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OD test 2 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

leukoedema

A

characterized by white hue or vertical wrinkles that disappear when skin is stretched

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2
Q

Actinic Keratosis

A

A preconcerous skin condition

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3
Q

what drugs cause gingival enlargement

A

Dilantin, cyclosporin, calcium blocckers

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4
Q

Oral Lichen Planus Description

A

oral Lichenoid mucositits
interlacing white lines with circular radiating lines

Caused by reaction to drugs( thiazides, beta blockers diaretics) or amalgam

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5
Q

purpura or ecchymosis

A

caused by extravation of blood

Described as red purple blotches mixed with yellow greenish backgroud

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6
Q

Epulis fissuratum

A

Denture induced: inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

Described as
Multiple soft tissue enlargements or thick folds with prominent fissure where denture flanges fit

categories as a physical injury

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7
Q

Morsicato buccarum/ Labiorum

A

Physical injury
Cheek and lip biting , a factitial injury

described by white patches of buccal and labial mucosa with ragged or shredded surface and areas of red underneath

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8
Q

Irritation from masticatory function may cause

A

Frictional Keratosis on gingiva

frictional keratosis on alveolar mucosa and retromolar pad/ridge

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9
Q

Chemical injury

A

Aspirin burn

thin white folds on mucosa can be peeled off

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10
Q

Leukoplakia

A

a white patch on
the oral mucosa which cannot
be removed by scraping and

cannot be attributed to any
other diagnosable disease

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11
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

A mixed red and white area at commisural mucosa, with IRREGULAR borders and mulberry looking growth.

Induration to palpulation

can be multiple red lesion on lip covered in crust stayed for more than 3 months

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12
Q

what is the major contribbuter of resting salivary gland

A

Submandibular gland

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13
Q

What is the main contributor of stimulate salivaa

A

Parotid gland

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14
Q

whats the difference between xerostoma and hyposalivation

A

xerostomia is a sensation

Hyposalivation is a reduced salivary flow rate

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15
Q

What is hyper salivation called

A

sialorrhea

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16
Q

how long would it take to notice xerostomia

A

sometimes until more than 50% is gone

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17
Q

What are signs of hyposalivation

A 
thin and atropic mucosa
mouth mirror sticks to muccal mucosa
Limited saliva flow
Disappearing of filiform and fungiform papillae
Cervical decays
Oral candidiasis
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18
Q

When is it considered hyposalivation

A

less than .1 g(ml)/minute unstimulated
less than .7 g(ml)/minuted stimulaateds
or both

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19
Q

When are men considered anemic

A

when Hb gets 13.5 g/dl

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20
Q

When are women considered anemic

A

Hb 12 g/dl

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21
Q

lichen planus has what kind of histology

A

Civatte bodies&
Intense fibrinogen deposition at the basement membrane zone is
typical of oral lesions of lichen planus

22
Q

Ecchymosis or purpura

A

extravasion of blood to skin surface

23
Q

epilus fissuratum

A

denture induced inflammatory fibrous hyperplasia

24
Q
  1. T/F Q: ulceration is total loss of epithelial layer. Erosion is thinning of epithelial layer
A

True and true

25
Q

angiodema is caused by what drug

A

Ace inhibitors

26
Q

what causes jaw bone necrosis

A

osteoporosis
cancer patients on anti resorptive and antiangiogenic drugs
pagent disease, osteopenia

27
Q

radionecrosis

A

when bone necrosis happens above 60 gray scale

28
Q

important anti resorptive drug

A

Bisphosphanate

29
Q

Trismus

A

muscle is involved inability to open, radiotherapy can contribute to trismus

30
Q

acceptable INR range Patient on oral anticoagulant therapy (AT) with warfarin (Coumadin):

A

2-3

31
Q

Patient on AT with warfarin due to artificial heart valve may have INR up to

A

3.5

32
Q

iNR reference range

A

0.8-1.2

33
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

INR can be used in assessing coagulation status of patients not take vitamin K

A

False

INR CAN NOT be used for assessing coagulation status of patients NOT taking vitamin K antagonists

34
Q

true or false

INR can be used to accurately reflect inhibition of coagulation in liver disease

A

False
The effect of ISI is much greater on PT in warfarin users than in liver disease individuals, therefore INR does NOT accurately reflect inhibition of coagulation in liver disease

35
Q

True or false
INR has no value in the new oral anticoagulants users (factor Xa inhibitor[Xarelto, Eliquis] or Factor IIa inhibitor[Pradaxa])

A

True

36
Q

what is PTR (prothrombin time ratio)

A

is the patient’s PT divided by that of reference control plasma PT: PTR = (PT)/(Ref Control PT)

37
Q

ISI stands for

A

International service index

38
Q

What is PT=Prothrobin Time used for

A

Detection of inherited or acquired couagulation defects

deficiencies in factor II V VII X and Fibrinogen
monitoring warfarin ratio using INR

39
Q

aPTT=

A

activated Partial Thromboplastin time

40
Q

Severe neutropenia

A

(ANC < 500) — severe risk of bacterial infection.

ANC=Absolute neutrophil count

41
Q

with Platelet count when does risk of increase bleeding occur

A

50,000/mm^3 =50k microliters

42
Q

with platelet count when does spontaneous bleeding occur

A

20,000/mm^3= 20K microL or less

43
Q

When is a patient considered thrombocytopenic

A

150,000 mm^3= 150K or less

44
Q

E1 caries

A

lesion is limited to the outer 1/2 of the enamel
Triangle base is at surface pointy part to the pulp… like drill(radiolucent)
seen radiographically only on Proximal surfaces

45
Q

E2

A

lesions penetrates more than 1/2 trough enamel up to DEJ

Can be seen radiographically ONLY on proximal surface

46
Q

D1

A

lesion in dentin less than 1/3

Rounded, poorly defined radiolucent

47
Q

Difference between enamel lesion. and dentin lesion

A

Enamel - sharp triangle

Dentin- rounded poorly defined

48
Q

D2 lesion

A

extends more than 1/3 but less than 2/3 towards the pulp

49
Q

D3

A

lesion extends more than 2/3 towards the pulp

50
Q

which disease has the fistula

A

CAA

51
Q

physical examination methods

A 
inspection
palpation
Percussion"
auscultation
Instrumentation
cold test
52
Q

true or false

a diagnosis is complete once u discover disease name

A

false

incomplete diagnosis until cause is I identified

OD test 2 (5 decks)

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