test 2 Flashcards

Properties of drugs and models of dependence

1
Q

what are pharmacodynamics?

A

they physiological actions of drugs

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2
Q

what are pharmacokinetics?

A

how drugs move through the body

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3
Q

what are the 4 stages of pharmacokinetics?

A
  1. absorption
  2. distribution
  3. biotransformation
  4. elimination
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4
Q

what are the routes of administration in order of fastest acting to slowest acting?

A

-intravenous
-inhalation
-insufflation
-intramuscular injection
-subcutaneous injection
-oral administration

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5
Q

what are the benefits of intravenous drug absorption? what are the risks?

A

-high concentrations can be delivered and there is no absorption limit
-veins may become damaged over time if the same injection site is used repeatedly and blood-borne diseases can spread

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6
Q

what happens in inhalation? what are the effects? what are the risks?

A

-the drug moves from the lungs into the bloodstream through the capillary walls
-rapid onset effects
-control of dose is difficult and lung toxicity

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7
Q

what happens in insufflation? how fast does it happen? what are the risks?

A

-absorption through the mucous membranes into the bloodstream
-within minutes
-nasal necrosis and hepatitis C (from sharing insufflation devices)

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8
Q

what is intramuscular injection? what are the benefits how is it useful?

A

-in a muscle
-absorption is more rapid due to greater blood supply in muscles
-useful with noncompliant patients

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9
Q

what is subcutaneous injection? what is the risk?

A

-under the skin
-can cause necrosis if the same injection site is used

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10
Q

how fast is oral administration?

A

relatively slow, 15-60 minutes

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11
Q

what must a drug go through when taken through oral administration?

A

-withstand digestive acid
-pass through the cells lining the gastrointestinal tract into the bloodstream (mostly in the small intestine)
-pass through the liver where they may be metabolized

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12
Q

why is oral administration used as the method for most over the counter and prescription medications?

A

it is the safest
-the stomach can be pumped in case of overdose
-some drug is broken down before it reaches the brain and the potential negative outcomes are reduced

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13
Q

what is distribution?

A

passage of the drug from the bloodstream to sites of action in the body

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14
Q

what is absorption?

A

drug being absorbed into the bloodstream and drug administration

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15
Q

what is bioavailibility?

A

the ability of a drug to reach a site of action (typically in the brain)

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16
Q

what is the blood-brain barrier?

A

barrier that surrounds the blood capillaries and vessels in the brain and prevents substances in blood from entering the brain

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17
Q

what is elimination?

A

process by which drug leaves the body; the goal is to produce a steady state of drug effects

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18
Q

what does the elimination rate determine? what is a half-life?

A

-how long the effects will last
-duration of time necessary for the body to eliminate half of the drug

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19
Q

how do drugs alter the availability of neurotransmitters during synthesis? what is an example?

A

-create the neurotransmitter molecule
-LDOPA for Parkinsons disease

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20
Q

how can drug affect neurotransmitter availability during storage in vesicles? what is an example?

A
  • immediate release of neurotransmitters instead of storage in vesicles
    -amphetamines, MDMA
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21
Q

what are examples of drugs that affect the availability of neurotransmitters during reuptake?

A

SSRIs and cocaine

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21
Q

how can drugs affect neurotransmitter availability during metabolism? what is an example?

A

-increase or decrease the enzyme that metabolize the neurotransmitter
-MAOI (monoamine oxidase inhibitor) antidepressants and acetylcholinesterase inhibitor for Alzheimer’s disease

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22
Q

what does an agonist do? what is an example?

A

-fully activates a receptor by sitting in and binding to a receptor site
-opiates (bind to endorphin receptors)

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23
Q

what does an antagonist do? what is an example?

A

-fails to activate receptor but bind to receptor site
- botox (blocks acetylcholine), naloxone (blocks opiate receptor sites and can displace opiate already bound to the receptor site), antipsychotics (block dopamine)

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24
Q

what is a positive modulator? what does it allow for? what is an example?

A

-drug that increases binding affinity and receptor efficacy
- allows for natural neurotransmitters to bind better to receptor sites
- benzodiazepines, alcohol

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25
Q

what is a negative modulator? what does it do?

A
  • drug that decreases binding affinity and receptor efficacy
    -decreases the effectiveness of neurotransmitters
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26
Q

what is binding affinity?

A

drug’s strength of binding to a receptor

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27
Q

what is receptor efficacy?

A

drug’s ability to alter the activity of the receptor

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28
Q

what is pharmacokinetic (drug dispositional) tolerance? what is it typically due to?

A

-reduction in amount of drug reaching site of action
-increased rate of catabolism or enzyme activity

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29
Q

what is pharmacodynamic tolerance? what happens when drug use is stopped?

A

-sensitivity of neurons may change after repeated use
-CNS experiences improper balance of neurotransmitters and withdrawal symptoms occur

30
Q

what is behavioral tolerance?

A

same biochemical effect but reduced behavioral effect as drug user learns to compensate

31
Q

what is cross tolerance?

A

tolerance for other drugs with similar mechanisms of action

32
Q

what happens in physical dependence?

A

-withdrawal symptoms which are a consistent set of symptoms that appear after discontinuing use of a drug; they are typically the opposite of the drug effects
-the body’s normal regulatory mechanisms compensate for the presence of a drug and when use stops, there is a physiological imbalance

33
Q

what is psychological dependence indicated by?

A

-high frequency of drug use
- craving for the drug
-tendency to relapse after stopping use

34
Q

what is positive reinforcement?

A

behavior increases when stimulus is present

35
Q

what is positive punishment?

A

behavior decreases when stimulus is present

36
Q

what is negative reinforcement?

A

behavior increases when a stimulus is removed

37
Q

what is negative punishment?

A

behavior decreases when a stimulus is removed

38
Q

what is incentive salience? what is the incentive salience model?

A
  • stimulus is easily recognized and payed attention to and stimulus motivates behavior that is directed towards it
    -shift from liking to wanting that explains why dependent users may want a drug more while liking the drug less; in the model, stimuli associated with drug use command attention and elicit a motivational state toward pursuing the drug
39
Q

what are the two key structures in reward circuitry?

A

nucleus accumbens and the ventral tegmental area (VTA)

40
Q

what does the VTA do?

A

releases dopamine int the nucleus accumbens

41
Q

how is GABA related to reward circuitry?

A

inhibits activity of dopamine (increases in GABA decreases the release of dopamine)

42
Q

how is the amygdala changed by chronic drug use?

A

-associates stimuli present during drug use with reinforcing effects of the drug
-elicits withdrawal symptoms and negative emotional state when drug is absent through connections with the hypothalamus and medulla

43
Q

how is the hippocampus changed by chronic drug use?

A

associates contextual cues with drug taking

44
Q

how is the basal ganglia (dorsolateral striatum) changed by chronic drug use?

A

-procedural memory
-ritualistic drug use behavior (behaviors that become automatic once learned)

45
Q

what is relapse?

A

return to a chronic drug use state that meets the clinical features of dependence

46
Q

what are the categories of remission? Define each.

A

-early remission- 3-12 months of no symptoms meeting dependence criteria
-sustained full remission- no symptoms of dependence for 12+ months
-maintenance- no symptoms while participating in treatment
- controlled environment- living in an environment where drugs are unavailable

47
Q

what was the purpose of the Harrison act of 1914? what other legislation did it inspire?

A

-required those who “produce, import, manufacture, compound, deal in, dispense, or give away” certain drugs to register and pay a special tax; initially it just controlled opiates and cocaine
- Marijuana tax act 1937 and drug abuse control act amendment 1965

48
Q

what is the criteria for a schedule I drug? give examples.

A
  • high potential for abuse, no accepted medical use, lack of accepted safety
  • heroin, MDMA, LSD
49
Q

what is the criteria for a schedule II drug? give examples.

A

-high potential for abuse, currently accepted medical use, abuse may lead to severe dependence
-cocaine, meth, PCP

50
Q

what is the criteria for a schedule III drug? give examples.

A

-potential for abuse less than I and II, currently accepted medical use, abuse may lead to moderate physical dependence or high psychological dependence
-anabolic steroids, barbiturates, dronabinol

51
Q

what is the criteria for a schedule IV drug? give examples.

A

-low potential for abuse relative to III, currently accepted medical use, abuse may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence relative to III
-benzodiazepines

52
Q

what is the criteria for a schedule V drug? give examples.

A

-low potential for abuse relative to IV, currently accepted medical use, abuse may lead to limited physical or psychological dependence relative to IV
-mixture with small amounts of codeine or opium

53
Q

what is contingency management? what does it assume?

A

-individuals receive rewards for providing drug-free urine samples
-drugs can function as reinforcers and long-term change requires finding competing reinforcers so providing incentives for abstinence often results in reduction in drug use

54
Q

what is cognitive behavioral therapy?

A

-an approach that combines cognitive therapy techniques with behavioral skill training
-individuals learn to identify and reduce urges to use
-identify and change behaviors that could lead to relapse-shown more effective than most therapies

55
Q

what is harm reduction?

A

public health policies or intervention programs designed to reduce the harmful consequences associated with substance use and high-risk activities

56
Q

what is a compensatory response?

A

a response that is counter to the primary process

57
Q

what is an unconditioned stimulus (US)?

A

stimulus that elicits a reflex response

58
Q

what is an unconditioned response (UR)?

A

a reflex response elicited by an unconditioned stimulus

59
Q

what is a neutral stimulus (NR)?

A

one that does not elicit a reflex or response

60
Q

what is a conditioned stimulus (CS)?

A

stimulus that elicits a conditioned response

61
Q

what is a conditioned response (CR)?

A

response elicited by a conditioned stimulus

62
Q

how does opponent-process theory account for tolerance?

A

having a stronger or higher opponent process makes it so more of the drug is needed to counter the opponent process and receive the reinforcing effects of the drug

63
Q

how does the opponent-process theory account for withdrawal?

A

with repeated presentations of the drug, the opponent process increases in strength and duration, so when the drug is removed the opponent process are more extreme causing withdrawal symptoms

64
Q

what is self-administration?

A

a common animal model used to assess the dependence liability of a drug

65
Q

what scale of reinforcement does self-administration use?

A

progressive-ratio scale

66
Q

what is a break point?

A

maximum amount of response effort the rat will devote to receive the reinforcer

67
Q

what are the steps of reinstatement?

A
  1. rat self-administers drug
  2. extinction where the drug is removed
  3. reinstatement where the rat goes back to the drug
68
Q

what is reinstatement?

A

the animal model of relapse

69
Q

what can be used to trigger reinstatement?

A

-shock that stresses the rat out
-provide a cue that was previously associated with drug use
-give the rat a small dose of the same drug or a similar drug as the one used in self-administration

70
Q

according to the DSM-V, what is substance use disorder?

A

a problematic pattern of substance use leading to clinically significant impairment or distress, as manifested by at least two symptoms occurring within a 12-month period

71
Q

what are the categories for substance use disorder?

A

-mild- 2-3 symptoms
-moderate- 4-5 symptoms
- severe- 6+ symptoms

72
Q

how many of the symptoms in the DSM-V describe psychological behaviors?