Test 2 Flashcards
What forms the orbital roof?
82
Orbital process/plate of the frontal bone.
Lesser wing of the sphenoid bone.
What forms the orbital floor?
pg 82
Orbital process of the maxilla.
Zygomatic bone.
Orbital process of palatine bones (small part of floor; near apex).
What bones form the medial wall of the orbit?
82
Frontal process of the maxilla.
Lacrimal bone.
Orbital process of the ethmoid bone.
What bones from the lateral wall of the orbit?
82
Zygomatic bone.
Greater wing of sphenoid.
What is the optic canal associated with and what are it’s contents?
(84)
Associated with the lesser wing of the sphenoid.
Contains CN II and opthalmic a.
What borders the superior orbital fissure and what does it contain?
(84)
Bordered by the lesser and greater wings of the sphenoid.
Contains CN III, IV, V1, VI, and superior opthalmic n.
What are the contents of the inferior orbital fissure?
Infraorbital NAV.
What are the contents of the supraorbital foramen?
Supraorbital NAV
What are the contents of the infraorbital foramen and where does it lead to?
(84)
Contains the infraorbital NAV.
Leads to the floor of the orbit where it is continuous with the infraorbital groove/sulcus.
Where is the ethmoidal foramina located and what does it connect to?
(84)
Located on the medial wall of the orbit.
Connects to the ethmoid air cells.
What does the floor of the orbit separate?
84
Separates the orbit from the maxillary sinus.
Define palpebra, cilia, and supercilia.
(85)
Palpebra = eyelids. Cilia = eyelashes. Supercilia = eyebrows.
What does the medial caruncle include?
85
Lacrimal caruncle (fleshy prominence that includes sweat and sebaceous glands. Lacrimal puncta
What is the lacrimal puncta?
85
Pinhole sized opening at the lacrimal papilla that permits draining of lacrimal fluid from the cornea. Fleshy bump on superior and inferior palpebrae.
What helps to maintain the shape of the eyelids?
85
Tarsal plates.
Dense fibrous CT deep to the skin and muscle
What’s the function of tarsal glands?
85
Secretions to spread along margins of the eyelids to lubricate margins and help increase surface tension along margins => lacrimal fluid to stay on cornea.
What are some of the features of tarsal glands?
85
Embedded in tarsal plates.*
Can be seen if the eyelids are inverted.
Modified sebaceous glands (lipid like secretions).*
Open up along the margins of the eyelids.
What are the 2 types of ciliary glands?
86
Glands of moll: Small, modified sweat glands.
Glands of zeis: small modified sebaceous glands.
What is a sty?
Chalazion?
(86)
Sty= hordeolum; result of an infected gland of the eyelid. Chalazion= plugged gland; cyst-like.
What are the 2 portions of the conjunctive?
86
Palpebral: covers the internal surface of the eyelids.
Bulbar: reflects onto the “bulb”/eyeball => continuous with the outer cornea.
What are the conjunctiva fornices?
86
Where the palpebral conjunctiva meets the bulbar conjunctiva.
(Recesses of the conjunctiva).
What does the lacrimal gland secrete?
87
Lacrimal fluid (serous/watery fluid) through a series of ducts onto the cornea. (Lacrimal fluid circulates across the corneal surface and across the inner eyelids to moisten, clean, lubricate, and protect).
What’s the role of the parasympathetic fibers of the lacrimal gland?
(87)
Control lacrimation (secretomotor).
- Pregang.= CN VII (greater petrosel n).
- Postgang.= Associated with the sphenopalatine ganglion.
What’s the role of the sympathetic fivers of the lacrimal gland?
(87)
To arteries of the gland (vasomotor innervation).
-Postgang. are associated with the superior cervical ganglion of the sympathetic chain.
When blinking, where is the lacrimal fluid being distributed towards?
(88)
Medial canthus.
What is the route for the nasolacrimal conducting system?
88
Lacrimal fluid is secreted by the lacrimal gland through ducts onto the lateral eyeball and then distributes medially to:
–> lacrimal puncta –> lacrimal canaliculi –> lacrimal sac/bulb –> nasolacrimal duct –> opens into the inferior meatus of the nasal cavity.
What layer of cranial dura forms the periosteal layer lining the orbit and encapsulates all orbital structures?
(88)
Periorbita.
What layer of the cranial dura forms the outer meningeal layer of the optic nerve (CN II)?
(88)
Orbital dura.
follows the optic n to the posterior eyeball where it becomes continuous with the sclera of the eyeball
What are the 2 functions of the orbital fat?
88
Helps maintain orientation of orbital structures.
Helps form soft socket for eyeball.
What 3 things help to form a “socket” for the eyeball?
88
Orbital Fat.
Tenons Capsule (layer of fascia on ant. edge of the orbital fat; posterior to eyeball).
Episcleral Space ("space" b/w sclera and the tenons capsule).What are the 3 adductors of the eye?
93
Medial rectus.
Superior rectus.
Inferior rectus.
What are the 3 abductors of the eye?
93
Inferior oblique.
Superior oblique.
Lateral rectus.
What are the 2 elevators of the eye?
93
Inferior oblique.
Superior rectus.
What are the 2 depressors of the eye?
93
Superior oblique.
Inferior rectus.
What are the 4 rotators of the eye?
93
Superior oblique.
Inferior oblique.
Superior rectus.
Inferior rectus.
What are the 2 medial rotators of the eye?
93
Superior rectus.
Superior oblique.
What are the 2 lateral rotators of the eye?
93
Inferior rectus.
Inferior oblique.
Of the 7 extrinsic muscles of the eyeball, how many of them move the eye?
6 (4 recti, 2 oblique).
The 7th elevates the upper eyelid
What is the common origination for all the rectus muscles of the eye?
(90)
Anulus tendinous (aka common tendon of zinn). (Ring-like tendon located at the apex of the orbit near the optic canal and the superior orbital fissure).
T/F: All of the rectus muscles of the eye insert on their correlating aspect of the sclera and are innervated by CN III.
(90)
False.
The lateral rectus is the only rectus eye muscle that’s not innervated by CN III.
The lateral rectus is innervated by CN VI (abducens n).
What 2 eye muscles have a corresponding trochlea?
92
Superior oblique (Innervated by CN IV). Inferior oblique (Innervated by CN III).
Which 2 eye muscles, if paralyzed, would have the biggest effect?
(94)
Medial and lateral recti mm.
Their movements are relatively pure and they are very dominant mm for moving the eye in the horizontal plane.
What are the 2 types of movement of the eyes?
94
Conjugate (parallel movements). Vergence movements (divergence and convergence).
What is the innervation and action of the levator palpebra superioris?
(94)
Innervated by CN III.
Elevates the superior eyelid/palpebra.
(If paralyzed the eyelid will droop = ptosis of upper eyelid).
What are the muscles of the eyelids and what kind of muscle are they?
(94)
Tarsal muscles (superior and inferior). Smooth muscle.
What’s the innervation and action of the tarsal muscles?
94
Innervated by postganglionic sympathetic fibers.
They assist in elevating the superior palpebrum and depressing the inferior palpebrum.
(Paralysis => subtle narrowed palpebral fissure).
What is the ophthalmic artery a branch of and where does it enter the orbit?
(95)
It’s a branch of the internal carotid a.
Enters the orbit through the optic canal.
Which artery enters the optic nerve and travels to the eyeball, and supplies the inner retina?
(95)
Central artery.
Which artery supplies the lateral orbit, lacrimal gland, lateral eyelids, and some of the skin of the lateral orbit?
(96)
Lacrimal artery.
Which artery is a branch of the lacrimal artery and goes to the posterior aspect of the eyeball?
(96)
Posterior ciliary arteries.
Which artery is a branch of the lacrimal artery and goes to the anterior aspect of the eyeball?
(96)
Anterior ciliary arteries.
Which 2 arteries supply blood to the eyeball (including outer retina) and supplies blood to the capillary plexus in the choroid layer?
(96)
Posterior and anterior ciliary arteries.
What artery passes through the supraorbital foramen and supplies the elements of the superior orbit, cutaneous elements of the upper eyelid and skin of the forehead.
(96)
Supraorbital artery.
What arteries supply the ethmoid air cells, frontal sinuses, and part of the nasal cavity?
(96)
Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries.
What artery is the terminal branch of the ophthalmic artery and supplies the top bridge of the nose and medial forehead?
(96)
Supratrochlear artery.
What is the wall of the eyeball supplied by?
96
Central and ciliary arteries.
Both supply the retina
What are the 4 veins of the orbit?
97
Superior ophthalmic vv (supraorbital vv => cavernous sinus).
Inferior ophthalmic vv (inferior orbit => cavernous sinus/sup. ophthalmic v).
Central vv (inner retina => ophthalmic vv, or cavernous sinus).
Vortex vv (outer layers of eyeball => ophthalmic vv).
What does the ophthalmic nerve enter the orbit through?
98
Superior orbital fissure.
What are the 3 branches of the ophthalmic nerve?
98
Frontal n (largest). Lacrimal n. Nasocilliary n (smallest).
What part of the eyeball does the frontal nerve pass over and what 2 branches does it have?
(99)
Passes over superior eyeball.
Supraorbital n.
Supratrochlear n.
Where does the nasociliary n travel and what are its 4 branches?
(99)
Travels along medial aspect of the orbit. Long ciliary n. Ethmoidal nn (ant & post). Infratrochlear n. Nasociliary communicating rami.
Where does the lacrimal nerve travel to?
100
Travels towards the lacrimal gland along the lateral orbital wall.
The lacrimal nerve has hitchhikers that are post ganglionic parasympathetic fibers that originate from what ganglion?
(100)
Sphenopalatine ganglion.
Provide secretomotor innervation to the lacrimal gland
What 2 elements does the outer tunic consist of?
101
Sclera (whitish color; poorly vascularized).
Cornea (fairly transparent; refractive str of eyeball; avascular).
What are the 3 layers of the cornea?
101
Anterior (stratified squamous epithelium continuous with bulbar conjunctiva).
Middle (90% of cornea; CT).
Inner (simple squamous epithelium/endothelium).
Diffusion for nutrients and fluid to the cornea come from what?
(101)
Aqueous humor.
Which tunic is known as the vascular layer?
102
Middle tunic.
What 3 parts does the middle tunic consist of?
102
Choroid (posterior element).
Iris (anterior part).
Ciliary body (b/w choroid and iris).
What helps supply blood to the retina?
103
Dense capillary plexus supplied by ciliary arteries.
Innervated by ciliary nn
What part of the middle tunic contains pigmentation?
103
Iris.
What controls the amount of light falling on the retina and how?
(103)
Pupil.
Diameter controlled by 2 intrinsic smooth m groups w/in the iris (sphincter pupillae m and dilator pupillae m).
How are the fibers of the sphincter pupillae muscle oriented and what is its action?
(103)
Fibers oriented concentrically.
Decreases diameter of pupil.
How are the fibers of the dilator pupillae muscle arranged and what is its action?
(103)
Fibers are arranged radially.
Increases the size of the pupil.
Where are the 2 intrinsic smooth muscle groups that adjust the pupil located?
(103)
W/in the iris.
What are the 2 major functions of the ciliary body?
104
Secrete aqueous humor into the posterior chamber of the eye (lens and iris).
Suspend the lens and control the tension on the lens.
What are the 3 functions of the aqueous humor?
104
Refractive medial of eye.
Nutrients and fluid of cornea and lens.
Circulation dynamics helps to establish intraocular pressure w/in the eye which helps maintain stability of the eyeball str.
What is the condition of interference of circulation of the aqueous humor and what does it usually result in?
(104)
Glaucoma.
Usually increases intraocular pressure.
What controls circumferential tension on the lens?
104
Ciliary body and suspensory/zonular ligaments.
T/F: The lens is convex, transparent, and avascular.
104
False.
Biconvex, transparent, and avascular.
What happens when ciliary mm contract?
-> Decreased tension of ligaments
-> Increases A-P diameter/convexity of lens
=> Near vision
What happens when ciliary mm relax?
-> Increased tension of ligaments
-> Decreased A-P diameter/convexity of lens
=> Distant vision
What are the 2 layers of the inner tunic?
105
Pigmented (outermost layer of retina).
Neuronal (innermost layer of retina).
What are the functions of the pigmented layer?
106
Absorb light thru neural layer.
Support and growth factors to layer, rods, and cones.
What layer of the inner tunic (retina) are the rods and cones found in and what are their functions?
(106)
Found in neural layer of retina.
Cones: color vision and high resolution.
Rods: Peripheral vision, low light vision, low resolution vision.
What is the ora serrata?
106
Anterior serrated edge of functional part of the retina.
What is the blood supply of the retina?
106
Central artery (supplies the inner retina). Ciliary artery (supplies the outer retina).
What is the blind spot of the retina?
106
Area with no rods or cones.
Where is the vitreous body/humor and what are its functions.
(107)
Located w/in the bulbous oculi. Fills 4/5 the volume of the eyeball. Helps maintain the shape of the eyeball. Maintains the configuration of various eyeball structures. A refractive medium of the eye.
Describe the general sensory innervation of the eyeball?
108
Via CN V1 (especially nasocilliary n).
The 2 specific branches are the long ciliary n and the communicating rami to the ciliary ganglion.
What are the borders of the infratemporal fossa?
110
Anterior: Maxilla (post. part).
Medial: Lateral pterygoid plate (sphenoid bone).
Roof: Greater wing of sphenoid bone.
Lateral: Ramus of mandible.
How does the infratemporal fossa communicate with the cranial cavity? (Through what openings)
(110)
Foramen ovale (transmits V3 n from middle cranial fossa). Foramen spinosum (transmits middle meningeal a and meningeal n from middle cranial fossa).
How does the infratemporal fossa communicate with the orbit?
(110)
Inferiororbital fissure.
Transmits infraorbital a & n
How does the infratemporal fossa communicate with the sphenopalatine fossa?
(110)
Pterygomaxillary fissure.
Transmits sphenopalatine a
What are the 4 mm of mastication?
What are they innervated by?
(111)
Medial pterygoid, Lateral pteryoid, Masseter, Temporalis.
All are innervated by CN V (V3).
What muscle inserts on the TMJ capsule and articular disk?
What is it’s principle action?
(111)
Lateral pterygoid.
Contralaterally deviates mandible.
What are the 2 actions of the masseter m?
111
Elevates and protrudes the mandible.
What are the 2 actions of the temporalis m?
What branch of V3 innervates it?
(111)
Elevate and retract the mandible.
Innervated by deep temporal nerve of V3.
What is the terminal branch of the external carotid artery?
112
Maxillary artery.
What does the middle meningeal artery supply?
112
Cranial dura and bones.
What does the inferior alveolar artery supply?
112
Mandible.
Dental arteries.
Mental arteries (terminal branch).
What artery supplies the soft tissues of the cheek?
112
Buccal artery.
What does the posterior superior alveolar artery supply?
112
Posterior teeth of the upper jaw (molars and premolars).
What artery supplies the anterior face, maxillary sinus, and anterior teeth of maxillae?
(112)
Infraorbital artery.
Which artery passes through the pterygomaxillary fissure to enter the sphenopalatine fossa?
What are its 2 main branches?
(113)
Sphenopalatine artery.
2 main branches:
Nasal aa (to nasal cavity).
Palatine aa (to palate).
Where do the veins of the infratemporal fossa primarily drain into?
(113)
Pterygoid plexus.
Pterygoid plexus drains into either facial or retromandibular vv
T/F: The mandibular nerve supplies only motor innervation.
113
False. Mandibular nerve (V3) has both sensory and motor components.
What does the mandibular nerve (V3) branch from?
How does it enter the infratemporal fossa?
(113)
Branches from the gasserian ganglion.
Enters the infratemporal fossa through the foramen ovale.
What nerve provides the sensory to the skin of the external ear?
(113)
CN V3, C2, CN VII.
What nerve provides sensory innervation to the TMJ?
113
CN V3.
What 2 nerves provide sensory innervation to the tympanic membrane?
(113)
CN V3, CN IX.
What nerve supplies the dura of the middle cranial fossa?
114
Meningeal nerve.
What does the buccal nerve provide innervation to?
114
Sensory innervation to the skin of the cheek and mucous membranes inside the cheek.
What are the 4 main branches of the mandibular nerve (V3)?
114
Buccal n.
Lingual n.
Inferior alveolar n.
Auriculotemporal n.
What nerve provides sensory innervation to the skin of the temporal region and the TMJ?
(115)
Auriculotemporal n.
What does the lingual nerve provide general sensory innervation to?
(115)
Anterior 2/3 of tongue.
Floor of oral cavity.
What nerve hitchhikes to the tongue along with the lingual n.?
What are its 2 types of neurons?
(115)
Chorda tympani hitchhikes with lingual n.
Has taste neurons to ant. 2/3 of tongue, and preganglionic parasympathetic neurons en route to the submandibular ganglion.
What is the terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve?
115
Mental n.
What are the 4 movements of the head of the mandible?
116
Protraction/Retraction.
Depression/Elevation.
Lateral deviation.
Circumduction.
What are the 2 synovial spaces of the TMJ?
What divides them?
(117)
Superior joint space: most extensive –> most movement.
Inferior joint space: most restrictive –> less movement.
What is the ligament that blends to and reinforces the lateral part of the articular capsule?
(117)
Lateral TMJ ligament.
What are the 2 accessory ligaments of the TMJ?
Where do they connect to the TMJ?
(117)
Stylomandibular ligament.
Sphenomandibular ligament.
Neither is directly connected to the TMJ.
(Suspend the mandible from the skull).
What innervates the TMJ?
117
CN V, CN V3, auriculotemporal n.
What are the 2 major patterns of movement associated with the opening of the mouth?
(118)
Phase 1: Disk and condyle glide anteriorly against the mandibular fossa and tubercle. Results in a slight protraction and depression of the mandible. (Associated with motion of the superior joint space).
Phase 2: Hinge-like rotation of the condylar process of the mandible against the articular disk. (Motion of the inferior joint space). Results in complete depression of the mandible.
In what position is the TMJ most vulnerable?
What usually gets dislocated and how?
(118)
Most vulnerable w/mandible in fully depressed position.
Head and disc usually displaced anterior to the articular tubercle.
Where can pain from the TMJ be referred into?
118
temporal region and ext. ear.
What are the 2 borders of the sphenopalatine fossa?
119
Posterior: pterygoid process of sphenoid.
Anterior: maxilla and perpendicular plate of palatine.
Where does the maxillary nerve exit the cranial fossa from/through?
What are its 5 branches?
(119)
Exits via foramen rotundum.
Zygomatic n, Superior alveolar nn, palatine nn, nasal nn, and infraorbital n.
What is the terminal branch of the maxillary artery?
121
Sphenopalatine artery.
What are the 3 branches of the sphenopalatine artery?
121
Nasal, palatine, and superior alveolar.
What kind of ganglion is the pterygopalatine ganglion?
121
Parasympathetic ganglion.
Post ganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
Where are post ganglionic parasympathetic neurons distributed to?
(122)
Nasal glands.
Palatine glands.
Lacrimal glands.
They are secretomotor.
Where are the vessels that post ganglionic sympathetic processes are distributed to?
(122)
Nasal cavity.
Palate.
They are vasomotor.
(Review handout that he gave us around pg 122 of the notes).
What nerve is the greater petrosal nerve a branch of?
CN VII.
What are the 2 subdivisions of the oral cavity?
123
Vestibule: b/w lips/cheek and teeth and gums.
Oral Cavity Proper: Includes the rest plus the tongue.
What is the rima oris?
123
The way the oral cavity communicates with the external world.
How does the oral cavity communicate with the oral pharynx posteriorly?
(123)
Fauces.
What are the folds that connext the upper and lower lip to their respective gums?
(123)
Frenulum labii. (Superior and inferior).
What are the parotid papillae?
123
Where the parotid duct enters the oral cavity.
Located on cheek opposite the upper 2nd molar
How do the sublingual ducts enter the oral cavity?
123
Sublingual carunculae.
What are the 2 materials teeth are composed of?
124
Enamel: Covers the crown.
Dentine: Makes up most of the body of the tooth.
T/F: The superior and inferior alveolar ligaments are innervated by V2.
(125)
False.
Superior alveolar nerve= V2.
Inferior alveolar nerve= V3.
How many teeth are usually in a complete set of deciduous teeth?
Permanent teeth?
(126)
Deciduous: 20 teeth.
Permanent: 32 teeth.
How many roots do permanent teeth have?
126
Upper molars: 3 roots.
Lower molars: 2 roots.
All others have 1 root.
What divides the anterior 2/3 of the tongue from the posterior 1/3?
What is the shallow depression at the midpoint of the tongue?
(127)
Terminal sulcus.
Foramen cecum.
What divides the anterior 2/3 of the tongue into right and left halves?
(127)
Dorsal medial sulcus
What are the 4 common types of lingual papillae?
128
Filiform papilla: Most numerous; hairlike -> contributes to rough surface.
Fungiform papilla: Mushroom-like papilla; include taste receptors.
Vallate papilla: Large; few; v-shaped distribution; include taste receptors; Von Ebners glands.
Foliate papilla: on post. side of tongue; includes taste receptors.
What are the 3 out of 4 papillae that have taste buds?
129
Fungiform.
Foliate.
Vallate.
What are the 2 places other than the papillae where taste buds are present?
What happens to the number of taste buds with age?
(129)
Palate and epiglottis. # of taste buds decreases with age.
For the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, what does the sensory innervation?
Taste innervation?
(129)
General sensory innervation: V, V3, lingual n.
Taste innervation: Chorda tympani n. (branch of VII n.).
What does the general sensory innervation for the posterior 1/3 of the tongue?
Taste?
(129)
General sensory: IX n.
Taste: IX n.
What are the 4 extrinsic muscles of the tongue?
What are they innervated by?
(130)
Genioglossus. Styloglossus. Hyoglossus. Palatoglossus. ALL tongue mm are innervated (motor) by XII n except palatoglossus by X n.
What are the actions of the genioglossus?
130
Bilaterally: protrusion and depression.
Unilaterally: tongue will deviate towards contralateral side when protruding.
What is the action of the styloglossus m?
130
Retract and elevate the tongue.
What are the actions of the hyoglossus m?
130
Depress and retrude/retract the tongue.
What are the actions of the palatoglossus m?
130
Fauces sphincter and elevates tongue.
What is the innervation of the intrinsic tongue mm.?
What are their movements?
(130)
CN XII.
Fine tongue movements (important in speech).
What bones make up the hard palate?
132
Palatine process of maxilla (ant 2/3).
Horizontal plates of palatine (post 1/3).
What is the posterior termination of the soft palate called?
132
Uvula.
What does the soft palate do during swallowing?
132
Acts like a valve.
During swallowing, soft palate is elevated –> closing off the oral pharynx from the nasopharynx.
What are the 5 mm of the palate?
What are they innervated by?
(132-133)
Levator veli palatini. Tensor veli palatini. Musculus uvulae. Palatoglossus. Palatopharyngeus. All are innervated by CN X, except tensor veli palatini (CN V, V3).
What is the space b/w the palatoglossal folds called?
133
Fauces.
What does the general sensory innervation of the palate?
Taste?
(133)
General sensory: Palatine branches of V2 (maxillary n).
Taste: Greater petrosal n (br. of VII n).
What is the parasympathetic innervation to the palatine glands?
(133)
Secretomotor.
Preganglionics: greater petrosal n (br of CN VII).
Postganglionics: pterygopalatine ganglionic.
What are the arteries of the palate?
133
Palatine branches of maxillary and facial arteries, and sphenopalatine a.
What 2 nerve innervate the skin of the external nose?
135
V1 (Some of the superior bridge of the nose).
Infraorbital nerve-branch or V2 (Majority of the external nose).
What are the borders of the nasal cavity?
135
Floor: Palatine process of maxilla; Horizontal plate of palatine.
Roof: Nasal; Frontal; Ethmoid; Sphenoid
Medial wall: Anterior 1/2 is cartilage; Posterior 1/2 is Vomer and perpendicular plate of ethmoid.
Lateral wall: Maxilla; Ethmoid; Palatine; Interior concha; Nasal; Lacrimal.
What supplies the blood for the nasal fossae?
137
Anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries.
Nasal arteries from the sphenopalatine artery (from maxillary artery).
What does the general sensory innervation for the nasal fossae?
(137)
Ethmoidal nn: Ant. region of cavity.
Nasal nn: (V2) Majority of the cavity.
Infraorbital n: (V2) Vestibule of cavity (alae).
What does the olfaction innervation for the nasal fossae?
Autonomic innervation?
(137)
Olfaction: Olfactory n (CN I).
Autonomic:
Parasympathetic (secretomotor)- pregang=greater petrosal n.; postgang=pterygopalatin ganglion.
Sympathetic (vasomotor)
What are the functions of the paranasal sinuses?
138
Contributes to ones facial expressions.
Contributes to resonance qualities of voice.
Contributes to air exchange and moistens the air.
What are the 4 pairs of paranasal sinuses?
138
Frontal: Seckretions drain through the frontonasal duct into the middle meatus of the nasal fossa.
Ethmoid air cells: Drain into the superior and middle meatus.
Sphenoid sinuses: Drains anteriorly into the sphenoethmoidal recess.
Maxillary sinus: Largest; Drains into the middle meatus.
*Note: Nasal-lacrimal duct drains into the inferior meatus.
What is the retropharyngeal space?
139
The fascial plane that separates the pharynx from the cervical spine.
What are the 6 muscles of the pharynx and their actions?
139
Superior constrictor: Elevate and constrict pharynx.
Middle constrictor: Constricts pharynx.
Inferior constrictor: Constricts pharynx.
Stylopharyngeus: Elevates pharynx.
Palatopharyngeus: Elevates pharynx.
Salpingopharyngeus: Elevates pharynx.
*Note: All are innervated by CN X except the stylopharyngeus (CN IX).
What are the 3 divisions of the pharynx?
141
Nasopharynx, oralpharynx, laryngopharynx.
What is are adenoids?
141
When the pharyngeal tonsils hypertrophy in childhood infections.
What is the superior border of the oral pharynx?
Inferior?
(142)
Superior: Soft palate.
Inferior: Hyoid bone.
What is the superior border of the laryngopharynx?
Inferior?
(142)
Superior: Hyoid bone.
Inferior: Inferior border of the cricoid cartilage.
How does the laryngopharynx communicate anteriorly with the larynx?
(142)
Aditus of larynx.
What vertebra is the larynx adjacent to?
143
C4, 5, 6.
Connects the pharynx to the trachea
What are the major cartilages of the larynx?
143
Thyroid: C4, C5.
Cricoid: C6.
Epiglottic: Convex side to side.
Arytenoid: Paired; Pyramidal; Includes vocal process.
What do the vestibular ligaments connect?
144
Attaches the arytenoid cartilages to the thyroid cartilage.
What do the vocal ligaments connect?
144
Attaches the vocal process of the arytenoid cartilages to the thyroid cartilage.
T/F: Both the vestibular folds and the vocal folds are found in the lateral walls of the larynx?
(144)
True.
What are known as false vocal cords?
True vocal cords?
(145)
False= Vestibular folds. True= Vocal folds.
What are the 5 spaces of the larynx?
145
Aditus: Opening b/w laringopharynx and larynx.
Vestibule: Space or part that is above the vocal folds.
Infraglottic space: Space below glottidus.
Rima Glottidus: Slit-like space b/w left and right vocal folds.
Glottis: “Vocal apparatus” made up of vocal folds and rima glottidis.
What are the 2 extrinsic mm of the larynx?
146
Suprahyoid mm.
Infrahyoid mm.
What are the intrinsic muscles of the larynx innervated by and what are their actions?
(146)
CN X.
Open/close glottis or regulate the length/tension of the vocal folds.
What is the arterial supply of the larynx?
146
Superior laryngeal artery (branch of superior thyroid artery).
Inferior laryngeal artery (branch of inferior thyroid artery).
The Vagus nerve innervates the larynx. What are the branches that do the motor innervation to the intrinsic mm of the larynx?
(146)
Superior laryngeal n. (Internal and external laryngeal n branches).
Recurrent laryngeal n.
What are the 3 parts of the temporal bone?
67
Squamous: Includes mandibular fossa and articular tubercle of TMJ.
Tympanic: Helps to form much of the borders of external auditory meatus.
Petrous: encloses, stabilizes, and preserves the orientation of the elements of the inner ear.
T/F: The mastoid air cells connect to the middle ear cavity.
(67)
True.
What 3 things does the mastoid process serve as an attachment site for?
(67)
SCM, Post. belly of digastric m, and splenius capitus.
What does the styloid process serve as an attachment site for?
(67)
Muscles: Stylo- hyoid, glossus, and pharyngeus.
Ligaments: Stylo- hyoid, and mandibular.
What 4 elements of the ear are housed within the temporal bone?
(68)
External auditory meatus. Tympanic membrane (separates the external auditory canal from the tympanic cavity). Tympanic cavity (ear ossicles and muscles) Inner ear (osseous labyrinth and membranous labyrinth).
What are the 3 ear ossicles?
68
Malleus, incus, and stapes.
What are the 2 muscles of the tympanic cavity?
68
Temportympani m.
Stapedius m.
T/F: The tympanic membrane is oriented oblique to the vertical plane with the inferior edge of the tympanic membrane more lateral.
(70)
False.
The tympanic membrane is oriented oblique to the vertical plane with the inferior edge of the tympanic membrane more MEDIAL.
What is the general sensory innervation for the tympanic membrane?
(70)
V3, IX, X.
What 3 arteries share the blood supply to the tympanic membrane?
(70)
Maxillary a.
Posterior auricular a.
Superficial temporal a.
What are the 2 functions of the eustacian tube?
71
Drainage of secretions from the middle ear into the nasopharynx.
Equalization of pressure on the inside and the outside of the tympanic membrane.
What is mastoiditis?
72
When a middle ear infection spreads posteriorly into the mastoid air cells.
What part of the malleus attaches to the tympanic membrane?
What part articulates with the incus?
(72)
Tympanic membrane= malleus.
Head= incus.
What does the base of the stapes articulate with?
72
Oval window.
What is the collective function of the middle ear ossicles?
72
Couple movements of the tympanic membrane to movements of the footplate of the stapes –> changes in pressure of fluid of inner ear.
What are the 2 basic elements of the inner ear?
73
Osseous labyrinth (bony canals). Membranous labyrinth (membrane canals w/in the osseous labyrinth).
What is the vestibular reception that the membranous and osseous labyrinth provide for?
(73)
Monitors linear and rotational/angular motion of the head along with static position.
What are the 3 parts of the osseous labyrinth?
73
Vestibule: has 2 openings- oval window and round window.
Semicircular canals: has 3 canals (ant, post, and lat) with ampullae (dilations) at one end of each canal.
Cochlea: Turns around the modiolus (apex of turns is the cupola).
What is the membranous labyrinth filled with?
75
Endolymph.
What is the macula (utriculi)?
75
Specialized sensory receptor that monitors static position and linear motion of the head in space.
What pitches are monitored at the basal turns?
Distal part?
(78)
Basal turns: High pitches.
Distal part: Low pitches.
What could cause the organ of corti to be damaged?
78
If the auditory apparatus is exposed to excessively loud sounds.
(Damages the basal turn –> high hz deafness).
What are the 2 muscles of the middle ear?
What innervates them?
(78)
Tensor tympani (V,V3). Stapedius (VII).
What is the functional significance of the muscles of the middle ear?
(78)
Reflexively contracts in response to exposure to sounds of high intensity.
How does the chorda tympani n exit the base of the skull?
80
Petrotympanic fissure –> infratemporal fossa.
What are the 2 major components of the tympanic plexus?
80
Fibers from internal carotid n plexus.
Tympanic br of IX n. *
Where is the organ of corti located?
76
Cochlear duct.
Innervated by CN VIII- cochlear n
