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Gross Anatomy 2 (SW) > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What forms the orbital roof?

82

A

Orbital process/plate of the frontal bone.

Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone.

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2
Q

What forms the orbital floor?

pg 82

A

Orbital process of the maxilla.
Zygomatic bone.
Orbital process of palatine bones (small part of floor; near apex).

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3
Q

What bones form the medial wall of the orbit?

82

A

Frontal process of the maxilla.
Lacrimal bone.
Orbital process of the ethmoid bone.

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4
Q

What bones from the lateral wall of the orbit?

82

A

Zygomatic bone.

Greater wing of sphenoid.

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5
Q

What is the optic canal associated with and what are it’s contents?

(84)

A

Associated with the lesser wing of the sphenoid.

Contains CN II and opthalmic a.

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6
Q

What borders the superior orbital fissure and what does it contain?

(84)

A

Bordered by the lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid.

Contains CN III, IV, V1, VI, and superior opthalmic n.

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7
Q

What are the contents of the inferior orbital fissure?

A

Infraorbital NAV.

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8
Q

What are the contents of the supraorbital foramen?

A

Supraorbital NAV

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9
Q

What are the contents of the infraorbital foramen and where does it lead to?

(84)

A

Contains the infraorbital NAV.

Leads to the floor of the orbit where it is continuous with the infraorbital groove/sulcus.

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10
Q

Where is the ethmoidal foramina located and what does it connect to?

(84)

A

Located on the medial wall of the orbit.

Connects to the ethmoid air cells.

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11
Q

What does the floor of the orbit separate?

84

A

Separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus.

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12
Q

Define palpebra, cilia, and supercilia.

(85)

A 
Palpebra = eyelids.
Cilia = eyelashes. 
Supercilia = eyebrows.
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13
Q

What does the medial caruncle include?

85

A 
Lacrimal caruncle (fleshy prominence that includes sweat and sebaceous glands. 
Lacrimal puncta
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14
Q

What is the lacrimal puncta?

85

A

Pinhole sized opening at the lacrimal papilla that permits draining of lacrimal fluid from the cornea. Fleshy bump on superior and inferior palpebrae.

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15
Q

What helps to maintain the shape of the eyelids?

85

A

Tarsal plates.

Dense fibrous CT deep to the skin and muscle

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16
Q

What’s the function of tarsal glands?

85

A

Secretions to spread along margins of the eyelids to lubricate margins and help increase surface tension along margins => lacrimal fluid to stay on cornea.

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17
Q

What are some of the features of tarsal glands?

85

A

Embedded in tarsal plates.*
Can be seen if the eyelids are inverted.
Modified sebaceous glands (lipid like secretions).*
Open up along the margins of the eyelids.

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18
Q

What are the 2 types of ciliary glands?

86

A

Glands of moll: Small, modified sweat glands.

Glands of zeis: small modified sebaceous glands.

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19
Q

What is a sty?
Chalazion?

(86)

A 
Sty= hordeolum; result of an infected gland of the eyelid. 
Chalazion= plugged gland; cyst-like.
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20
Q

What are the 2 portions of the conjunctive?

86

A

Palpebral: covers the internal surface of the eyelids.
Bulbar: reflects onto the “bulb”/eyeball => continuous with the outer cornea.

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21
Q

What are the conjunctiva fornices?

86

A

Where the palpebral conjunctiva meets the bulbar conjunctiva.
(Recesses of the conjunctiva).

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22
Q

What does the lacrimal gland secrete?

87

A 
Lacrimal fluid (serous/watery fluid) through a series of ducts onto the cornea. 
(Lacrimal fluid circulates across the corneal surface and across the inner eyelids to moisten, clean, lubricate, and protect).
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23
Q

What’s the role of the parasympathetic fibers of the lacrimal gland?

(87)

A

Control lacrimation (secretomotor).

  • Pregang.= CN VII (greater petrosel n).
  • Postgang.= Associated with the sphenopalatine ganglion.
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24
Q

What’s the role of the sympathetic fivers of the lacrimal gland?

(87)

A

To arteries of the gland (vasomotor innervation).

-Postgang. are associated with the superior cervical ganglion of the sympathetic chain.

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25
Q

When blinking, where is the lacrimal fluid being distributed towards?

(88)

A

Medial canthus.

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26
Q

What is the route for the nasolacrimal conducting system?

88

A

Lacrimal fluid is secreted by the lacrimal gland through ducts onto the lateral eyeball and then distributes medially to:
–> lacrimal puncta –> lacrimal canaliculi –> lacrimal sac/bulb –> nasolacrimal duct –> opens into the inferior meatus of the nasal cavity.

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27
Q

What layer of cranial dura forms the periosteal layer lining the orbit and encapsulates all orbital structures?

(88)

A

Periorbita.

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28
Q

What layer of the cranial dura forms the outer meningeal layer of the optic nerve (CN II)?

(88)

A

Orbital dura.

follows the optic n to the posterior eyeball where it becomes continuous with the sclera of the eyeball

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29
Q

What are the 2 functions of the orbital fat?

88

A

Helps maintain orientation of orbital structures.

Helps form soft socket for eyeball.

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30
Q

What 3 things help to form a “socket” for the eyeball?

88

A 
Orbital Fat. 
Tenons Capsule (layer of fascia on ant. edge of the orbital fat; posterior to eyeball). 
Episcleral Space ("space" b/w sclera and the tenons capsule).
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31
Q

What are the 3 adductors of the eye?

93

A

Medial rectus.
Superior rectus.
Inferior rectus.

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32
Q

What are the 3 abductors of the eye?

93

A

Inferior oblique.
Superior oblique.
Lateral rectus.

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33
Q

What are the 2 elevators of the eye?

93

A

Inferior oblique.

Superior rectus.

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34
Q

What are the 2 depressors of the eye?

93

A

Superior oblique.

Inferior rectus.

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35
Q

What are the 4 rotators of the eye?

93

A

Superior oblique.
Inferior oblique.
Superior rectus.
Inferior rectus.

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36
Q

What are the 2 medial rotators of the eye?

93

A

Superior rectus.

Superior oblique.

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37
Q

What are the 2 lateral rotators of the eye?

93

A

Inferior rectus.

Inferior oblique.

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38
Q

Of the 7 extrinsic muscles of the eyeball, how many of them move the eye?

A

6 (4 recti, 2 oblique).

The 7th elevates the upper eyelid

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39
Q

What is the common origination for all the rectus muscles of the eye?

(90)

A 
Anulus tendinous (aka common tendon of zinn).
(Ring-like tendon located at the apex of the orbit near the optic canal and the superior orbital fissure).
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40
Q

T/F: All of the rectus muscles of the eye insert on their correlating aspect of the sclera and are innervated by CN III.

(90)

A

False.
The lateral rectus is the only rectus eye muscle that’s not innervated by CN III.
The lateral rectus is innervated by CN VI (abducens n).

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41
Q

What 2 eye muscles have a corresponding trochlea?

92

A 
Superior oblique (Innervated by CN IV).
Inferior oblique (Innervated by CN III).
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42
Q

Which 2 eye muscles, if paralyzed, would have the biggest effect?

(94)

A

Medial and lateral recti mm.

Their movements are relatively pure and they are very dominant mm for moving the eye in the horizontal plane.

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43
Q

What are the 2 types of movement of the eyes?

94

A 
Conjugate (parallel movements).
Vergence movements (divergence and convergence).
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44
Q

What is the innervation and action of the levator palpebra superioris?

(94)

A

Innervated by CN III.
Elevates the superior eyelid/palpebra.
(If paralyzed the eyelid will droop = ptosis of upper eyelid).

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45
Q

What are the muscles of the eyelids and what kind of muscle are they?

(94)

A 
Tarsal muscles (superior and inferior).
Smooth muscle.
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46
Q

What’s the innervation and action of the tarsal muscles?

94

A

Innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibers.
They assist in elevating the superior palpebrum and depressing the inferior palpebrum.
(Paralysis => subtle narrowed palpebral fissure).

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47
Q

What is the ophthalmic artery a branch of and where does it enter the orbit?

(95)

A

It’s a branch of the internal carotid a.

Enters the orbit through the optic canal.

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48
Q

Which artery enters the optic nerve and travels to the eyeball, and supplies the inner retina?

(95)

A

Central artery.

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49
Q

Which artery supplies the lateral orbit, lacrimal gland, lateral eyelids, and some of the skin of the lateral orbit?

(96)

A

Lacrimal artery.

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50
Q

Which artery is a branch of the lacrimal artery and goes to the posterior aspect of the eyeball?

(96)

A

Posterior ciliary arteries.

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51
Q

Which artery is a branch of the lacrimal artery and goes to the anterior aspect of the eyeball?

(96)

A

Anterior ciliary arteries.

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52
Q

Which 2 arteries supply blood to the eyeball (including outer retina) and supplies blood to the capillary plexus in the choroid layer?

(96)

A

Posterior and anterior ciliary arteries.

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53
Q

What artery passes through the supraorbital foramen and supplies the elements of the superior orbit, cutaneous elements of the upper eyelid and skin of the forehead.

(96)

A

Supraorbital artery.

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54
Q

What arteries supply the ethmoid air cells, frontal sinuses, and part of the nasal cavity?

(96)

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries.

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55
Q

What artery is the terminal branch of the ophthalmic artery and supplies the top bridge of the nose and medial forehead?

(96)

A

Supratrochlear artery.

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56
Q

What is the wall of the eyeball supplied by?

96

A

Central and ciliary arteries.

Both supply the retina

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57
Q

What are the 4 veins of the orbit?

97

A

Superior ophthalmic vv (supraorbital vv => cavernous sinus).
Inferior ophthalmic vv (inferior orbit => cavernous sinus/sup. ophthalmic v).
Central vv (inner retina => ophthalmic vv, or cavernous sinus).
Vortex vv (outer layers of eyeball => ophthalmic vv).

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58
Q

What does the ophthalmic nerve enter the orbit through?

98

A

Superior orbital fissure.

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59
Q

What are the 3 branches of the ophthalmic nerve?

98

A 
Frontal n (largest).
Lacrimal n.
Nasocilliary n (smallest).
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60
Q

What part of the eyeball does the frontal nerve pass over and what 2 branches does it have?

(99)

A

Passes over superior eyeball.
Supraorbital n.
Supratrochlear n.

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61
Q

Where does the nasociliary n travel and what are its 4 branches?

(99)

A 
Travels along medial aspect of the orbit.
Long ciliary n.
Ethmoidal nn (ant & post).
Infratrochlear n.
Nasociliary communicating rami.
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62
Q

Where does the lacrimal nerve travel to?

100

A

Travels towards the lacrimal gland along the lateral orbital wall.

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63
Q

The lacrimal nerve has hitchhikers that are post ganglionic parasympathetic fibers that originate from what ganglion?

(100)

A

Sphenopalatine ganglion.

Provide secretomotor innervation to the lacrimal gland

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64
Q

What 2 elements does the outer tunic consist of?

101

A

Sclera (whitish color; poorly vascularized).

Cornea (fairly transparent; refractive str of eyeball; avascular).

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65
Q

What are the 3 layers of the cornea?

101

A

Anterior (stratified squamous epithelium continuous with bulbar conjunctiva).
Middle (90% of cornea; CT).
Inner (simple squamous epithelium/endothelium).

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66
Q

Diffusion for nutrients and fluid to the cornea come from what?

(101)

A

Aqueous humor.

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67
Q

Which tunic is known as the vascular layer?

102

A

Middle tunic.

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68
Q

What 3 parts does the middle tunic consist of?

102

A

Choroid (posterior element).
Iris (anterior part).
Ciliary body (b/w choroid and iris).

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69
Q

What helps supply blood to the retina?

103

A

Dense capillary plexus supplied by ciliary arteries.

Innervated by ciliary nn

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70
Q

What part of the middle tunic contains pigmentation?

103

A

Iris.

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71
Q

What controls the amount of light falling on the retina and how?

(103)

A

Pupil.

Diameter controlled by 2 intrinsic smooth m groups w/in the iris (sphincter pupillae m and dilator pupillae m).

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72
Q

How are the fibers of the sphincter pupillae muscle oriented and what is its action?

(103)

A

Fibers oriented concentrically.

Decreases diameter of pupil.

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73
Q

How are the fibers of the dilator pupillae muscle arranged and what is its action?

(103)

A

Fibers are arranged radially.

Increases the size of the pupil.

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74
Q

Where are the 2 intrinsic smooth muscle groups that adjust the pupil located?

(103)

A

W/in the iris.

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75
Q

What are the 2 major functions of the ciliary body?

104

A

Secrete aqueous humor into the posterior chamber of the eye (lens and iris).
Suspend the lens and control the tension on the lens.

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76
Q

What are the 3 functions of the aqueous humor?

104

A

Refractive medial of eye.
Nutrients and fluid of cornea and lens.
Circulation dynamics helps to establish intraocular pressure w/in the eye which helps maintain stability of the eyeball str.

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77
Q

What is the condition of interference of circulation of the aqueous humor and what does it usually result in?

(104)

A

Glaucoma.

Usually increases intraocular pressure.

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78
Q

What controls circumferential tension on the lens?

104

A

Ciliary body and suspensory/zonular ligaments.

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79
Q

T/F: The lens is convex, transparent, and avascular.

104

A

False.

Biconvex, transparent, and avascular.

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80
Q

What happens when ciliary mm contract?

A

-> Decreased tension of ligaments
-> Increases A-P diameter/convexity of lens
=> Near vision

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81
Q

What happens when ciliary mm relax?

A

-> Increased tension of ligaments
-> Decreased A-P diameter/convexity of lens
=> Distant vision

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82
Q

What are the 2 layers of the inner tunic?

105

A

Pigmented (outermost layer of retina).

Neuronal (innermost layer of retina).

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83
Q

What are the functions of the pigmented layer?

106

A

Absorb light thru neural layer.

Support and growth factors to layer, rods, and cones.

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84
Q

What layer of the inner tunic (retina) are the rods and cones found in and what are their functions?

(106)

A

Found in neural layer of retina.
Cones: color vision and high resolution.
Rods: Peripheral vision, low light vision, low resolution vision.

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85
Q

What is the ora serrata?

106

A

Anterior serrated edge of functional part of the retina.

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86
Q

What is the blood supply of the retina?

106

A 
Central artery (supplies the inner retina).
Ciliary artery (supplies the outer retina).
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87
Q

What is the blind spot of the retina?

106

A

Area with no rods or cones.

88
Q

Where is the vitreous body/humor and what are its functions.

(107)

A 
Located w/in the bulbous oculi.
Fills 4/5 the volume of the eyeball.
Helps maintain the shape of the eyeball.
Maintains the configuration of various eyeball structures.
A refractive medium of the eye.
89
Q

Describe the general sensory innervation of the eyeball?

108

A

Via CN V1 (especially nasocilliary n).

The 2 specific branches are the long ciliary n and the communicating rami to the ciliary ganglion.

90
Q

What are the borders of the infratemporal fossa?

110

A

Anterior: Maxilla (post. part).
Medial: Lateral pterygoid plate (sphenoid bone).
Roof: Greater wing of sphenoid bone.
Lateral: Ramus of mandible.

91
Q

How does the infratemporal fossa communicate with the cranial cavity? (Through what openings)

(110)

A 
Foramen ovale (transmits V3 n from middle cranial fossa).
Foramen spinosum (transmits middle meningeal a and meningeal n from middle cranial fossa).
92
Q

How does the infratemporal fossa communicate with the orbit?

(110)

A

Inferiororbital fissure.

Transmits infraorbital a & n

93
Q

How does the infratemporal fossa communicate with the sphenopalatine fossa?

(110)

A

Pterygomaxillary fissure.

Transmits sphenopalatine a

94
Q

What are the 4 mm of mastication?
What are they innervated by?

(111)

A

Medial pterygoid, Lateral pteryoid, Masseter, Temporalis.

All are innervated by CN V (V3).

95
Q

What muscle inserts on the TMJ capsule and articular disk?
What is it’s principle action?

(111)

A

Lateral pterygoid.

Contralaterally deviates mandible.

96
Q

What are the 2 actions of the masseter m?

111

A

Elevates and protrudes the mandible.

97
Q

What are the 2 actions of the temporalis m?
What branch of V3 innervates it?

(111)

A

Elevate and retract the mandible.

Innervated by deep temporal nerve of V3.

98
Q

What is the terminal branch of the external carotid artery?

112

A

Maxillary artery.

99
Q

What does the middle meningeal artery supply?

112

A

Cranial dura and bones.

100
Q

What does the inferior alveolar artery supply?

112

A

Mandible.
Dental arteries.
Mental arteries (terminal branch).

101
Q

What artery supplies the soft tissues of the cheek?

112

A

Buccal artery.

102
Q

What does the posterior superior alveolar artery supply?

112

A

Posterior teeth of the upper jaw (molars and premolars).

103
Q

What artery supplies the anterior face, maxillary sinus, and anterior teeth of maxillae?

(112)

A

Infraorbital artery.

104
Q

Which artery passes through the pterygomaxillary fissure to enter the sphenopalatine fossa?
What are its 2 main branches?

(113)

A

Sphenopalatine artery.
2 main branches:
Nasal aa (to nasal cavity).
Palatine aa (to palate).

105
Q

Where do the veins of the infratemporal fossa primarily drain into?

(113)

A

Pterygoid plexus.

Pterygoid plexus drains into either facial or retromandibular vv

106
Q

T/F: The mandibular nerve supplies only motor innervation.

113

A 
False.
Mandibular nerve (V3) has both sensory and motor components.
107
Q

What does the mandibular nerve (V3) branch from?
How does it enter the infratemporal fossa?

(113)

A

Branches from the gasserian ganglion.

Enters the infratemporal fossa through the foramen ovale.

108
Q

What nerve provides the sensory to the skin of the external ear?

(113)

A

CN V3, C2, CN VII.

109
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation to the TMJ?

113

A

CN V3.

110
Q

What 2 nerves provide sensory innervation to the tympanic membrane?

(113)

A

CN V3, CN IX.

111
Q

What nerve supplies the dura of the middle cranial fossa?

114

A

Meningeal nerve.

112
Q

What does the buccal nerve provide innervation to?

114

A

Sensory innervation to the skin of the cheek and mucous membranes inside the cheek.

113
Q

What are the 4 main branches of the mandibular nerve (V3)?

114

A

Buccal n.
Lingual n.
Inferior alveolar n.
Auriculotemporal n.

114
Q

What nerve provides sensory innervation to the skin of the temporal region and the TMJ?

(115)

A

Auriculotemporal n.

115
Q

What does the lingual nerve provide general sensory innervation to?

(115)

A

Anterior 2/3 of tongue.

Floor of oral cavity.

116
Q

What nerve hitchhikes to the tongue along with the lingual n.?
What are its 2 types of neurons?

(115)

A

Chorda tympani hitchhikes with lingual n.
Has taste neurons to ant. 2/3 of tongue, and preganglionic parasympathetic neurons en route to the submandibular ganglion.

117
Q

What is the terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve?

115

A

Mental n.

118
Q

What are the 4 movements of the head of the mandible?

116

A

Protraction/Retraction.
Depression/Elevation.
Lateral deviation.
Circumduction.

119
Q

What are the 2 synovial spaces of the TMJ?
What divides them?

(117)

A

Superior joint space: most extensive –> most movement.

Inferior joint space: most restrictive –> less movement.

120
Q

What is the ligament that blends to and reinforces the lateral part of the articular capsule?

(117)

A

Lateral TMJ ligament.

121
Q

What are the 2 accessory ligaments of the TMJ?
Where do they connect to the TMJ?

(117)

A

Stylomandibular ligament.
Sphenomandibular ligament.
Neither is directly connected to the TMJ.
(Suspend the mandible from the skull).

122
Q

What innervates the TMJ?

117

A

CN V, CN V3, auriculotemporal n.

123
Q

What are the 2 major patterns of movement associated with the opening of the mouth?

(118)

A

Phase 1: Disk and condyle glide anteriorly against the mandibular fossa and tubercle. Results in a slight protraction and depression of the mandible. (Associated with motion of the superior joint space).
Phase 2: Hinge-like rotation of the condylar process of the mandible against the articular disk. (Motion of the inferior joint space). Results in complete depression of the mandible.

124
Q

In what position is the TMJ most vulnerable?
What usually gets dislocated and how?

(118)

A

Most vulnerable w/mandible in fully depressed position.

Head and disc usually displaced anterior to the articular tubercle.

125
Q

Where can pain from the TMJ be referred into?

118

A

temporal region and ext. ear.

126
Q

What are the 2 borders of the sphenopalatine fossa?

119

A

Posterior: pterygoid process of sphenoid.
Anterior: maxilla and perpendicular plate of palatine.

127
Q

Where does the maxillary nerve exit the cranial fossa from/through?
What are its 5 branches?

(119)

A

Exits via foramen rotundum.

Zygomatic n, Superior alveolar nn, palatine nn, nasal nn, and infraorbital n.

128
Q

What is the terminal branch of the maxillary artery?

121

A

Sphenopalatine artery.

129
Q

What are the 3 branches of the sphenopalatine artery?

121

A

Nasal, palatine, and superior alveolar.

130
Q

What kind of ganglion is the pterygopalatine ganglion?

121

A

Parasympathetic ganglion.

Post ganglionic parasympathetic neurons.

131
Q

Where are post ganglionic parasympathetic neurons distributed to?

(122)

A

Nasal glands.
Palatine glands.
Lacrimal glands.
They are secretomotor.

132
Q

Where are the vessels that post ganglionic sympathetic processes are distributed to?

(122)

A

Nasal cavity.
Palate.
They are vasomotor.

(Review handout that he gave us around pg 122 of the notes).

133
Q

What nerve is the greater petrosal nerve a branch of?

A

CN VII.

134
Q

What are the 2 subdivisions of the oral cavity?

123

A

Vestibule: b/w lips/cheek and teeth and gums.

Oral Cavity Proper: Includes the rest plus the tongue.

135
Q

What is the rima oris?

123

A

The way the oral cavity communicates with the external world.

136
Q

How does the oral cavity communicate with the oral pharynx posteriorly?

(123)

A

Fauces.

137
Q

What are the folds that connext the upper and lower lip to their respective gums?

(123)

A

Frenulum labii. (Superior and inferior).

138
Q

What are the parotid papillae?

123

A

Where the parotid duct enters the oral cavity.

Located on cheek opposite the upper 2nd molar

139
Q

How do the sublingual ducts enter the oral cavity?

123

A

Sublingual carunculae.

140
Q

What are the 2 materials teeth are composed of?

124

A

Enamel: Covers the crown.
Dentine: Makes up most of the body of the tooth.

141
Q

T/F: The superior and inferior alveolar ligaments are innervated by V2.

(125)

A

False.
Superior alveolar nerve= V2.
Inferior alveolar nerve= V3.

142
Q

How many teeth are usually in a complete set of deciduous teeth?
Permanent teeth?

(126)

A

Deciduous: 20 teeth.
Permanent: 32 teeth.

143
Q

How many roots do permanent teeth have?

126

A

Upper molars: 3 roots.
Lower molars: 2 roots.
All others have 1 root.

144
Q

What divides the anterior 2/3 of the tongue from the posterior 1/3?
What is the shallow depression at the midpoint of the tongue?

(127)

A

Terminal sulcus.

Foramen cecum.

145
Q

What divides the anterior 2/3 of the tongue into right and left halves?

(127)

A

Dorsal medial sulcus

146
Q

What are the 4 common types of lingual papillae?

128

A

Filiform papilla: Most numerous; hairlike -> contributes to rough surface.
Fungiform papilla: Mushroom-like papilla; include taste receptors.
Vallate papilla: Large; few; v-shaped distribution; include taste receptors; Von Ebners glands.
Foliate papilla: on post. side of tongue; includes taste receptors.

147
Q

What are the 3 out of 4 papillae that have taste buds?

129

A

Fungiform.
Foliate.
Vallate.

148
Q

What are the 2 places other than the papillae where taste buds are present?
What happens to the number of taste buds with age?

(129)

A 
Palate and epiglottis.
# of taste buds decreases with age.
149
Q

For the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, what does the sensory innervation?
Taste innervation?

(129)

A

General sensory innervation: V, V3, lingual n.

Taste innervation: Chorda tympani n. (branch of VII n.).

150
Q

What does the general sensory innervation for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
Taste?

(129)

A

General sensory: IX n.

Taste: IX n.

151
Q

What are the 4 extrinsic muscles of the tongue?
What are they innervated by?

(130)

A 
Genioglossus.
Styloglossus. 
Hyoglossus.
Palatoglossus.
ALL tongue mm are innervated (motor) by XII n except palatoglossus by X n.
152
Q

What are the actions of the genioglossus?

130

A

Bilaterally: protrusion and depression.
Unilaterally: tongue will deviate towards contralateral side when protruding.

153
Q

What is the action of the styloglossus m?

130

A

Retract and elevate the tongue.

154
Q

What are the actions of the hyoglossus m?

130

A

Depress and retrude/retract the tongue.

155
Q

What are the actions of the palatoglossus m?

130

A

Fauces sphincter and elevates tongue.

156
Q

What is the innervation of the intrinsic tongue mm.?
What are their movements?

(130)

A

CN XII.

Fine tongue movements (important in speech).

157
Q

What bones make up the hard palate?

132

A

Palatine process of maxilla (ant 2/3).

Horizontal plates of palatine (post 1/3).

158
Q

What is the posterior termination of the soft palate called?

132

A

Uvula.

159
Q

What does the soft palate do during swallowing?

132

A

Acts like a valve.

During swallowing, soft palate is elevated –> closing off the oral pharynx from the nasopharynx.

160
Q

What are the 5 mm of the palate?
What are they innervated by?

(132-133)

A 
Levator veli palatini.
Tensor veli palatini.
Musculus uvulae.
Palatoglossus.
Palatopharyngeus.
All are innervated by CN X, except tensor veli palatini (CN V, V3).
161
Q

What is the space b/w the palatoglossal folds called?

133

A

Fauces.

162
Q

What does the general sensory innervation of the palate?
Taste?

(133)

A

General sensory: Palatine branches of V2 (maxillary n).

Taste: Greater petrosal n (br. of VII n).

163
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation to the palatine glands?

(133)

A

Secretomotor.
Preganglionics: greater petrosal n (br of CN VII).
Postganglionics: pterygopalatine ganglionic.

164
Q

What are the arteries of the palate?

133

A

Palatine branches of maxillary and facial arteries, and sphenopalatine a.

165
Q

What 2 nerve innervate the skin of the external nose?

135

A

V1 (Some of the superior bridge of the nose).

Infraorbital nerve-branch or V2 (Majority of the external nose).

166
Q

What are the borders of the nasal cavity?

135

A

Floor: Palatine process of maxilla; Horizontal plate of palatine.
Roof: Nasal; Frontal; Ethmoid; Sphenoid
Medial wall: Anterior 1/2 is cartilage; Posterior 1/2 is Vomer and perpendicular plate of ethmoid.
Lateral wall: Maxilla; Ethmoid; Palatine; Interior concha; Nasal; Lacrimal.

167
Q

What supplies the blood for the nasal fossae?

137

A

Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries.

Nasal arteries from the sphenopalatine artery (from maxillary artery).

168
Q

What does the general sensory innervation for the nasal fossae?

(137)

A

Ethmoidal nn: Ant. region of cavity.
Nasal nn: (V2) Majority of the cavity.
Infraorbital n: (V2) Vestibule of cavity (alae).

169
Q

What does the olfaction innervation for the nasal fossae?
Autonomic innervation?

(137)

A

Olfaction: Olfactory n (CN I).
Autonomic:
Parasympathetic (secretomotor)- pregang=greater petrosal n.; postgang=pterygopalatin ganglion.
Sympathetic (vasomotor)

170
Q

What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses?

138

A

Contributes to ones facial expressions.
Contributes to resonance qualities of voice.
Contributes to air exchange and moistens the air.

171
Q

What are the 4 pairs of paranasal sinuses?

138

A

Frontal: Seckretions drain through the frontonasal duct into the middle meatus of the nasal fossa.
Ethmoid air cells: Drain into the superior and middle meatus.
Sphenoid sinuses: Drains anteriorly into the sphenoethmoidal recess.
Maxillary sinus: Largest; Drains into the middle meatus.
*Note: Nasal-lacrimal duct drains into the inferior meatus.

172
Q

What is the retropharyngeal space?

139

A

The fascial plane that separates the pharynx from the cervical spine.

173
Q

What are the 6 muscles of the pharynx and their actions?

139

A

Superior constrictor: Elevate and constrict pharynx.
Middle constrictor: Constricts pharynx.
Inferior constrictor: Constricts pharynx.
Stylopharyngeus: Elevates pharynx.
Palatopharyngeus: Elevates pharynx.
Salpingopharyngeus: Elevates pharynx.
*Note: All are innervated by CN X except the stylopharyngeus (CN IX).

174
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the pharynx?

141

A

Nasopharynx, oralpharynx, laryngopharynx.

175
Q

What is are adenoids?

141

A

When the pharyngeal tonsils hypertrophy in childhood infections.

176
Q

What is the superior border of the oral pharynx?
Inferior?

(142)

A

Superior: Soft palate.
Inferior: Hyoid bone.

177
Q

What is the superior border of the laryngopharynx?
Inferior?

(142)

A

Superior: Hyoid bone.
Inferior: Inferior border of the cricoid cartilage.

178
Q

How does the laryngopharynx communicate anteriorly with the larynx?

(142)

A

Aditus of larynx.

179
Q

What vertebra is the larynx adjacent to?

143

A

C4, 5, 6.

Connects the pharynx to the trachea

180
Q

What are the major cartilages of the larynx?

143

A

Thyroid: C4, C5.
Cricoid: C6.
Epiglottic: Convex side to side.
Arytenoid: Paired; Pyramidal; Includes vocal process.

181
Q

What do the vestibular ligaments connect?

144

A

Attaches the arytenoid cartilages to the thyroid cartilage.

182
Q

What do the vocal ligaments connect?

144

A

Attaches the vocal process of the arytenoid cartilages to the thyroid cartilage.

183
Q

T/F: Both the vestibular folds and the vocal folds are found in the lateral walls of the larynx?

(144)

A

True.

184
Q

What are known as false vocal cords?
True vocal cords?

(145)

A 
False= Vestibular folds.
True= Vocal folds.
185
Q

What are the 5 spaces of the larynx?

145

A

Aditus: Opening b/w laringopharynx and larynx.
Vestibule: Space or part that is above the vocal folds.
Infraglottic space: Space below glottidus.
Rima Glottidus: Slit-like space b/w left and right vocal folds.
Glottis: “Vocal apparatus” made up of vocal folds and rima glottidis.

186
Q

What are the 2 extrinsic mm of the larynx?

146

A

Suprahyoid mm.

Infrahyoid mm.

187
Q

What are the intrinsic muscles of the larynx innervated by and what are their actions?

(146)

A

CN X.

Open/close glottis or regulate the length/tension of the vocal folds.

188
Q

What is the arterial supply of the larynx?

146

A

Superior laryngeal artery (branch of superior thyroid artery).
Inferior laryngeal artery (branch of inferior thyroid artery).

189
Q

The Vagus nerve innervates the larynx. What are the branches that do the motor innervation to the intrinsic mm of the larynx?

(146)

A

Superior laryngeal n. (Internal and external laryngeal n branches).
Recurrent laryngeal n.

190
Q

What are the 3 parts of the temporal bone?

67

A

Squamous: Includes mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of TMJ.
Tympanic: Helps to form much of the borders of external auditory meatus.
Petrous: encloses, stabilizes, and preserves the orientation of the elements of the inner ear.

191
Q

T/F: The mastoid air cells connect to the middle ear cavity.

(67)

A

True.

192
Q

What 3 things does the mastoid process serve as an attachment site for?

(67)

A

SCM, Post. belly of digastric m, and splenius capitus.

193
Q

What does the styloid process serve as an attachment site for?

(67)

A

Muscles: Stylo- hyoid, glossus, and pharyngeus.
Ligaments: Stylo- hyoid, and mandibular.

194
Q

What 4 elements of the ear are housed within the temporal bone?

(68)

A 
External auditory meatus.
Tympanic membrane (separates the external auditory canal from the tympanic cavity).
Tympanic cavity (ear ossicles and muscles)
Inner ear (osseous labyrinth and membranous labyrinth).
195
Q

What are the 3 ear ossicles?

68

A

Malleus, incus, and stapes.

196
Q

What are the 2 muscles of the tympanic cavity?

68

A

Temportympani m.

Stapedius m.

197
Q

T/F: The tympanic membrane is oriented oblique to the vertical plane with the inferior edge of the tympanic membrane more lateral.

(70)

A

False.
The tympanic membrane is oriented oblique to the vertical plane with the inferior edge of the tympanic membrane more MEDIAL.

198
Q

What is the general sensory innervation for the tympanic membrane?

(70)

A

V3, IX, X.

199
Q

What 3 arteries share the blood supply to the tympanic membrane?

(70)

A

Maxillary a.
Posterior auricular a.
Superficial temporal a.

200
Q

What are the 2 functions of the eustacian tube?

71

A

Drainage of secretions from the middle ear into the nasopharynx.
Equalization of pressure on the inside and the outside of the tympanic membrane.

201
Q

What is mastoiditis?

72

A

When a middle ear infection spreads posteriorly into the mastoid air cells.

202
Q

What part of the malleus attaches to the tympanic membrane?
What part articulates with the incus?

(72)

A

Tympanic membrane= malleus.

Head= incus.

203
Q

What does the base of the stapes articulate with?

72

A

Oval window.

204
Q

What is the collective function of the middle ear ossicles?

72

A

Couple movements of the tympanic membrane to movements of the footplate of the stapes –> changes in pressure of fluid of inner ear.

205
Q

What are the 2 basic elements of the inner ear?

73

A 
Osseous labyrinth (bony canals).
Membranous labyrinth (membrane canals w/in the osseous labyrinth).
206
Q

What is the vestibular reception that the membranous and osseous labyrinth provide for?

(73)

A

Monitors linear and rotational/angular motion of the head along with static position.

207
Q

What are the 3 parts of the osseous labyrinth?

73

A

Vestibule: has 2 openings- oval window and round window.
Semicircular canals: has 3 canals (ant, post, and lat) with ampullae (dilations) at one end of each canal.
Cochlea: Turns around the modiolus (apex of turns is the cupola).

208
Q

What is the membranous labyrinth filled with?

75

A

Endolymph.

209
Q

What is the macula (utriculi)?

75

A

Specialized sensory receptor that monitors static position and linear motion of the head in space.

210
Q

What pitches are monitored at the basal turns?
Distal part?

(78)

A

Basal turns: High pitches.

Distal part: Low pitches.

211
Q

What could cause the organ of corti to be damaged?

78

A

If the auditory apparatus is exposed to excessively loud sounds.
(Damages the basal turn –> high hz deafness).

212
Q

What are the 2 muscles of the middle ear?
What innervates them?

(78)

A 
Tensor tympani (V,V3).
Stapedius (VII).
213
Q

What is the functional significance of the muscles of the middle ear?

(78)

A

Reflexively contracts in response to exposure to sounds of high intensity.

214
Q

How does the chorda tympani n exit the base of the skull?

80

A

Petrotympanic fissure –> infratemporal fossa.

215
Q

What are the 2 major components of the tympanic plexus?

80

A

Fibers from internal carotid n plexus.

Tympanic br of IX n. *

216
Q

Where is the organ of corti located?

76

A

Cochlear duct.

Innervated by CN VIII- cochlear n

Gross Anatomy 2 (SW) (2 decks)

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