Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which are the 2 major genera that produce endospores?

A

Bacillis and Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Genera?

Obligate anaerobe living in the GI tract of
animals
-Tetanus, Gas Gangrene, Botulism

A

Clostridium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Genera?

  • Obligate aerobe living in the soil
  • Anthrax
  • Forms calmodulin dependent adenylate cyclase exotoxin known as edema factor along with lethal factor
  • Increase cAMP, responsible for sever edema
A

Bacillis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Resistance to adverse conditions is due to the endospore’s

A

Dipicolinic acid, a calcium ion chelator only found in spores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

produces tetanosplasmin
causative agent of tetanus, disease
characterized by painful muscular spasms
that lead to respiratory failure

A

C. tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

produces gas in tissues in
gangrene, necrotic damage, specific to
muscle tissue, enter through significant
skin damage

A

Gas Gangrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

is found most often among
those who inject street drugs or through
ingestion of food with the spores

A

Botulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

cause of infectious diarrhea due to spore forming bacteria, this can happen when patient is under antibiotics that destroy the normal flora

A

Difficile Colitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe the composition of a spore?

A

o Dipocolinic acid is incorporated into the endospore

o Spore coat composed of keratin like protein forms around the cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most common microorganism in our stool:

A

Gm(-) P. Aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

leading cause of UTI

A

Gm(-) E. Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Frequently found in root canal treated teeth 30%-90% of cases

A

Gm (+) E. Faecalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Associated with perforation of the intestinal wall, is an important cause of peritonitis

A

B. Fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

inflammation of the thin tissue that lines the inner wall of the abdomen and covers most of the abdomen organs

A

Peritonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which type of bacteria has Techoic acid?

A

Gm(+) Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which type of bacteria has LPS

A

Gm(-) Bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Responsible for endotoxic fever and shock

A

Lipid A (endotoxin) released in the
blood stream when Gram negatives
are lysed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LPS Composed of:

A
  1. Outer carb chain 1-50
    oligosaccharides, O-specific side chain
  2. Center core polysaccharide
  3. Lipid A (endotoxin)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

This type of bacteria has a Periplasmic space filled with beta lactamase to digest beta lactam drugs, has
outer membrane lipid bilayer containing
Lipopolysaccharide (LPS)

A

Gram Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The 4 possible stains that are involved in a gram stain

A

 Pour crystal violet stain (blue dye)
 Pour Iodine solution (Iodine forms a complex with the crystal violet)
 Wash off with Acetone/Alcohol
 Counterstain with Safranin (red)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What colors do Gm(+/-) Stain?

A

Gm (+) Blueish Purple

Gm (-) Orangish/pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Enterotoxins: Exotoxin that act on GI tract to cause diarrhea by inhibiting NaCl resorption, activate NaCl secretion and kill intestinal epithelial cells, osmotic pull of fluid into the intestines.

Also responsible for Infectious diarrhea, bacteria colonize and bind to GI tract, continuously releasing their
enterotoxins

A

V. Cholerae, gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Responsible for Clenched fist injuries. Part of normal human flora in the mouth and upper respiratory tract.

A

Eikenella Corrodens, gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Caused by lipid A endotoxin of gram negative bacteria

A

Septic Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most common UTI causing bacteria. Flagella play a role in the pathogenesis by propelling the bacteria up the urethra into the bladder.

A

E.Coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Responsible for Endocarditis on prosthetic heart valves. Leading cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis. Organisms can enter the bloodstream at the time of dental surgery and attach to damaged heart valves.

A

Viridans Strept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  • Polysaccharide that is secreted by many bacteria
  • Covers the surface and allows the bacteria to adhere firmly to various structures
  • Mediates Strept Mutans to surface of teeth
  • Important role in formation of dental plaque/caries
A

Glycocalyx (slime layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the most dominant normal flora in the vagina?

A

lactobacillus species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the most dominant normal flora in the oral cavity

A

Viridans Strept

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A member of viridans group is found in large numbers in dental plaque, precursor of
dental caries

A

Strept mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What characteristic immune cell for calling out different types of cytokine, qb cell in cascades of cytokines Interleukin -1 and TNF-alpha

A

macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  • Protein produced by T
    lymphocytes and Natural Killer Cells
  • Potent stimulus for macrophage activation and cytokine production
  • Helps in viral killing
A

Interferon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  • Direct cell migration of
    inflammatory cells at sites of tissue injury
  • stimulate germinal centers of lymph nodes (B cells) recruitment of lymphoblasts to B cell lymphocytes
  • Inflammatory: produced in
    response to IL1 and TNF and interferon, recruits leukocytes during
A

Chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  • Produced by macrophages

- Regulation of immune responses, inflammatory responses and hematopoiesis

A

Interleukins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T cells (cell-mediated immunity) eliminate antigens by releasing toxic substances (________) and activating other cells (_____________)

A

lymphokines

neuts, monocytes, macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What’s the predominant immunoglobulin/antibody in the mucociliary escalator?

A

Lining epithelium of mucous membranes contains cilia and mucus with secretory IgA that propels
organisms to either be coughed or sneezed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Name the Type of inflammation and example

  • Mild inflammation
  • Clear fluid serum
  • Herpes (vesicles filled withserum)
  • Second degree burns
A

Serous Inflammation

Ex. 2nd degree burns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Describe Fibrinous Inflammation and name it’s best example

A
  • Exudate rich in fibrin
  • Severe inflammation
  • Does not resolve easily
  • Macrophages invade to lyse fibrin
  • Blood vessels proliferate
  • “organization” of blood vessels
  • Macrophages stimulate fibroblasts to cause even more adhesion

Best Eg… FIBRINOUS PERICARDITIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Describe Granulomatous Inflammation

A
  • Special form of chronic inflammation
  • Seen in TB
  • Nodules, granuloma, encased to wall off infection
  • Fibrosis caused by chronic inflammation effects organ function due to scarring
40
Q

Hallmark cell of acute inflammation?

A

Neutrophils, sudden onset and short duration

41
Q

Hallmark cell of chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages, monocytes, lymphocytes, plasma cells

42
Q

What makes up granulation tissue?

A

Vascularized connective tissue that is rich in macrophages, myofibroblast, angioblast, fibroblast is called granulation tissue

43
Q

What are the 3 cells responsible for wound healing

A

Myofibroblasts
Angioblasts
Fibroblasts

44
Q

Myofibroblasts Function

A

Shows up within first few days of healing. Enable contraction, holding the margins of tissue within close approximation, and lays down collagen.

45
Q

Angioblasts Function

A

 Precursors of blood vessels that proliferate like sprouts from several small blood vessels at the
margins of the wound (5th-6th day)
 Collagen is alive and needs to be bathed with nutrients which is why we have blood in the
wound

46
Q

Fibroblasts Function

A

 Cells that produce most of the ECM

Produce: Fibronectin, and Collagen

47
Q

Importance of Collagen in wound healing…

A

 Type III initially that is immature or young laid down by fibroblasts
 Type I collagen is mature, several weeks later, most mature collagen in wound healing, scar tissue

48
Q

What is the Significance of Fibronectin in regards to wound healing?

A

 important in providing the tensile strength to connective tissue matrix
 Also has the ability to glue other substances and cells together

49
Q

The most important cells that are involved in wound healing are the…

A

Leukocytes, Macrophages, ConnectiveTissue Cells and Epithelial Cells

50
Q

What are Keloids?

A

excess scar formation of collagen type III, never matures to type I

51
Q

What could prevent a wound from healing?

A
  1. The type of tissue
  2. Infection
  3. Mechanical Factors
  4. Age
  5. Circulatory status: ischemic issues, common in diabetics (microangiopathy) delays wound healing
  6. Nutritional and metabolic factors
52
Q

In acute inflammation, touching hot stove, what 2 tissues/cells responsible for surface adhesion molecules anchoring the neutrophils to the inner column of the capillary, sticky protrusions?

A

Leukocytes and Endothelial cells

53
Q

During inflammation, the surface components of leukocytes and endothelial cells are activated by…

A

Soluble mediators of inflammation or (interleukins)

54
Q

What cells do margination and pavementing?

A

White blood cell’s marginate and become attached to the edge of endothelium ( becoming leukocytes) a phenomenon called “pavementing”

55
Q

Name the form of ulcerative inflammation that is combined with fibrinopurulent exudation, and an example of a disease.

A

Pseudomembranous Inflammation

Eg. Clostridium difficile - causes psuedomembranous colitis

56
Q

What organism is responsible for Pseudomembranous Inflammation?

A

Clostridium Difficile Colitis: infectious diarrhea due to a type spore forming bacteria

57
Q

Continuously dividing cells that divide

throughout the entire lifespan

A

Labile Cells

58
Q

Cells that do not divide regularly, but can be stimulated to divide if necessary eg.. Parenchymal organs, Liver/kidney

A

Stable Cells and/or Quiescent Cells

59
Q

Non-dividing cells, not have capacity to

proliferate under any circumstances

A

Permanent cells

60
Q

What’s a very common reason for a purulent inflammation? Give examples of purulent/supparative
inflammation.

A

o Typically caused by pus-forming bacteria, such as staph/strept
o Viscous yellow fluid composed of dead dying neutrophils/PMN’s and necrotic tissue debris
o Localized collection of pus with an organ or tissue is called an abscess
o TB, acute cerebral abscesses, peritonitis, meningitis, crohns disease

61
Q

What cells are involved in phagocytosis, what is the process, and how does it work?

A

o Cells arrive at site of inflammation by chemotaxis, attach to antigen by recognition or by
complement/antibodies opsonization
o Phagocyte cell surface invagination phagosome
o Phagosome fuses with granules/lysosomes of the cell phagolysosome
o Antigen/microbe destruction

62
Q

What is Fibrosis?

A

 The heart uses this to repair damage
 Formation of excess fibrous connective tissue in an organ or tissue in reparative or reactive process
 In response to injury this is called scarring
 Excess deposition of fibrous tissue, collagen
 Fibroblasts are called to lay down collagen
 Occurs everywhere except CNS/Brain/Neurons

63
Q

What is Gliosis?

A

 Protein that is laid down by certain cells in the brain by astrocytes
 “astrogliosis”, glial cells response to damage to CNS, glial scar
 Fibrous scarring within the brain

64
Q

The increased permeability of the vessel
walls of the capillaries and venules lasts for
several hours to several days and is usually
accompanied by leakage of fluid from the
vessels into the interstitial spaces.

A

Transudation

65
Q

Contains much more protein than a Transudation, and contains inflammatory cells that emigrate across the vascular wall.

A

Exudate

66
Q

When wound edges are brought together (sutured/glued) so that they are adjacent to each other. This minimizes scarring.
Most surgical wounds heal by this intention. The Surgeon will directs closure of the wound by approximating wound edges

A

Primary Intention:

67
Q

o The wound is allowed to granulate
o Granulation results in a broader scar
o Healing process can be slow due to presence of drainage from infection
o Prolonged healing
o Characteristic of infected wounds o Wound contraction cannot be accomplished by myofibroblasts

A

Secondary Intention:

68
Q

Surgical complication in which wound ruptures along surgical suture, insufficient collagen strength

A

Wound dehiscence

69
Q

What is considered leukocytosis clinically, number wise?

A

o Normal blood has less than 10,000 leukocytes/wbc’s

o When numbers > 12-15,000 this is leukocytosis and in acute inflammation, neutrophils dominate

70
Q

When an organized collection of macrophages attempts to wall off a substances that it perceives as foreign but is unable to eliminate.

A

Granuloma

71
Q

Diseases that result in granulomas and cause fever…

A

 TB
 Crohn’s Disease
 Sarcoidosis
 Giant Cell Arteritis

72
Q

What are the 3 components of lps,

A
  1. O-specific antigen made of 1-50 oligosaccharide
  2. Center core polysaccharide
  3. Lipid A (endotoxin)(toxic fatty acid) responsible for endotoxic fever and shock
73
Q

Of the Components of lps, which is considered the most toxic component?

A

Lipid A (endotoxin)(toxic fatty acid) responsible for endotoxic fever and shock
 Recruits A LOT OF CYTOKINES
 Interleukins and TNF build up is bad for our blood vessels&raquo_space;> massive vasodilation, hypotension,
reduces tissue perfusion tissue hypoxia sepsis

74
Q

What class of drugs commonly cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Adverse reaction to neuroleptic or anti-psychotic drugs like Thorazine, Haldol, Reglan, inhibits dopamine receptors

phenothiazines, haloperiodol, metoclopramide

75
Q

What is Malignant Hyperthermia?

A

Autosomal dominant abnormality of skeletal muscle SR releasing calcium affecting hypothalamic set point of temperature after administering anesthesia (halothane, succinylcholine)

76
Q

Cell walls are common to all Bacteria except…

A

Mycoplasma

77
Q

Peptidoglycan layer is much thicker in…

A

Gram positive bacteria

78
Q

Polysaccharide fibers that act as surface antigen for serologic ID in only Gram Positive bacteria

A

Teichoic acid

79
Q

Gram+ does NOT have___________, but might have a___________ space

A

beta-lactamases

periplasmic

80
Q

is a concentrated gel-like matrix in the space between the inner cytoplasmic membrane and the bacterial outer membrane

A

periplasmic space

81
Q

Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is one of the most common infectious diseases addressed by clinicians. What causes it?

A

St. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, and M. catarrhalis

82
Q

is the #1 cause of sepsis and UTIs (also causes neonatal

meningitis

A

“Good o’l” e. Coli

83
Q

A gram (+) bacteria, that is commensal on the skin, but is responsible for majority of infection from heart valve?

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis keeps staph aureus in check. If the this balance ins disrupted heart valves may be affected

84
Q

is an enzyme that kills bacteria by disrupting cell walls

A

lysozyme

85
Q

help destroy microbes when engulfed into the cell

A

peroxidases

86
Q

Sequesters iron from microorganisms. Iron essential for microbial growth. This is Found in saliva, some phagocytes, blood and tissue fluids.

A

Lactoferrin

87
Q

– Antimicrobial peptides inserted into microbial
membrane
– Found on mucous membranes and in phagocytes

A

defensins

88
Q

When a Phagocyte is drawn to bacterial wall sugars, or By complement/antibodies which is bound to pathogen and acts like an Opsonin (tasty) by coating bacteria to enhance efficiency of phagocytic process for better destruction

A

chemotaxis

89
Q

loss of epithelial lining due to inflammation of body surfaces or mucosa of hollow organs (e.g.. Stomach, intestines)

A

Ulcerative inflammation producing an Ulceration

90
Q

Defect involving epithelium

A

Ulcerative inflammation producing an Ulcer

Eg. Peptic (gastric) ulcer

91
Q

Inflammations dominated by pus formation are

called…

A

purulent or suppurative inflammations.

92
Q

The 2 most common opsonins

A

C3b and and the Fc portion of immunoglobulin (IgG or IgM)

93
Q

Which organism causes pseudomembranous colitis

A

Clostridium difficile

C. Diff

94
Q

3 body systems account for 80% of infections/fevers with an unknown cause.

A

respiratory, urinary, skin + soft tissue

95
Q

Define Toll-like receptors (TLRs) and role in inflammation

A

Microbial stimulation of these receptors leads to synthesis/secretion of these endogenous cytokines

Initiates inflammatory response → further recruitment of blood infection fighters (PMNs)

96
Q

act on the thermoregulator centers in the Hypothalamus, which serves as a thermostat.

A

Substances called
Interleukin-I and Tumor Necrosis Factor
(TNF)