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Anatomy > Test 2 Info > Flashcards

Test 2 Info Flashcards

1
Q

what are the general responsibilities of the cervical plexus?

A

motor to strap muscles
deeper neck muscles
phrenic n
skin of neck and chest

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2
Q

ANS: how many neurons are required to transmit a nerve impulse from the CNS?

A

2 (preganglionic and postganglionic)

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3
Q

PNS: how many neurons are required to transmit a nerve impulse from the CNS?

A

1

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4
Q

where do preganglionic cell bodies arise?

A

in CNS

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5
Q

where do postganglionic cell bodies arise?

A

outside CNS

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6
Q

are preganglionic fibers myelinated or unmyelinated?

A

myelinated

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7
Q

are postganglionic fibers myelinated or unmyelinated?

A

unmyelinated

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8
Q

what does the sympathetic nervous system innervate?

A 
lungs (bronchodilation)
heart (increase HR)
BV walls (vasoconstriction- increase blood pressure)
erector pilae
sweat glands
viscera
dilator pupillae

also responsible for ejaculation

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9
Q

sympathetic NS: what are the relative lengths of the preganglionic and postganglionic fibers?

A

short preganglionic fiber, long postganglionic fiber

EXCEPT when passing thru and changing name to splanchnic

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10
Q

what does the parasympathetic NS innervate?

A 
glands in head
sphincter pupillae
blood vessels
heart
lungs (bronchoconstriction)
digestive tract
bladder
bowel
"rest and digest"
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11
Q

parasympathetic NS: what are the relative lengths of the preganglionic and postganglionic fibers?

A

long preganglionic fiber and short postganglionic fiber

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12
Q

where do sympathetic cell bodies ORIGINATE?

A

intermediolateral grey portion of spinal cord (T1-L2)

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13
Q

what is the pathway through the sympathetic NS?

A 
IMLG
ventral root
spinal nerve
ventral rami
white rami communicante 
sympathetic chain
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14
Q

is the white rami communicante preganglionic or postganglionic?

A

preganglionic

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15
Q

is the grey rami communicate preganglionic or postganglionic?

A

postganglionic

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16
Q

what are the 3 choices that could be made in the sympathetic NS?

A
  1. synapse AT THAT LEVEL in sympathetic chain ganglion and leave via grey rami
  2. synapse in NEARBY LEVEL in a sympathetic chain ganglion and leave via grey rami
  3. PASS THRU sympathetic chain (without synapsing) as splanchnic n. and synapse near target organ
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17
Q

is a splanchnic n preganglionic or postganglionic?

A

preganglionic

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18
Q

what is the ganglion impar and where is it?

A

where the paired ganglion unite, found at sacral level

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19
Q

sympathetic chains runs from __ to ___, and there are __ pairs of sympathetic ganglia

A

C1 to S4

22-23 pairs

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20
Q

what is the stellate ganglion?

A

where T1 ganglion blends with lower C ganglion – someone thought it looked like a star

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21
Q

greater splanchnic nn levels

A

T5-T9/10

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22
Q

lesser splanchnic nn levels

A

T10, T11

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23
Q

least splanchnic nn levels

A

T12

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24
Q

what do the lumbar splanchnic nerves arise from?

A

lumbar sympathetic ganglia (likely L1/L2)

** do not originate from the chain **

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25
Q

where do parasympathetic cell bodies originate?

A

cranio-sacral

CN 3, 7, 9, 10 + S2, S3, and S4

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26
Q

what parasympathetics does CN III control?

A

smooth muscle that constricts pupil and does lens accommodation

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27
Q

what parasympathetics does CN VII control?

A

secretion of tears and saliva

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28
Q

what parasympathetics does CN IX control?

A

secretion of saliva

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29
Q

what parasympathetics does CN X control?

A

heart
lungs (bronchi)
viscera (esophagus, smooth muscle and glands of trachea)
bowel, bladder
movements and glandular secretion of thoracic and proximal half of abdominal viscera

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30
Q

what parasympathetics does S2/S3/S4 control?

A

distal half of abdominal viscera (via PELVIC splanchnic n. – p for pelvic and parasympathetic)
bowel/ bladder (promote digestion)
erection (vasodilation)

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31
Q

what is acetylcholine (Ach) secreted by?

A

BOTH systems, preganglionic neurons (cholinergic)

almost all parasympathetic postganglionic fibers

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32
Q

what is noradrenaline secreted by?

A

almost all sympathetic postganglionic fibers

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33
Q

what controls ANS?

A 
hypothalamus and solitary nucleus (receive afferent input)
local reflexes (help with regulation of homeostasis)
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34
Q

what is the carotid sinus?

A

dilation of proximal part of internal carotid artery (right near bifurcation)
baroreceptor that reacts to changes in bp

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35
Q

what is the carotid sinus innervated by?

A

CN IX and X

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36
Q

if an increase in NP is sensed by the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus, what is the following process?

A

this afferent info (increase in BP) would be sent back to hypothalamus, where info would be integrated and then there is a response
ex: if you are exercising, this would be an appropriate response
if it is not an appropriate response, decrease sympathetic outflow and increase parasympathetic outflow

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37
Q

what is autonomic dysreflexia?

A

loss of supra spinal control (hypothalamus and solitary nucleus) of sympathetic NS and sacral segments (parasympathetic) of cord
uninhibited mass autonomic reflex response to noxious stimulus below level of injury

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38
Q

in what population is autonomic dysreflexia common?

A

pts with SCIs - especially cervical and high thoracic lesions (usually above T5/T6)

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39
Q

explain the vicious cycle of hypertension with autonomic dysreflexia

A

blood pressure elevates and the normal compensation method (decrease in sympathetics) cannot pass from higher centers thru level of lesion BUT message to slow the heart can travel through vagus n and cause bradycardia. way to solve dec HR is to inc BP, and cycle continues

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40
Q

s/s of autonomic dysreflexia

A

sympathetic below lesion and parasympathetic above lesion
pounding headache (bc of inc BP)
really high BP (>200/100)
slow pulse (<60bpm, symp)
flushing and sweating above lesion level (vasodilation)
pallor, goosebumps, cold clammy skin below level of lesion (vasoconstriction, symp)
nasal congestion (parasympathetic)

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41
Q

treatment for autonomic dysreflexia

A

alleviate noxious stimuli if possible
sit pt up to create orthostatic HTN
frequent bp checks

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42
Q

what medication should patients with frequent autonomic dysreflexia have, and what does it do?

A

atropine, decreases BP and increases HR

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43
Q

what medication should be used in emergent care for autonomic dysreflexia, and what does it do?

A

nitroglycerine, vasodilates

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44
Q

in what regions of the spinal cord is there a lordosis?

A

cervical and lumbar

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45
Q

in what regions of the spinal cord is there a kyphosis?

A

thoracic and sacral

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46
Q

how are cervical nerve roots named?

A

nerve root is ABOVE the vertebral it is named for (i.e., C1 nerve is above CV1)

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47
Q

how are nerve roots named at T1 and below?

A

nerve root exits BELOW vertebra it is named for (i.e., T1 nerve is below TV1)

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48
Q

what is the conus medullaris?

A

the termination of the spinal cord

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49
Q

what is the filum terminale internum?

A

tethered cord that prevents spinal cord from retracting or bouncing around

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50
Q

function of vertebral body

A

support

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51
Q

function of vertebral arch

A

protective (protects spinal cord)

made up of 2 pedicles and 2 laminas

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52
Q

function of vertebral foramen

A

houses spinal cord

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53
Q

function of intervertebral foramina

A

houses spinal nerves and vessels

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54
Q

pedicle

A

goes between transverse process and body

looks like tear drop on x ray film

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55
Q

lamina

A

goes between transverse process and spinous process

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56
Q

what structures form an intervertebral foramina?

A

inferior vertebral notch of vertebra above + superior vertebral notch of vertebra below

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57
Q

what structures form a facet joint?

A

inferior articulating process of vertebra above + superior articulating process of vertebra below

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58
Q

how many projections are there off the vertebral arch? (name them)

A 
7
2 transverse processes
1 spinous process
2 SAP
2 IAP
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59
Q

distinguishing characteristics of cervical vertebrae

A

small, broad body (wider medial-lat than ant-post)
vertebral foramen is triangular
bifid spinous process
SAP faces posteriorly and up at 45 degrees
C1-C7 have transverse foramen

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60
Q

what do the transverse foramen house?

A

vertebral arteries
sympathetic nerves
venous plexus

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61
Q

what is an uncus (uncinate process) and where is it found?

A

found C3-C6 ONLY
prevents posterior translation of the vertebra
looks like little lip on lateral aspect of the body

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62
Q

at which levels does the vertebral artery travel?

A

CV1-CV6

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63
Q

cervical rotation: how is the movement split among vertebrae?

A

C1/C2 does 50% of rotational motion

C3-C7 does remaining 50%

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64
Q

characteristics of C1

A

no body - occupied by dens of C2
articulates with occiput
no true spinous process
has lateral masses

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65
Q

movements of C1

A 
between occiput and atlas 
primarily glide/ chin tuck 
flex/ext 15 deg (small "yes" nod)
sidebending 5 deg 
0 deg rotation
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66
Q

characteristics of C2

A

called axis - think “axis of rotation”
distinguished by dens
small transverse processes

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67
Q

what holds the dens in place?

A

alar ligament and transverse ligament

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68
Q

movements btwn C1 and C2

A

40-45deg rotation (1/2 of cervical rotation)

0 deg sidebending

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69
Q

attachments of transverse ligament of atlas

A

C1 to C1

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70
Q

attachments of alar ligament

A

C2 to occiput

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71
Q

how might the dens fracture, and how would you figure it out?

A

flexion based accident or compression injury

open mouth x-ray

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72
Q

cervical myelopathy can occur due to…

A

pressure from herniated disc, bone spur, spinal stenosis, tumor, vertebral fracture

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73
Q

cervical myelopathy definition and its symptoms

A 
compression of spinal cord
s/s:
neck pain
numbness in both arms and hands 
muscle weakness in both legs
balance disturbances 
incoordination of hands or feet
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74
Q

characteristics of thoracic vertebrae

A
  • slightly larger in size
  • have costal demifacets at junction of body and pedicles
  • facets on transverses processes articulate with tubercle of ribs
  • transverse and A-P dimension almost equal
  • round vertebral foramen
  • spinous process slants down and posterior (helps with protection)
  • SAPs face posteriorly at 60 degree angle
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75
Q

what is a demifacet?

A

half a facet; found in thoracic vertebrae

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76
Q

orientation of SAPs throughout the spine

A

cervical: 45 degrees, posterior and up
thoracic: 60 degrees, posterior and up
lumbar: almost vertical (SAP faces medially and posteriorly)

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77
Q

what does a rib articulate with?

A

inferior costal facet of vertebra above
superior costal facet of vertebra below
transverse costal facet of vertebra below

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78
Q

rib is named for the level of…

A

superior costal facet and transverse costal facet

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79
Q

T11 and T12 are floating ribs - what does this mean?

A

they each only have 1 costal facet and therefore each rib only has 1 articulating surface (each articulates with its own respective rib)

80
Q

the superior articular facet for the vertebral body (on rib) is going to articulating with the __ costal facet of the vertebra __

A

inferior costal facet of vertebra above

81
Q

how many joints are there between ribs and thoracic spine (for ribs 3-9)?

A

3 joint surfaces, 2 joints (costovertebral joint and costotransverse joint)

82
Q

thoracic vertebrae variations: T1

A

complete facet on superior aspect of body for whole head of rib 1
demifacet inferiorly to articulate with rib 2

83
Q

thoracic vertebrae variations: T9

A

often no inferior demifacet for rib 10

84
Q

thoracic vertebrae movements

A

flexion > rotation > extension/ side bending

85
Q

what motion does the orientation of the facets in the thoracic region favor?

A

sidebending

this is restricted by ribs and organs

86
Q

what type of joint is costovertebral joint

A

synovial joint

87
Q

what ligaments are a part of the costovertebral joint?

A

radiate ligament

intra-articular ligament

88
Q

what type of joint is costotransverse joint

A

synovial joint

89
Q

what ligaments are a part of costotransverse ligament?

A

costotransverse ligament
superior costrotransverse ligament
lateral costotransverse ligament

90
Q

characteristics of lumbar vertebrae

A 
greatest body size 
no costal facets
no transverse foramen 
body wider laterally than A-P
spinous process almost horizontal to vertebral body
91
Q

what motion is favored in lumbar spine, due to facet orientation?

A

flexion and extension

facets are oriented in sagittal plane

92
Q

what is mamillary process?

A

located on superior articulating process in lumbar vertebrae

provides attachment for Multifidi

93
Q

what is accessory process?

A

for muscle attachment in lumbar spine

94
Q

ligaments of spine

A 
anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL)
posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL)
ligamentum flavum
interspinous ligament
inter transverse ligament
supraspinous ligament
ligamentum nuchae
95
Q

function and location of anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL)

A

unites vertebral bodies and IVDs - RESISTS TRUNK EXTENSION

located on anterior surface of vertebral body

96
Q

attachments of ALL

A

occiput superiorly and sacrum inferiorly

97
Q

function and location of posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL)

A

unites posterior aspect of vertebral bodies and IVDs - RESISTS TRUNK FLEXION
located INSIDE vertebral canal on POSTERIOR surface of vertebral bodies (ant surface canal)
** highly innervated with sensory nerve fibers

98
Q

attachments of PLL

A

superior to axis (C2) and inferior to sacrum, primarily to IVD rather than bone

99
Q

which is stronger - ALL or PLL?

A

ALL

100
Q

ligamentum flavum location and function

A

connects lamina to lamina of vertebrae
function: resist separation of vertebral lamina and restrain mobility of facet joint
forms posterior wall of vertebral column
composed of YELLOW elastic tissue
thickest in lumbar region

101
Q

interspinous ligament location and function

A

connects adjoining spines from root to apex
limits forward bending
very elastic, therefore weaker

102
Q

intertransverse ligament location and function

A

between transverse processes

can limit SB and rotation

103
Q

ligamentum nuchae function

A

continuation of supraspinous and interspinous ligaments in cervical region
gives rise to muscle attachment esp for C3-C5

104
Q

supraspinous ligament function

A

connects tips of spinous processes of C7 to sacrum

limits forwarded bending

105
Q

dentate ligaments - how many pairs?

A

20 pairs

106
Q

function of dentate ligament

A

attaches dura mater to Pia mater

holds arachnoid layer of meninges and spinal cord suspended within dura

107
Q

meninges superficial to deep

A

dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater

108
Q

what is the “articular pillar” and in what region is it?

A

articular pillar is made up of collective articular processes of CERVICAL spine (just lateral to spinous processes)

109
Q

IVDs are generally thicker anteriorly in the ___ regions

A

cervical and lumbar regions (lordotic regions)

110
Q

how does IVD acquire nutrition?

A

via diffusion through spongy bone of adjacent vertebrae

111
Q

what segments of the spinal cord do not have a disc between them?

A

C0/C1
C1/C2
none in sacrum or coccyx region

112
Q

annulus fibrosis is…

A

inner layer of fibrocartilage and outer later of collagenous fibers, running in 12-18 concentric rings (run obliquely) along the outside of an IVD

113
Q

function of annulus fibrosis

A

contains nucleus, permits deformation, resists tensile forces (has to be flexible enough to move when spine needs to move, but needs to resist stress as well)

114
Q

which part of the IVD has mechanoreceptors and sensory receptors in it?

A

annulus fibrosis

115
Q

relativeness thickness and size of annulus fibrosis in different areas of disc

A

larger and thicker anteriorly, smaller and thinner posteriorly

116
Q

in which direction is a herniation most likely to occur?

A

posteriolaterally, bc annulus fibrosis is thinnest in that direction

117
Q

protrusion of IVD

A

mildest form

annular fibers still remain intact, nucleus pulposus might start changing shape

118
Q

prolapsed IVD

A

nuclear lateral reaches edge of disc and creates a bulge, annular fibrosis is still intact

119
Q

extrusion of IVD

A

annular fibers rupture, some nuclear material escapes

nucleus pulposus is still intact

120
Q

sequestration of IVD

A

nuclear lateral breaks and becomes pieces

most severe; health care professionals agree on this one most universally

121
Q

what are facet joints innervated by?

A

branches of dorsal rami

122
Q

during flexion, what aspect of disc is compressed?

A

anterior aspect

123
Q

during flexion, what ligament becomes taunt?

A

PLL

124
Q

during flexion, where does movement occur in the spinal column?

A

between inferior articulating process of vertebra above and superior articulating process of vertebra below

125
Q

during extension, what aspect of disc is compressed?

A

posterior aspect

126
Q

during extension, what ligament becomes taunt?

A

ALL

127
Q

during side bending, what aspect of disc is compressed?

A

lateral aspect of disc

128
Q

at the facet joint, sidebending is always coupled with what other motion?

A

rotation

129
Q

in the cervical region, do SB and rotation occur to the same or opposite sides?

A

same side

130
Q

in thoracic region, do SB and rotation occur to same or opposite sides?

A

opposite sides

131
Q

in lumbar region, do SB and rotation occur to same or opposite sides?

A

opposite sides

132
Q

during rotation, what aspect of disc is compressed?

A

shearing stress, not necessarily compressed in one region more than another

133
Q

how many layers are there to thoracolumbar fascia?

A

3: posterior, middle, anterior

134
Q

where does the posterior layer of thoracolumbar fascia attach?

A

lumbar and sacral spines and supraspinous ligaments

135
Q

where does the middle layer of thoracolumbar fascia attach?

A

tips of lumbar transverse processes and ligaments, and to iliac crest and 12th rib

136
Q

where is the anterior layer of thoracolumbar fascia?

A

covers QL

137
Q

in thoracic region, what is the function of thoracolumbar fascia?

A

thin covering for vertebral extensors

138
Q

in thoracic region, what are the attachments of thoracolumbar fascia?

A

medially to thoracic spine, laterally to costal angles

139
Q

extensors and rotators of head and neck

A

splenius capitis and splenius crevices

140
Q

short segmental muscles, deep back

A

interspinale and intertransversarii

141
Q

spinal extensors

A 
erector spinae:
iliocostalis
longissimus
spinalis 
(ILS from lateral --> medial)
142
Q

spinal rotators

A

(transversospinales)
semispinalis
rotators
multifidi

143
Q

what is the common distal attachment of the erector spinae?

A

broad, thick tendon attached to median sacral crest
spines of T11, T12, and all lumbar vertebrae (+ their supraspinous ligaments)
medial, dorsal ileum
lateral aspect of sacral crest

144
Q

iliocostalis muscles

A

iliocostalis cervicis
iliocostalis thoracis
iliocostalis lumborum

145
Q

longissimus muscles

A

longissimus capitis
longissimus cervicis
longissimus thoracis

146
Q

spinalis muscles

A

spinalis thoracis
spinalis cervicis
spinalis capitis

147
Q

iliocostalis action

A

extension and lateral flexion of vertebral column

148
Q

longissimus thoracis action

A

extend and side-bend vertebral column

149
Q

longissimus cervicis action

A

extend and side-bend vertebral column

150
Q

longissimus capitis action

A

extend head and rotate to same side

151
Q

fiber direction of Multifidi

A

from inferolateral to superomedial

152
Q

fiber direction of rotatores

A

inferolateral to superomedial

153
Q

action of spinalis muscles

A

extension of vertebral column

154
Q

muscles included in the transversospinalis muscle group

A 
semispinalis thoracis
semispinalis cervicis
semispinalis capitis
multifidi
rotatores lumborum
rotatores thoracis
rotatores cervicis
155
Q

action of semispinalis thoracis and cervicis

A

extend thoracic and cervical vertebral regions, rotate head contralaterally

156
Q

action of semispinalis capitis

A

extends head, does minimal rotation

157
Q

how long is each individual multifidus muscle?

A

3-4 vertebrae in length (attach to those above)

158
Q

how long is each rotatores muscle?

A

3-4 vertebrae in length (attach to those above)

159
Q

how long is each interspinales muscle?

A

about 1 vertebral level, between adjacent vertebral spines

160
Q

how long is each intertransversarii muscle?

A

about 1 vertebral level, between transverse processes

161
Q

actions of transversospinalis group

A

“endurance muscles”

postural, steadying, controlling vertebrae during motion

162
Q

borders of suboccipital triangle

A

superomedial border: rectus capitis posterior major and minor
superior/ superolateral border: obliquus capitis superior oblique
inferior border: obliquus capitis inferior oblique
floor: AA membrane and posterior arch of C1

163
Q

contents of suboccipital triangle

A 
vertebral artery
suboccipital nerve (dorsal ramus of C1)
164
Q

what is epidural anesthesia?

A

regional anesthesia resulting from injection of an anesthetic into epidural space of spinal cord; goes thru dura mater
results in temporary anesthesia (but still motor control) of abdominal and genital region and lower extremities

165
Q

where is an epidural anesthetic usually inserted and why?

A

either L3/4 space or L4/5 space

to protect spinal cord – spinal cord ends around L1/L2

166
Q

is osteoporosis of the spine more prevalent in males or females?

A

females

167
Q

what are the two types of osteoporosis of the spine that occur?

A

postmenopausal/ estrogen deficient osteoporosis

age related osteoporosis

168
Q

typical osteoporosis fracture sites throughout body (in order)

A 
vertebral bodies
hip
ribs
radius
femur
169
Q

vertebral compression fracture s/s, and what x-ray will show

A 
x-ray will show anterior wedge deformity
severe back pain at site of fracture **may radiate**
posture change (kyphosis)
loss of height
functional impairment
disability
decreased quality of life
170
Q

what is spinal stenosis?

A

general term for narrowing of vertebral foramen, usually secondary to disc degeneration, osteophyte formation of vertebral bodies, or calcification of ligamentous material

this narrows the spinal canal

171
Q

spinal stenosis can result in compression of…

A

neural tissue (spinal cord and nerve roots), resulting in sensory and motor dysfunction

172
Q

spondylosis is…

A

typical joint change, facet joints and IVDs wear down, creating bone spurs leading to pain and stiffness

173
Q

what is the pars interarticularis?

A

portion of the posterior arch between the superior and inferior articulating processes

174
Q

spondylolosis is… and is caused by…

A

posterior arch defect
unilateral or bilateral stress fracture of the pars, most likely due to an acquired abnormality due to abnormal vertebral stress - NO SLIPPAGE
also could be seen in adolescents/ teens who do a lot of extension based activities in sports (ex: gymnast or diver)

175
Q

how do you visualize a spondylolosis on an x-ray?

A 
"Scottie dog"
nose = transverse process
eye = pedicle
neck = pars - is there a fracture?
ear = superior articulating process
176
Q

how do you visualize a spondylolisthesis on an x-ray?

A

“Scottie dog”

neck = slippage of neck

177
Q

spondylolisthesis is…

A

when one vertebral body slips forward in relation to an adjacent vertebrae

178
Q

where is spondylolisthesis most common?

A

L4/L5 and L5/S1 interspace

179
Q

what is spondylolisthesis usually due to?

A

overuse in young athletes, repetitive hyperextension

180
Q

contents of anterior triangle

A 
infrahyoid m 
thyroid and parathyroid glands
common carotid a
internal jugular v
portions of last 3 CNs
submandibular gland
facial a
internal carotid a
internal jugular v 
CN IX
CN X
181
Q

transverse cervical nn ventral rami levels and what they come off of

A

come off cervical plexus

C1-C4 ventral rami

182
Q

4 types of fascia in the neck

A

investing
pretrachial
carotid sheath
prevertebral

183
Q

investing fascia surrounds…

A

most superficial

surrounds all neck structures and acts as roof to anterior triangle

184
Q

pretrachial fascia surrounds…

A

thyroid gland
infrahyoid m
trachea
esophagus

185
Q

carotid sheath surrounds…

A

internal jugular vein
carotid artery (common and internal)
vagus n
sometimes ansa cervicalis

186
Q

prevertebral fascia surrounds…

A

all muscles of the neck besides SCM and trapezius
prevertebral muscles (longus colli, longus capitis)
scalene muscles
levator scap
phrenic n
deep muscles of back
forms floor of posterior triangle

187
Q

contents of posterior triangle

A 
transverse cervical a 
CN XI
upper trunk of brachial plexus
subclavian a 
dorsal scapular n 
long thoracic n 
n to subclavius
supra scapular a 
supra scapular n
188
Q

function of prevertebral muscles

A

longus colli, longus capitis

assist w neck flexion and are right next to vertebrae

189
Q

4 infrahyoid muscles

A

sternohyoid
sternothyroid
thyrohyoid
omohyoid

190
Q

function of infrahyoid muscles

A

depress hyoid bone and floor of mouth, elevate or depress larynx
important during talking and swallowing

191
Q

4 suprahyoid muscles

A

digastric (anterior and posterior bellies)
geniohyoid
stylohyoid
mylohyoid

192
Q

what cranial foramen does CN VII travel through, and which one does it exit out of?

A

travels through internal acoustic meatus and exits stylomastoid foramen

193
Q

what travels through internal acoustic meatus?

A 
CN VII (facial)
CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)
194
Q

what is Bell’s palsy?

A

irritation or inflammation of CNVII, lesions and affects muscles of facial expression on 1 side of face

195
Q

where do cell bodies of CN VII originate?

A

pons and geniculate ganglion

Anatomy (3 decks)

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