ABO blood group?

A

dominance, recessiveness, and codominance

134
Q

when do antibodies in the blood that react to antigens on the surface of blood show up?

A

between 2-8 months after birth in response to intestinal flora

135
Q

what are the main targets of neutrophils?

A

bacteria and fungi

136
Q

what are the main targets of eosinophils?

A

parasites and allergic reactions

137
Q

what are the main targets of basophils

A

allergic reactions

138
Q

what are the main types of lymphocytes

A

B cells target various pathogens, T cells target extracellular bacteria broken down into peptides presented by MHC class 2 molecule, virus infected and tumor cells

139
Q

what are the main targets of CD4+ or helper T cells?

A

extracellular bacteria broken down into peptide molecules presented by MHC class 2 molecule

140
Q

what are the main targets of CDB+ cytotoxic T cells

A

virus infected and tumor cells

141
Q

what are the main targets of natural killer cells

A

virus infect and tumor cells

142
Q

how long do neutrophils live

A

6 hours - a few days

143
Q

how long do eosinophils live?

144
Q

how long do lymphocytes live?

A

weeks - years

145
Q

how long do monocytes live?

A

hours - days

146
Q

what are the main targets of monocytes?

A

monocytes migrate from the bloodstream to other tissues and differentiate into tissue resident macrophages or dendritic cells

147
Q

what are the divisions of the respiratory system?

A

conducting division and respiratory division, the upper respiratory tract and the lower respiratory tract

148
Q

what are the conducting divisions of the respiratory tract?

A

the passages that serve for airflow - the nostrils, trachea, major bronchioles, etc

149
Q

what are the respiratory divisions of the respiratory tract?

A

the gas exchange regions of distal passageway - alveoli

150
Q

what is the upper respiratory tract?

A

the regions of the head and neck

151
Q

what is the lower respiratory tract?

A

the trachea through the lungs

152
Q

air moving in and out of the lungs

A

pulmonary ventilation

153
Q

one complete breath in and out

A

respiratory cycle

154
Q

moving air into and out of the lungs

A

breathing or ventilation

155
Q

exchanging gases between the air in the lungs and the blood

A

external respiration

156
Q

transport of oxygen to the body cells and the return of CO2

A

gas transport by blood

157
Q

exchanging gases between the blood and the body cells

A

internal respiration

158
Q

using the oxygen in cell processes and the production of CO2

A

cellular respiration

159
Q

relaxed and automatic breathing

A

quiet respiration

160
Q

forced respiration

A

occurs when you are exercising, coughing, or other types of deep breathing

161
Q

what are the inspiratory muscles?

A

external intercostals and diaphragm

162
Q

what happens to the thoracic cavity during inspiration?

A

the diaphragm is pushed down and becomes flat (contracts), the rib cage expands outward, the thoracic cavity enlarges, volume increases, pressure decreases, gases rush into the lungs to fill the partial vacuum that is created

163
Q

what happens to the thoracic cavity in expiration?

A

the diaphragm relaxes (curved), the rib cage pushes in, lungs recoil, intrapulmonary volume decreases, pressure increases, air rushes out

164
Q

the pressure of a given quantity of gas is inversely proportional to its volume assuming a constant temperature

A

boyle’s lwa

165
Q

the volume of a given quantity of gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature assuming a constant pressure

A

charles’s law

166
Q

the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases

A

daltons law

167
Q

at the air-water interface, the amount of gas that dissolves in water is deteremined by its solubility in water and its partial pressure in the air, assuming a constant temp

A

henrys law

168
Q

what is the equation for the combined gas law?

A

PV/T = P1V1/T1

temp is in K

169
Q

how to find K

A

K = C + 273

170
Q

spirometer

A

a device that can measure respiratory volumes

171
Q

amount of air inhaled or exhaled with each breath under resting conditions and how much is it?

A

tidal volume = 500 mL

172
Q

amount of air that can be forcefully inhaled after a normal tidal volume inhalation and how much is it?

A

inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) = 3100 mL

173
Q

amount of air that can be forcefully exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation and how much is it?

A

1200 mL = expiratory reserve volume ERV

174
Q

maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after a maximal inspiration and how much is it?

A

vital capacity (VC) = 4800 mL

175
Q

what does carbon dioxide react with in the blood to make an acid? what is this acid?

A

it reacts with water to make carbonic acid

176
Q

what does carbonic acid dissociate into?

A

H+ and bicarbonate

177
Q

how are hydrogen ions buffered with regards to the respiratory system?

A

they react with hemoglobin, which causes an electrical imbalance to build up in the RBCs pulling Cl- into the blood cells from the plasma (chloride shift)

178
Q

type of ventilation that causes alkalinity

A

hyperventilation causes people to take in more oxygen than normal which can decrease the carbon dioxide in the blood and cause the blood to become basic

179
Q

what type of ventilation causes acidity?

A

hypoventilation

A&P Lab 2 (3 decks)

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