Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIO 125 Struct. of Living Organisms > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What do tumor suppressor proteins do to cell division?

A

They inhibit it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cell division, which is the climax of the cell cycle, consists of

A

cytokineses plus mitosis or meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The G0 phase of the cell cycle is distinguished by

A

the absence of preparation for DNA synthesis Correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The mitotic spindle is made of

A

microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

You are examining the rapidly dividing cells of a fish embryo and notice a cell that seems to contain two nuclei with complete nuclear envelopes and decondensing chromosomes. The middle of the cell is pinched inward. This cell must be in

A

telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

After a single cell undergoes meiosis in a male, how many sperm cells will be produced?

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The distribution of DNA into homologous pairs of chromosomes allows

A

cells to reduce their number of chromosomes by half during meiosis Correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normal cell division requires what kind of proto-oncogenes and what kind of tumor suppressor genes.

A

activated proto oncogenes and inactivated tumor suppressor genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If exposure to sunlight causes a mutation in a single proto-oncogene in a diploid cell so that it becomes hyperactive, then

A

the cell might produce a protein that pushes it into rapid cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cancer in humans is caused by

A

both environmental and genetic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

an allele is

A

a version of a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a person has one copy of each of two different alleles for a given gene, the person is ________ for that trait.

A

heterozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following symbols correctly represents a person who has a homozygous genotype?

A

WW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Mendel’s laws were able to accurately predict the pattern of inheritance for situations in which

A

one allele completely makes another allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Each time a person has another child, the chance that the parent passes on a given allele to a child

A

is the same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A Punnett square is used to

A

to predict the outcome of a genetic cross

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An plant with the genotype Aa mates with a plant with the genotype AA. Which of the following is true?

A

half of the offspring will be Aa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Two parents have ABO blood group genotypes of IAi and IAIB. Which of the following blood types could NOT belong to one of their children?

A

O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

One of the first medical tests a newborn receives determines if the child has phenylketonuria (PKU). PKU is the result of a mutation in a single gene that causes mental retardation and a host of other phenotypes (light hair and skin color, eczema, and a “mousy” smell). By detecting PKU early, doctors are able to reduce the effect of this condition with a modified diet. PKU is an example of

A

pleiotropy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Two genes control fur color in Labrador retrievers. The first gene determines whether the pigment to be deposited in the hair will be black or brown. The second gene determines whether the pigments are put into the dog’s hair at all. A dog homozygous for the recessive allele of this second gene will be yellow because no pigment is deposited in its fur. This is an example of

A

epistatsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chromosomes that are NOT involved in determining gender are known as

A

autosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do genes on autosomes play a role in sex determination?

A

The SRY gene product has an effect on autosomal genes Correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Inheritance is said to be both stable and variable because

A

most of the time, genetic material is transferred with complete accuracy to the next generation while still creating unique individuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following statements about crossing-over is true?

A

It disrupts the linkage between genes

25
Q

Genes that are located on opposite ends of the same chromosome are

A

affected by crossing-over so frequently that they may appear to undergo independent assortment

26
Q

Which of the following genetic changes would NOT be heritable?

A

a mutation in a skin cell

27
Q

An allele that appears to “skip generations” is most likely=

A

recessive

28
Q

Most inherited human disorders are the result of

A

recessive mutations of genes located on autosomes

29
Q

A man is a carrier for a recessive disease allele. A woman is not a carrier and does not have the disease. The couple has four children and

A

none of the children have the disease

30
Q

Even though it is deadly, the Huntington disease allele can remain in the population, because

A

people with the disorder often live long enough to reproduce

31
Q

A woman who is a carrier for a recessive X-linked disorder has children with a man who does not have the disease. Which of the following is true of the couple’s children?

A

Their sons have a 50 percent chance of having the disorder

32
Q

During cell division, a piece of a chromosome breaks away and is added to the end of its homologue. The homologue with the addition is an example of

A

duplication

33
Q

An XX individual develops as a male. Which of the following statements offers the most likely explanation?

A

A piece of a Y chromosome has become attached to one of the X chromosomes

34
Q

The tendency to develop diseases, such as cancer and heart disease, is

A

the result of the interaction of multiple genes and environmental factors

35
Q

Which of the following would NOT be a required biological property of genetic material?

A

It must exist in paired copies

36
Q

All cells in an organism contain a full copy of that organism’s DNA. Your ears do NOT produce digestive enzymes because

A

different genes are expressed in different parts of an organism

37
Q

Estrogen is a hormone that binds to a receptor on the surface of some cells. This binding causes regulatory molecules in the nucleus to interact with a segment of DNA that precedes some genes. This interaction activates the gene and causes gene expression. The segment of DNA that the regulatory molecules bind to is called

A

promoter

38
Q

the hydrogen bonds in DNA hold together what?

A

The bases on one strand of DNA are held to the bases on the other strand

39
Q

What part of a nucleotide accounts for the genetic variation between individuals?

A

base

40
Q

Assume a certain molecule of DNA is composed of exactly 22 percent adenine. How much cytosine would you expect to find in this molecule?

A

28 percent

41
Q

To start DNA replication, the bonds holding the strands together are broken, and the molecule begins to unwind. Which of the following statements best summarizes what happens next?

A

Each old strand acts as a template for a new strand

42
Q

A rapidly dividing cell is exposed to a chemical that converts the bond that forms between adenine and thymine to a covalent bond. Which of the following is most likely to occur?

A

DNA replication would not occur because the two nucleotide strands that make up the DNA molecule would not be able to separate

43
Q

Benzopyrene is a compound found in cigarettes that binds to the base guanine in DNA. This distorts the DNA double helix and causes changes in DNA sequence. Based on this information, benzopyrene is a

A

mutagen

44
Q

A mistake during which of the following processes would have the most long-lasting effects on an organism and its offspring?

A

a replication in germline cells

45
Q

Which of the following must occur for a mismatch error to be repaired?

A

DNA repair proteins identify damaged DNA

46
Q

Most eukaryotic DNA is

A

noncoding

47
Q

A segment of DNA is present in a gene, is transcribed, but is not used in translation. This segment of DNA is a(an)

A

intron

48
Q

If their food source changes from lactose to arabinose, bacteria turn off their genes for lactose enzymes and turn on their genes for arabinose enzymes. Why don’t bacteria express the genes for both lactose and arabinose enzymes all the time?

A

To prevent the waste of energy and resources on unneeded protein production

49
Q

The enzymes involved in ATP synthesis in the mitochondria are likely to be encoded by ________ genes

A

housekeeping

50
Q

Which of the following might lead to a genome copy number variant in which the individual has only one copy of a gene instead of the normal two copies?

A

chromosomal deletion

51
Q

Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelles and thus do not have nuclei; therefore

A

prokaryotic transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm

52
Q

Which of the following does NOT take place in the nucleus?

A

translation

53
Q

The key enzyme used during transcription is

A

RNA Polymerase

54
Q

During RNA splicing

A

introns are removed from RNA, and the remaining exons are connected to form a mature mRNA

55
Q

Which of the following is NOT a feature of the genetic code?

A

Every individual has a different genetic code

56
Q

Which molecules are involved in translation?

A

mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA

57
Q

If a particular segment of DNA has the base sequence TAC, what will be the base sequence of the anticodon of the tRNA that carries the amino acid encoded by that stretch of DNA?

A

UAC

58
Q

It is possible for a mutation to occur and yet not alter the end product of translation if

A

the new codon encodes the same amino acid

59
Q

When one base is inserted in the DNA sequence of a gene, the result is a(n) ________ mutation

A

frameshift

BIO 125 Struct. of Living Organisms (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions