Test 2 Gen Physio Flashcards

0
Q

What uses are there for Serotonin?

A

It is “Pleiotropic”, many different functions:
Promotes vasoconstriction
Development of skeleton
Involved with brain formation/synapses
Endocrine functions, in the stomach
Platelets for blood clotting (paracrine).

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1
Q

What is Acetal choline synthesized from?

A

Lesothin and CoA (Coenzyme A)

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2
Q

Serotonin imbalances can cause what problems, developmental or in brain?

A

To little in development could cause SIDS.
As a neurotransmitter in brain can change behavior:
- OCD lie levels
- PMS low levels
- SAD Seasonal Associate Depression low levels
- Panic Disorders low levels
- Bipolar low levels

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3
Q

How do you treat Serotonin Imbalances?

A

Serotonin levels in synapses must be increased by blocking Serotonin re-uptake (Prozac and Zoloft). Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors. A summation effect. Serotonin is released into the synapse, is not reabsorbed, and then another signal will add more serotonin.

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4
Q

Hallucinogens are what to serotonin receptors?

A

Antagonists to serotonin receptors on post synaptic cell. Assists with early in life traumatic memories.

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5
Q

What is Dopamine?

A

A monoamine Neurotransmitter.

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6
Q

What precursor is used to synthesize Dopamine?

A

Synthesized from tyrosine → then L-dopamine (an intermediate).

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7
Q

What are Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine synthesized from?

A

Tyrosine

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8
Q

What does abnormal levels of dopamine do in the brain?

A

In abnormal levels will cause:
Schizophrenia (to much) that will break down lateral ventricles. Treated with EST (Electro Shock Therapy) and Insulin Shock Therapy.

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9
Q

Dopamine is also known as what molecule in the limbic system part of the brain?

A

A reward molecule providing a state of euphoria in the Nucleous of cumbus. Becomes an issue with addiction.

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10
Q

What is the Limbic System?

A

The primitive brain. Survival instincts. Controlled by prefrontal cortex.

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11
Q

What is dynorphin?

A

It is a molecule that lessens the effect of dopamine in the brain. A protective molecule against over stimulation of dopamine receptors. For addict it requirers a larger dose of a drug to carry out the same effect.

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12
Q

What is Parkinson’s Disease?

A

Uncontrolled muscle contractions caused by the substantia nigra (dark color caused from excess myelin) and the basal ganglia. There is a deterioration of the fibers emerging from the substantia nigra causing to little dopamine to be released from the basal ganglia.

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13
Q

What is Tourette’s Syndrome?

A

To much dopamine causing ticks and uncontrolled verbal expression,

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14
Q

What is Histamine?

A

A monoamine that can function as a Neurotransmitter in the brain that is highly important in regulating the sleep cycle. Creates Sleep Paralysis. Synthesized from histadine.

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15
Q

What are Endocannibanoids?

A

Fatty acid neurotransmitters. Two important ones, Anandamide and 2AG. Also found in GI tract. Similar to marijuanna. Effects pain surpression, appetite, depression. Works on CB receptors, CB1and CB2.

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16
Q

What does the Endocannibanoid CB1 do?

A

Involved with DSI (depolarization induced suppression of inhibition). Glutamate effects post synaptic cell, post synaptic cell releases Endocannibanoids to CB1 at presynaptic cell, inhibiting the release of GABA.

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17
Q

GABA is what kind of neurotransmitter?

A

It is an ionotropic inhibitory amino acid neurotransmitter.

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18
Q

Glutamate is what kind of neurotransmitter?

A

Glutamate is an ionotropic excitatory amino acid neurotransmitter.

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19
Q

What does GABA do as a neurotransmitter?

A

GABA is inhibitory, causing inhibitory post synaptic potential (IPSP). There is α (chloride channels open) and β (opens K channels causing hyperpolarization) GABA.

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20
Q

What are some glutamate receptors?

A

Most are ionotropic.
NMDA Receptor: bound to Mg on interior of the cell;
Non-NMDA Receptor: no Mg; ion channel receptor that allows Na to enter. Na kicks of Mg
Metabotropic involving G-proteins.

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21
Q

What are the three phases of a muscle twitch!

A
  • Latent period
  • Contraction
  • Relaxation
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22
Q

What contributes to the strength of a muscle contraction?

A

By increasing the number of muscle fibers firing.

By increasing the tension of muscle fibers (summation effect).

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23
Q

What is oxygen debt?

A

An increase in oxygen to remove metabolites, such as lactic acid.

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24
Q

What gives skeletal muscles energy (not mitochondria)?

A

Creatine Phosphate

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25
Q

What are two alternative mechanisms for ATP synthesis in skeletal muscles?

A

Oxidative Phosphorilation and glycolysis.

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26
Q

What are two types of muscle fibers when compared to the rate of contraction?

A

Fast twitch fibers and slow twitch fibers.

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27
Q

What are oxidative fibers?

A

Require oxidative phosphorylation to generate ATP. Highly vasculated, many mitochondria, and a protein called myoglobin in the cytoplasm that stores oxygen.

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28
Q

Red muscle fibers are?

A

Muscle fibers that contain myoglobin.

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29
Q

Glycolitic fibers are what?

A

Rely heavily on glycogen to generate ATP in muscles.

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30
Q

Type I muscle fibers are what?

A

Skeletal muscle slow twitch oxidative fibers and rely on oxidative phosphorylation and split ATP slowly, requiring oxygen. Genetically determined.

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31
Q

Type two A muscle fibers are what?

A

Inherited by genetics and Rely on oxidative phosphorylation. Split ATP quickly (fast Twitch).

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32
Q

What are type two B muscle fibers?

A

Glycolytic fibers that fatigue quickly, Fast Twitch. Rely on glycolysis for ATP synthesis.

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33
Q

What are some muscle organs?

A

Biceps, triceps, hamstrings, quadriceps, etc.

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34
Q

How are muscle cells organized in a muscle organ?

A

Individual bundles called vesiculi (vesiculus singular), and separated by the perimysium. The perimysium contains blood vesicles, nerves, and lymphatic vesicles. Whole structure enveloped by the epimysium, connective tissue. Collagen holds muscle organs in place.

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35
Q

Why are muscles never completely relaxed?

A

Partial contractions are caused by muscle tonus.

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36
Q

What happens if you lose the ability to use a muscle from lack of enervation?

A

Atrophy which is a reduction of muscle mass. De-enervation atrophy, caused by severing of a nerve (non reverseable). Disuse atrophy, caused by not using a muscle such as from a cast (is reverseable).

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37
Q

What causes muscle tonus?

A

A myotastic reflex that responds to stretching of muscles

Gravity is always pulling the muscle so working against gravity.

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38
Q

What two factor are antagonistic to each other that are responsible for maintaining a muscle?

A

IGF1- Insulin-like Growth Factor 1: Promotes the growth of a muscle from small satellite stem cells in the muscle. Will fuse with the post mytotic muscle cells.
Myostatin- inhibits the fusion of satellite cells within the muscle.

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39
Q

What happens if there is a lack of myotastin in a muscle?

A

Increased muscle mass caused from a lack of the antagonist of IGF1 which encourages the fusion of satellite cells to muscle cells.

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40
Q

What is the problem of IGF in competitive sports?

A

It cannot be detected with drug testing when injected into muscle organs.

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41
Q

What hormone can skeletal muscles produce?

A

Irisin, can cause white adipose tissue to turn into brown adipose tissue in humans.

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42
Q

What is torpor?

A

Hibernation in animals where brown adipose tissue breaks down and can release heat keeping the animal alive preventing hypothermia and even death.

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43
Q

True or False: Most muscle conditions are caused by muscle disorders.

A

False: Most muscle disorders are indirect effects of damage to nerves because of how important they are to muscle enervation.

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44
Q

What is/causes cramping?

A

Excessive muscle contraction where nerves fire rapidly creating a summation effect. Caused by an imbalance of electrolytes.

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45
Q

What is hypocalcemic tetany?

A

Low Ca levels causing a tetanic contractions. Low Ca levels would cause Na to react with Cl outside the cell, Cl typically interacts with Ca normally, causing a positive effect of Na on membrane potential. This raises the resting phase, making it easier to create an Action Potential.

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46
Q

What is Muscular Distrophy?

A

A genetic condition caused a a problem on the X Chromosome, pseudo dominant in men. A defective cytoskeletal protein called Dystrophin. Dystrophin is a protein that assists in cytoskeleton formation. In muscular dystrophy dystrophin binds to a Ca channel, opens the Ca channel, Ca is a secondary messenger activating kinease, and activates protease breaking down cellular proteins. Progressive disease that gets worse over time.

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47
Q

What is myotonic dystrophy?

A

Myotonic dystrophy is a genetic disorder caused by a defective gene on autosome 19, effecting men an women, causing issues with facial muscles. Posses genetic anticipation. Progressive disease that gets worse over time.

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48
Q

What is genetic anticipation?

A

As the genes get passed from one generation to the next a disease or disorder becomes worse/more progressive. The trait intensifies.

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49
Q

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

A

MS is a disorder which causes demyelination of neurons, effecting both sensory and motor neurons. An autoimmune disease where basic myelin proteins are attacked by antibodies and T-Cells. Can be treated with weekly injections of beta interferons. Progressive disease that gets worse over time. Different classifications:
Progressive
Progressive Remissive
Remissive

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50
Q

What is Myasthenia Gravis?

A

And autoimmune disease which destroys nicotine receptors on the endplate causing the inability of muscle cells to respond since the receptor is destroyed. Progressive disease that gets worse over time.

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51
Q

What is ALS (Lou Gehrig’s disease)?

A

Myotrophic lateral sclerosis; a fast acting disease effecting motor neurons causing death between 3-5 years when respiratory muscles are effected. Two types:
Random- appears with no known reason
Familial- (5%-10% of patients) SOD1, an anti oxidant removing oxygen radicals, Gene defect causing oxygen radicals to build up and destroy neurons.

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52
Q

What other factors being researched may cause ALS?

A

May be caused by glial cells, over secretion of glutamate creating an excitotoxic effect, cells begin to form caspase to breakdown neurons, and the neuro filaments form a tangle in the axon.

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53
Q

What is Polio?

A

A RNA virus that kills neurons causing skeletal muscle paralysis. Enter the motor endplate of a neuron in the neuromuscular junction, travels up the knob, to the cyton, kills the cyton, removing the connection to the muscle.

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54
Q

What is SMA (Spinal Muscular Atrophy)?

A

A genetic disorder effecting the neuron, causing a muscular effect. Abnormal protein synthesis in neurons to muscles, caused from SMN1 and SMN2 genes. Loss of muscle function, eventually affecting respiratory muscles inducing death. Severity depends on the number of genes affected.

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55
Q

Where is smooth muscle found?

A

Bladder, digestive tract, uterus, respiratory tract, and blood vessels.

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56
Q

What are some anatomical features of smooth muscles?

A

Elongated “fusiform” in shape, single Nucleus, non striated, no Z-line, no sarcomeres, no T-tubules (transverse tubules), no troponin, does not have an neuro-muscular junction, some can be myogenic (The ability to depolarize spontaneously without a stimulus). Smooth muscles can also respond to numerous types of signals, unlike skeletal muscles which only respond to skeletal innervation, responds to nerves, hormones, paracrine agents, temperature and pH changes, and physical distortion from stretching to contract. Slow forceful contractions.

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57
Q

What are anchoring sites for smooth muscle called?

A

Plaques

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58
Q

Thin myofilaments in smooth muscles have dense bodies. What are dense bodies?

A

Thought to be the Z-line equivalent in smooth muscles with a protein called alpha actinin.

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59
Q

What are other proteins associated with smooth muscles?

A

Desmin
Vimentin
Caldesmon- have similar function to troponin
Calponin- have similar function to troponin

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60
Q

How are smooth muscles innervated?

A

Autonomic Nervous System,

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61
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic-

Parasympathetic-

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62
Q

How is smooth muscle innervated without the neuromuscular junction?

A

By neurotransmitters, specifically acetylcholine (parasympathetic) and epinephrine (sympathetic). These neurotransmitters are released at the varicosity on the neuron. Diffuses away from the varicosity to the receptor and can create a hyperpolarization and a depolarization.

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63
Q

Hyper polarization and depolarization innervation are characteristic of?

A

Smooth muscles.

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64
Q

How is calcium utilized by smooth muscle for innervation?

A

Ca binds to Calmodulin, calmodulin activates a kinease (myosin light chain kinease or MLCK), phosphorylates myosin A,

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65
Q

In skeletal muscle, what phosphorylates myosin?

A

Auto phosphorylated at P-site.

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66
Q

What Ca channels are utilized by smooth muscles not seen in skeletal muscles?

A

DHP Receptors on sarcolemer that are voltage gated.
RYR- located on SER
IP3- located on SER

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67
Q

What two locations contain Ca to be used by smooth muscle?

A

Outside ECF and enters through DHP receptors on sarcolemer.

From SER involving IP3 and RYR receptors.

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68
Q

What protein breaks cross bridge formation with smooth muscles?

A

Enzyme called Myosin Light Chain Phosphotase removes a phosphate to stop the contraction.

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69
Q

What mechanisms are involved with Ca mobilization in the SER and in ECF?

A

Sarcolemer- DHP voltage gated receptor. DHP opens by changing membrane potential. Ligand gating where a ligand binds to its receptor allowing Ca to enter. Stretching also opens channels (mechano gaiting).
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum- removes Ca from SER by the IP3 receptor and is activated by the PPI System. Pours Ca out without a change in membrane potential (Pharmaco Mechanical Coupling). Requires Ca to open.

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70
Q

What is pharmaco mechanical coupling?

A

A contraction in smooth muscle in which there is no change in membrane potential.

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71
Q

What is mechano gaiting?

A

Is the physical opening of channels by stretching.

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72
Q

What happens to Ca levels during smooth muscle relaxation?

A

SERCA brings Ca back into the SER by primary active transport.
To Ca get back to the ECF a Ca pump and antiporter protein, transports Ca out and Na in through secondary active transport.

73
Q

Some smooth muscles are myogenic, spontaneous polarization, what is occurring during the pacemaker potential in the membrane? Why are they depolarizing?

A

Gradual closing of K channels inducing a voltage gaiting effect on Ca channels creating an influx of Ca. Contraction is Ca dependent.

74
Q

How do smooth muscle pacemaker cells effect other non myogenic smooth muscle cells?

A

A physiological syncisa must be created. Linked together with gap junctions where one pacemaker cell can effect numerous other cells to contract.

75
Q

What are the two major groups of smooth muscles?

A

Single unit smooth muscle- physiologic syncisa. Not heavily innervated, found in blood vessels, G.I. tract, bladder, and the respiratory tract. Not heavily effected by nervous system.
Multi unit smooth muscle- much more innervated and controlled by autonomic nervous system. Found in bronchioles in the lungs, Iris, and erectipillial muscles causing goosebumps. Does not have pacemaker cells.

76
Q

True or false: Smooth muscle can divide.

A

True, unlike skeletal muscles smooth muscles are not post mitotic. Smooth muscle are required to divide during pregnancy.

77
Q

True or False: Skeletal muscles are glandular and able to secrete hormones.

A

False, smooth muscles have the ability to secrete substances in the walls of blood vessels.

78
Q

What is significant of Pharmaco Mechanical Coupling in smooth muscle?

A

There is no change in membrane polarity.

79
Q

What does MLCP do?

A

Induces relaxation by de-phosphorylating the actin and myosin crossbridge formation

80
Q

Because of the length of time a contraction of smooth muscles take, they don’t what?

A

Fatigue. They will fatigue only if deprived of oxygen called ischemia (inadequate blood flow to an organ).

81
Q

The CNS is responsible for what?

A

Receiving, integration, and interpretation of sensory information from receptors and sending motor signals as a response to stimuli.

82
Q

What are the two components of the CNS?

A

Brain and Spinal Cord

83
Q

What early development structure forms the Brain and Spinal Cord?

A

The neural tube. The Brain is the anterior region and the Spinal Cord is the posterior region.

84
Q

What is the cranial vault?

A

The skull, a protective structure for the brain that holds it in place.

85
Q

The opening in the skull for the spinal cord is what?

A

The Foramen Magnum

86
Q

What bones protect the Spinal Cord?

87
Q

Where does the Spinal Cord end?

A

The second lumbar vertebra (L2)

88
Q

What are the three classifications of vertebra?

A
Cervical- 7
Thorastic- 12
Lumbar- 5
Sacral
Coccyx
89
Q

What are the two regions of the Spinal Cord?

A

A butterfly shape containing gray matter.

Outer zone containing white matter.

90
Q

What are nerve tracts?

A

Bundles of nerve fibers found in the white matter. There are two types:
Ascending- carry sensory information
Descending- motor fibers

91
Q

Why is the white matter found in the Spinal Cord white?

A

Increased myelination

92
Q

What makes up gray matter?

A

Found in the center of the spinal cord composed of inter neurons, axon terminals of sensory fibers, motor fibers, and glial cells.

93
Q

Nerves are not found in what two structures?

A

The Brain and Spinal Cord

94
Q

Nerves are only found in which part of the nervous system?

A

The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS).

95
Q

What is a nerve?

A

A PNS structure composed of a bundle of nerve fibers that are arranged in fasciculus. Each fasciculus is loaded with axon bundles. Connective tissue, glial cell, surrounds each fasciculus, called epineurium, inside the epineurium is the perineurium which surrounds the endoneurium.

96
Q

What are the two Spinal Roots?

A

Dorsal Spinal Root- (sometimes known as the dorsal horn) receives sensory information from sensory nerve tracts.
Ventral Spinal Root- (sometimes known as the ventral horn) receives motor output.

97
Q

What happens if the dorsal root is damaged, but the ventral root remains intact?

A

You will have motor output from the ventral root, but no sensory input from the dorsal root.

98
Q

What happens if the ventral root is damaged, but the dorsal root remains intact?

A

You will have no motor output from the ventral root, but you will still have sensory input from the dorsal root.

99
Q

What is a ganglion?

A

A collection or aggregation of nerve cell bodies located outside of the Brain and Spinal Cord. This structure is a part of a PNS (Periferal Nervous System) Structure, and is located adjacent to the Spinal Cord.

100
Q

What is a Nucleus in the Brain?

A

A CNS structure located in the brain.

101
Q

What is a Spinal Nerve?

A

Paired Nerves on either side of the spinal cord and it is a mixed nerve because it carries both motor output and sensory input. 31 pairs.

102
Q

What are the two regions where the Spinal Cord protrudes outward?

A

The Cervical Enlargement
The Lumbar Enlargement
These two regions protrude because of the number of nerves entering and exiting these locations.

103
Q

What is the Conus Modullarus?

A

A tapered ending to the spinal cord at L1 or L2.

104
Q

What anchors the Spinal Cord in place?

A

A thin thread of connective tissue called Filum Laminale that connects the Conus Modullarus to the Coccygeal Ligament (tail bone).

105
Q

How many pairs of Cervical, Thorastic, Lumbar, Sacral, and Coccygeal Nerves are there?

A

There are 8 pairs of Cervical Nerves, 12 pairs of Thorastic Nerves, 5 pairs of Lumbar Nerves, 5 pairs of Sacral Nerves, and 1 pair of Coccygeal Nerves. The nerves are named according to the vertebrae that they need to pass through.

106
Q

What is a vertebra?

A

A vertebra is an irregular shaped bone that has a pointed top and forms a neural arch. The Vertebral Foramen in cases the spinal cord, Anna opening where nerve fibers can pass through. Lateral Foramen are holes allowing Spinal Nerves to exit the Spinal Cord.

107
Q

What cushions the space between Vertebre!

A

A Cartilage disc known as the vertebral disc. Damage to the dick will cause it to bulge and puts pressure on spinal nerves inducing pain.

108
Q

What three meningeal layers envelop the Spinal Cord?

A

The three membranes that envelop the brain and spinal cord. See dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater.
Outer Layer- the outermost of the three layers making up the meninges. It is a thick, durable membrane. It is responsible for keeping in the cerebrospinal fluid.
Middle Layer- arachnoid is the middle layer of the meninges, and is named from its spider web-like appearance. It provides a cushioning for the central nervous system.
Inner- Pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges. It envelopes and firmly attaches to the surface of the brain and spinal cord. The pia mater contains blood vessels and capillaries that are responsible for nourishing the brain.

109
Q

What is encased in the subarachnoid space?

A

The subarachnoid space contains cerebrospinal fluid.

110
Q

What is the Cauda equina?

A

A ganglion, looks like a horses tail, a bundle of spinal nerves and spinal nerve roots, consisting of the second through fifth lumbar nerve pairs, the first through fifth sacral nerve pairs, and the coccygeal nerve, all of which originate in the conus medullaris of the spinal cord. The vertebra grows faster than the spinal cord and gives it a stretched appearance.

111
Q

What are the connective tissue equivalent in the Central Nervous System?

A

Glial Cells

112
Q

What is cephalization?

A

It is the growth of the anterior region of the neural tube giving rise to the brain.

113
Q

During development what structures developed from the diencephalon?

A

The diencephalon forms the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus.

114
Q

How thick is the Spinal Cord and how long is it?

A

The Spinal Cord is about 1 cm thick and 18 in” long.

115
Q

What is a nerve tract?

A

A nerve track is a bundle of nerve fibers within the CNS (Central Nervous System).

116
Q

How does a nerve differ from a nerve track?

A

Nerve fibers are found in bundles called Fasciculi and are surrounded by perineurium. The perineurium is surrounded by the epineurium, and inside the perineurium is the endoneurium. The perineurium is composed of connective tissue and is located outside the Central Nervous System making this a Peripheral Nervous System structure.

117
Q

What is the dura mater?

A

The dura mater is the outer most meninges of the spinal cord composed of thick fatty tissue containing an epieneural space and a sub epieneural space.

118
Q

What is the arachnoid?

A

The arachnoid is the second meninges layer that contain arachnoid tribecule which are anchored to the inner most minx. The sub arachnoid space holds the Cerebral Spinal Fluid (CSF).

119
Q

What is the Pia mater?

A

The thinnest inner most minx layer closest to the Spinal Cord.

120
Q

What composes a mature brain?

A

Cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon, and medulla oblengotta.

121
Q

What structures comprise the diencephalon?

A

The Thalamus, Hypothalamus, and Epithalamus.

122
Q

What are the vesicles that form on the anterior of the neural tube?

A

The diencephalon (forebrain), mesencephalon (midbrain), and the rhombencephalon (hind brain). The earliest signs of brain development.

123
Q

What does the Rhombencephalon develop into?

A

The Cerebellum, medulla, and pons

124
Q

Inflammation of the meninges is called what?

A

Meningitis

125
Q

Why do neurons in certain parts of the brain, like the hippocampus, not die?

A

The hippocampus helps form long term memory. In this region stem cells exist and are able to be recruited to replace neurons (up to 1,400 daily). for the stem cells to be recruited the individual must be both physically and mentally active.

126
Q

What is the significance of alpha somatic fibers in the brain?

A

Important in skeletal muscle control.

127
Q

What are parasympathetic nerve fibers in the brain?

A

Control involuntary actions, such as smooth muscle contractions.

128
Q

What is Cranial Nerve I, and what does if do?

A

The olfactory nerve, used in the sense of smell.

129
Q

What is Cranial Nerve II, and what does it do?

A

The optic nerve, involved with vision.

130
Q

What is Cranial Nerve III, and what does it do?

A

The oculomotor nerve, involved with the movement of the eyeball.

131
Q

What is Cranial Nerve IV, and what does it do?

A

Trochlear nerve, involved with movement of the superior oblique in the eye.

132
Q

What is Cranial Nerve V, and what does it do?

A

Trigeminal nerve, involved with facial sensation and motor activity.

133
Q

What is Cranial Nerve VI, and what does it do?

A

The abducens nerve, controls the lateral rectus muscles of the eyes.

134
Q

What is Cranial Nerve VII, and what does it do?

A

The Facial Nerve, a motor somatic nerve responsible for facial expressions.

135
Q

What is Cranial Nerve VIII, and what does it do?

A

The Vestibiococchlear Nerve, responsible for sounds and balance.

136
Q

What is Cranial Nerve IX, and what does it do?

A

The Glossopharyngeal Nerve, a mixed nerve responsible for taste.

137
Q

What is Cranial Nerve X, and what does it do? VERY IMPORTANT

A

The Vagus Nerve, responsible for involuntary nervous system and commands unconscious body procedures, such as keeping the heart rate constant and controlling food digestion. The vagus, which is the longest of all cranial nerves.

138
Q

What is Cranial Nerve XI, and what does it do?

A

The accessory nerve is a cranial nerve that controls the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

139
Q

What is Cranial Nerve XII, and what does it do?

A

The Hypoglossal Nerve, responsible for innervating the muscles of the toung.

140
Q

What are the four cranial nerves that contain parasympathetic nerve fibers?

A

Oculomotor (III), Facial (VIII), Glossopharyngeal (IX), Vagus (X)

Pneumonic: Olivers face glows vaguely

141
Q

What is cerebrospinal fluid, where does it come from, and what does it do?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid, CSF, is found around the Central nervous system, CNS, that bathes the brain and spinal cord with micro nutrients. It is mostly secreted and reabsorb in the walls of the brains ventricles. Networks of capillaries called choroid plexus.

142
Q

What are the four ventricles in the brain?

A

Two lateral ventricles, the third ventricle, and the fourth ventricle.

143
Q

What is the choroid epithelium?

A

Is a simple epithelium (one cell layer thick) tissue that will allow certain micro nutrients to enter the brain.

144
Q

Overproduction of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain can do what?

A

It can cause strokes, seizures, fainting spells, and death in extreme circumstances. To alleviate the pressure a stunt is added in the skull to allow the excess fluid to drain.

145
Q

What are the three components of the brainstem?

A

Pons-
Mid Brain-
Medulla oblongata-

146
Q

All information entering and exiting the brain, and many of the Cranial Nerves must pass through what structure?

A

The brainstem.

147
Q

What is the bulb of reticular formation?

A

Controls many of the homeostatic activities that are essential for maintaining life such as respiratory and heart rates, vasodilation and constriction, and the vomiting center. This part of the brain is ruse to diagnose brain death.

148
Q

What is the cerebellum?

A

The second largest part of the brain in the posterior section of the brain. Composed if two hemispheres, called cerebellar hemisphere’s, and communicate through the vermis. Important in gait balance, part of the limbic system, short-term memory, back ability to focus, attention, scheduling and order, and pattern recognition.

149
Q

What is the forebrain?

A

The cerebrum, the largest portion of the brain, made of hemispheres and is divided by the longitudinal fisher.

150
Q

What is the basal ganglia in the brain?

A

Special names. The chordate nucleus, cloustrum, and two others. Important in controlling skeletal muscle.

151
Q

What is the function of cortical nuclei?

A

To assist in normal motor output upon skeletal muscles.

152
Q

What is the prefrontal cortex?

A

Responsible for decision making, what is right and what is wrong. Develops up until around 21 years of age. Represses the limbic system.

153
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

The ancient brain, responsible for survival instincts.

154
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

Composed of many nuclei, and acts as a modulating center that sends sensory signals to the right portion of the brain for interpretation. Motor signals also passed through the thalamus to be sent to the right area of the body.

155
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

Multi nuclei, functions include neuroendocrine axis, temperature regulation, hunger, water balance (produces ADH), sleep cycle, integrates with autonomic nervous system for heart rate, gland secretion, smooth muscle contraction, studies show this region also influences sexual preference. When in doubt on what structure in the brain does what, always say hypothalamus you are most likely to be correct.

156
Q

What hormones can fat cells produce?

A

Lepton, resistin,

157
Q

What is the Epithalamus?

A

The pineal gland, interaction of the hypothalamus with the light dark cycle.

158
Q

What are rods?

A

Photo receptors in the eyes that detect shades and shadows.

159
Q

What are cones?

A

Photoreceptors in the eyes that detect colors.

160
Q

The pineal gland regulates light and dark cycles with melatonin and serotonin. During the day which is high and which is low?

A

Serotonin is high and melatonin is low.

161
Q

The pineal gland regulates light and dark cycles with melatonin and serotonin. During the night which is high and which is low?

A

Melatonin is high while serotonin is low.

162
Q

What is the light and dark cycle called?

A

circadian rhythm

163
Q

During dark cycles, what is serotonin converted into?

A

Melatonin.

164
Q

What does the enzyme NAT do?

A

Convert serotonin two melatonin in the dark. Melenopsin, A protein in the eye, alerts NAT when there is/isn’t light.

165
Q

Melatonin is pleiotropic, what does it inhibit?

A

GNRH and LH

166
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

A

A selectively permeable structure in the brain where capillaries have both anatomical and physiological attributes to protect the delicate neurons in the brain.

167
Q

What anatomical features contribute to the blood brain barrier?

A

Endothelial cells with tight junctions where material cannot pass through the spaces in between the endothelial cells. Glial cells reenforce tight junctions, typically the astrocytes.

168
Q

What physiological attributes are found in the blood brain barrier?

A

Carrier proteins

169
Q

Why does the medella not have a blood brain barrier?

A

Because it is where the vomiting center is located, devolving center will detect harmful substances that would not be able to pass the blood brain barrier. Protective mechanism.

170
Q

What immune like cell is in the brain?

A

Microglia, phagocitic.

171
Q

What is the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

Nervous system structures, nerves, neurons, receptors, ganglia, outside the central nervous system.

172
Q

What are the different divisions of the peripheral nervous system (PNS)?

A

Afferent division- sensory fibers

Efferent division- motor fibers (Somatic, Autonomic, and Enteric meaning stomach)

173
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system control?

A

Glands secretion, heart rate, respiratory rate.

174
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

The sympathetic and parasympathetic.

175
Q

Sympathetic fibers do what to heart rate?

A

Increases the force of contraction.

176
Q

What does parasympathetic nerves do to the heart?

A

Slows heart rate, and reduces the force of contraction.

177
Q

What does the parasympathetic nervous systems do to the gut?

A

Speeds up digestion.

178
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous systems do to the gut?

A

Slows down digestion.

179
Q

The sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system have _______________ effects on organ.

180
Q

Name the different types of neurotransmitters.

A

ACH, monoamines, NO, Endocannibanoids, ATP, peptides.