Test 1 Flashcards

Units 1, 2, and 3

1
Q

what are stimulants?

A

raise heart rate and activity in the central nervous system; increases activity in the sympathetic nervous system, increase in blood pressure, increase in awakeness and alertness

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2
Q

what are some examples of stimulants?

A

-amphetamines and methamphetamines
-ADHD medications
-caffeine
-crack and cocaine
-nicotine and tobacco
-bath salts

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3
Q

what are depressants?

A

decrease sympathetic nervous system; calming and relaxing; decrease blood pressure, breathing, and heart rate; decreases stress and anxiety

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4
Q

what are some examples of depressants?

A

-alcohol
-benzodiazepines (xanax)
-barbiturates
-sleeping pills (ambien)
-valium

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5
Q

what are hallucinogens?

A

alter perception of reality; can cause seeing or hearing things that are not there

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6
Q

what are some examples of hallucinogens?

A

-LSD/acid
-mushrooms
-DMT
-MDMA (molly, ecstasy)
-peyote
-salvia
- PCP (animal tranquilizers)
-ketamine

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7
Q

what are narcotics/opioids?

A

decrease our perception of pain

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8
Q

what are some examples of narcotics/opioids?

A

-fentanyl
-opium
-oxycodone
-Percocet
-codeine
-heroin
-vicodin

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9
Q

what are the effects of cannabis?

A

increases the heart rate, increases hunger, typically increases mood (some increases in anxiety)

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10
Q

what does a greater knowledge of psychoactive substances improve our understanding of?

A

-prescribed medical treatments
-health implications of taking recreational substances
-human behavior- what changes do you see when drugs are taken and what links can be made between behavior and the drug

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11
Q

how does personality correlate to drug use?

A

there is a strong correlation between how impulsive one is and drug use

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12
Q

how do genetics relate to drug use?

A

there is a general idea that there is a genetic predisposition towards drug dependence

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13
Q

what are some risk factors for drug use?

A

-having friends who use drugs
-engaging in “antisocial” or “problem behaviors” like stealing, vandalizing, getting into fights, and not attending school regularly
-perception that “everyone is doing it”
-positive attitude about drugs

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14
Q

what are some factors that can explain why one will use a drug for the first time?

A

-identification with a deviant subculture
-other problem behaviors
-positive attitude towards drugs

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15
Q

what are some factors that can explain why one will continue using a drug?

A

-reinforcing properties of a drug
-desire to experience an altered state

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16
Q

what is the definition of a drug? what are the limitations of this definition?

A

-administered substance that alters physiological functioning
-it excludes substances naturally occurring in the body and has an emphasis on physiological functions

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17
Q

what is psychopharmacology?

A

the study of how drugs affect mood, perception, thinking, or behavior

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18
Q

what is behavioral psychopharmacology?

A

study of how drugs affect behavior, emphasizes principles used in behavioral analysis

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19
Q

what is neuropsychopharmacology?

A

study of how drugs affect the nervous system and how these changes alter behavior

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20
Q

what is meant by “therapeutic drug use”?

A

drugs that are prescribed or that you are buying over the counter to treat an ailment

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21
Q

what is meant by “recreational drug use”?

A

using a drug for reasons other than what is prescribed; using to feel the effect of the drug itself

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22
Q

what is drug misuse?

A

use of drugs in greater mounts than or for purposes other than those intended by therapeutic use

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23
Q

what is drug abuse?

A

substance use in a manner, an amount, or in situations such that causes social, occupational, psychological, or physical problems

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24
Q

what is drug dependence?

A

a state in which an individual uses a drug so frequently or consistently that it would be difficult for the person to stop

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25
Q

what are the signs of drug dependence?

A

-a great deal of the individual’s time and effort is devoted to getting and using the drug
-the individual often winds up taking more than intended
-repeated attempts without success to cut down or control use

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26
Q

what is a trade name? what are some examples?

A

-developed for marketing the drug
-tylenol, lunesta, thorazine

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27
Q

what is a generic name? what are some examples?

A

-developed to describe a drug’s chemical structure and similarity to other drugs
-acetaminophen, chlorpromazine

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28
Q

what is a street name? what are some eamples?

A

-used for recreational drugs
-crack, weed, ecstasy

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29
Q

what are pharmacodynamics? what are they commonly referred to as?

A

-the physiological actions of a drug on the nervous system
-mechanisms of action

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30
Q

what are pharmacokinetics?

A

how drugs pass through the body. It includes how the drug is getting into your system and where in the body is it going

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31
Q

what are pharmacogenetics?

A

study of how genetic difference influence a drug’s pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic effects

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32
Q

what is a dose?

A

ratio of the amount of the drug per an organism’s weight

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33
Q

what does a dose effect/response curve depict?

A

the magnitude of a drug effect by dose

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34
Q

what is an ED50?

A

the dose at which 50% of subjects have an observed effect

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35
Q

what is potency?

A

amount of drug used to produce a certain level of effect

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36
Q

what is the equation for potency? What is a good rule when using the equation?

A

-ED50 (1st substance) / ED50 (2nd substance)
-put the bigger number first when calculating

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37
Q

What is a TD50?

A

dose at which 50% of subjects experience a particular adverse effect

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38
Q

what is the equation for the therapeutic index? what does this mean?

A

-TD50 / ED50
-how different is a dose that produces toxic effects in half of subjects from a dose that produces a full therapeutic effect

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39
Q

what is the equation for the certain safety index? what does this mean?

A

-TD1 / ED99
-drug developers use this for a more conservative calculation that attempts to avoid overlapping therapeutic and toxic dose

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40
Q

what is an objective effect?

A

effects that can be directly observed by others

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41
Q

what is a subjective effect?

A

effect that cannot be directly observed by others

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42
Q

what is an independent variable? give an example.

A

-what is being manipulated, different treatment groups; what we can control
-drug vs placebo, different doses of a drug

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43
Q

what is a depending variable? give an example.

A

-what is being measured
-behavioral measure, number of words remembered

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44
Q

what is a confounding variable? give an example. How can we control confounding variables?

A

-a factor other than the IV that might produce an effect
-years of drug use
-random assignment

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45
Q

what is a correlational study? Give an example.

A

-a measure of the extent to which two factors vary together
-duration of MDMA use and memory ability

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46
Q

what is an experimental study? what designs can an experimental study have? Give examples of each.

A

-alter an IV to determine if changes occur to a DV
-two arm and three arm
-treatment and placebo
-high dose, low dose, placebo

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47
Q

what is a placebo?

A

substance identical in appearance to a drug, but physiologically inert

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48
Q

what is a single-blind procedure?

A

participants are blind to which group they are assigned

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49
Q

what is a double-blind procedure?

A

both participants and experimenters are blind to treatment assignment

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50
Q

what is an open-label procedure? when would it be used?

A

-treatment assignment is known by all
-used when disguising study medications has ethical consequences or is impractical in things such as cancer treatments

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51
Q

what is internal validity?

A

adequacy of controlling variables that may influence a dependent variable (control of confounding variables)

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52
Q

what is external validity? How does this relate to animal studies?

A

-ability to extend findings beyond study conditions
-they must be generalizable to humans

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53
Q

what is face validity?

A

test appears to measure what a researcher considers it to measure

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54
Q

what is construct validity?

A

how well a study’s findings relate to the underlying theory of a study’s objectives

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55
Q

what is predictive validity?

A

ability of model to predict treatment effects

56
Q

why do we do animal research?

A
  • it has high predictive validity for drug effects meaning there is a strong relationship between changes in animal behavior and the changes we want to see in humans
    -carefully controlled environment
    -no real feasible alternatives because studies on cell, tissue, and computer simulations provide important information but fail to model the complexity of living organisms
    -
57
Q

what is the IACUC?

A

-the Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee
-institutions doing federally funded research must establish this ethics board and abide by its rules and regulations

58
Q

what are the 3 Rs of ethical considerations for animal use? define each.

A

-replacement- necessity of animal use
-reduction- minimum number of subjects
-refinement- minimize pain and distress

59
Q

what was the Nuremburg (1947) code?

A

rose after the Nuremburg trials in which humans were severely mistreated in lab studies in Nazi Germany

60
Q

What is the IRB?

A

-Human Subjects Institutional Review Board
- ethics board for humans

61
Q

what is informed consent?

A

through understanding of a study’s procedures, possible gain, and potential risks, human participants can freely decide to enroll in a study
-does not apply to animals

62
Q

what was the 1906 Pure Food and Drug Act?

A

product contents must be accurately listed on the label
-voluntary cooperation and compliance was initially encouraged by the FDA

63
Q

what was the 1912 Sherely Amendment?

A

outlawed “false and fraudulent” therapeutic claims on labels

64
Q

what was the 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act?

A

required pre-market testing for toxicity
-companies now required to submit a New Drug Application
-limited new drugs from small, untrained companies

65
Q

what was the 1962 Kefauver-Harris Amendment?

A

pre-approval required before human testing
-advertising for prescription drugs must include information about adverse reactions
-every new drug must be demonstrated to be effective for the illness mentioned on the label

66
Q

what are neurons?

A

specialized cells in the nervous system that control behavior, senses, and movement
-receive and transmit information to other neurons and cells in the nervous system and body

67
Q

What do glia do?

A

-supports the function of neurons
-provide firmness and structure to the brain
-get nutrients into the system
-eliminates waste
-form myelin which allows action potentials to be sent faster down the axon

68
Q

what does the autonomic nervous system do?

A

controls self-regulated action of internal organs and glands

69
Q

what parts is the autonomic nervous system made of?

A

-sympathetic (arousal) nervous system
-parasympathetic (calming) nervous system

70
Q

what does the central nervous system consist of?

A

the brain and spinal cord

71
Q

what are the four defined regions of the neuron?

A
  1. cell body
  2. dendrites
  3. axon
  4. axon terminal
72
Q

what is the cell body (soma) of a neuron?

A

contais the nucleus and other structures that support the neuron’s basic physiological process

73
Q

what are the dendrites of a neuron?

A

contains receptors which receive information from other neurons

74
Q

what is the axon of a neuron?

A

conducts the action potential leading to the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic gap

75
Q

what is the axon terminal?

A

controls synaptic vesicles which store neurotransmitters

76
Q

what is an interneuron?

A

neuron with soma and axon found within the same structure

77
Q

what are sensory neurons?

A

convey sensory information to the CNS
-axon in the PNS going to the CNS

78
Q

what are afferent neurons?

A

axon going into another structure

79
Q

what are motor neurons?

A

convey motor information from the CNS
-axon in the CNS sending information to the PNS

80
Q

what are efferent neurons?

A

axons coming from another structure

81
Q

what are the three types of glial cells? define each

A
  1. oligodendrocytes- creates myelin
  2. astrocytes- forms the blood-brain barrier, facilitates neural function, and responds to injury
  3. microglial cells- remove cellular waste; serve as immune cells in the CNS
82
Q

what are the brain structures that aid in involuntary movement?

A

-medulla
-hypothalamus

83
Q

what is the medulla?

A

-controls the autonomic nervous system
-suppressed by opioids and depressants

84
Q

what is the hypothalamus?

A

-controls the pituitary gland
-directs maintenance activities such as hunger, thirst, temperature, sexual activity, sleep, etc

85
Q

what are the brain structures that aid in sensory perception and cognitive functions?

A

-frontal lobe
-parietal lobe
-occipital lobe
-temporal lobe

86
Q

what does the frontal lobe do?

A

planning of movements, recent memory, and some aspects of emotion like impulsivity

87
Q

what does the parietal lobe do?

A

body (tactile) sensations

88
Q

what does the occipital lobe do?

A

processes visual information

89
Q

what does the temporal lobe do?

A

processes auditory information and language

90
Q

what are the brain structures that aid in voluntary movements?

A

-thalamus
-basal ganglia
-substantia nigra
-cerebellum

91
Q

what does the thalamus do? what is it commonly referred to as?

A

-all information taken in from the senses (except smell) goes to the thalamus first, and then it sends it out to other brain areas
“sensory switchboard”

92
Q

what does the basal ganglia (striatum) do?

A

-stabilizes movement
-procedural memories (“how to” memories)

93
Q

what does the substantia nigra do?

A

-regulates activity on the basal ganglia by reducing dopamine

94
Q

what does the cerebellum do?

A

balances and coordinates movement
-inhibited by alcohol

95
Q

what brain structures aid in learning and memory?

A

-in the limbic system, the hippocampus, amygdala, and nucleus accumbens
-prefrontal cortex
-reticular formation

96
Q

what does the hippocampus do?

A

-process long-term declarative memory like things learned in school and personal stories about life

97
Q

what does the amygdala do?

A

fear and aggression regulation

98
Q

what does the nucleus accumbens do? How does it relate to psychopharmacology?

A

-facilitates reinforcement
-it is important for drug dependence when dopamine is released in the nucleus accumbens

99
Q

what does the prefrontal cortex do?

A

-facilitates working memory
-integrates sensory information

100
Q

what does the reticular formation do?

A

-keeps brain active
-supports arousal in the cerebral cortex

101
Q

what is DNA?

A

specific coding instructions for the basic functions of cells

102
Q

what are genes?

A

segment of DNA encoded with traits expressed in an organism

103
Q

what is polymorphism?

A

difference in the gene that encodes for a trait
-aids in understanding individual differences in drug effects

104
Q

what is neurotransmission?

A

the transmission of information between neurons. involves release of neurotransmitters from a neuron into a synapse, which then act on sites in the adjacent neuron

105
Q

what is electrical potential?

A

difference between electrical charge within the inside and outside of a neuron

106
Q

what is polarization? when does it happen?

A

-negative inside the neuron, positive outside the neuron
-during resting potential

107
Q

what is depolarization? what can it lead to?

A

-decrease in the difference between the negative inside and positive outside
-an action potential when negative charge inside becomes less

108
Q

what is hyperpolarization? what does it do to the charge of a neuron?

A

-once the action potential has been sent, increase in the difference between the negative inside and the positive outside
-becomes more negative

109
Q

what is an excitatory postsynaptic potential?

A

depolarizes a local potential

110
Q

what is an inhibitory postsynaptic potential?

A

hyperpolarizes a local potential

111
Q

what is a nerve impulse?

A

change from resting to action potential

112
Q

what is resting potential?

A

negatively charged at the local potential preceding action potential; a negative charge is being maintained in the cell

113
Q

what is action potential?

A

rapid depolarization in which the potential in the neuron temporarily becomes more positive than the outside
-all Na+ channels open

114
Q

what is the refractory period?

A

time following the action potential in which a neuron cannot produce another action potential

115
Q

what happens during the absolute refractory period?

A

-no action potentials can be produced
-K+ channels open and K+ exits

116
Q

what happens during the relative refractory period?

A

-Na+ channels can be opened
-local potentials remain polarized
-action potentials can occur, but with greater excitatory potentials

117
Q

what do myelin sheaths do for neurotransmission?

A

increase the speed of conduction

118
Q

what are nodes of Ranvier? what are saltatory connections?

A

-unmyelinated sections of the axon
-jumping of action potentials from one node to another

119
Q

what are the steps of the neurotransmitter lifecycle (5)?

A
  1. synthesis
  2. stored in vesicles
  3. voltage-gated Ca2+ channels open
  4. bind to the receptors on dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron
  5. termination
120
Q

why are neurotransmitters stored in vesicles?

A

to protect neurotransmitters from being destroyed or released early

121
Q

when do voltage gated Ca2+ channels open? What happens in this process?

A

-following action potential
-fusing of a synaptic vesicle to axon membrane and release of neurotransmitter into the synapse through the Ca2+ channel

122
Q

what are the two ways termination can happen? describe each.

A
  1. catabolism- enzymatic breakdown in which the neurotransmitter binds to an enzyme which breaks it down
  2. reuptake- neurotransmitter is taken back up to the originating axon terminal if it does not bind to a receptor site
123
Q

what are receptors?

A

proteins located in neuron membranes that can be bound to and activated by neurotransmitters

124
Q

what do antagonists do?

A

blocks neurotransmitters from binding to a receptor site hence decreasing the effect of a neurotransmitter

125
Q

what do agonists do?

A

mimics neurotransmitters and activates the receptor site

126
Q

which neurotransmitters are amino acids?

A

-glutamate
-GABA

127
Q

which neurotransmitter is a modified amino acid?

A

acetylcholine

128
Q

which neurotransmitters are monoamines?

A

-serotonin
-dopamine
-norepinephrine
-epinephrine

129
Q

which neurotransmitter is a neuropeptide?

130
Q

what is glutamate? what is the name of its receptor site? what is it catabolized by?

A

-major excitatory neurotransmitter
-NMDA
-glutamine synthetase

131
Q

what is GABA? why is GABA(A) important? what is GABA catabolized by?

A

-major inhibitory neurotransmitter
-influences the effects of depressants on the CNS
-GABA aminotransferase

132
Q

what is dopamine? which monoamine group is it in? what is the precursor? what is it catabolized by?

A

-catecholamine
-L-DOPA
-monoamine oxidase (MAO)

133
Q

what are the names of the dopamine receptor sites? what are the two groups? which receptors are included in each and what do they do?

A

-D1, D2, D3, D4, D5
-D1 group and D2 group
-D1- D1 and D5; have excitatory effects
-D2- D2, D3, D4; have inhibitory effects

134
Q

what is norepinephrine? which monoamine group is it in? what are the names for the receptor sites and what do they do? what is it catabolized by?

A

-catecholamine
-alpha and beta receptors producing either inhibitory or excitatory effects
-monoamine oxide (MAO)

135
Q

what is serotonin? what are the other names for it? which monoamine group is it in? what is the precursor? what are the names for the receptor sites? what is it catabolized by?

A

-5-HT
-indoleamine
-5-hydroxytryptophan
- 5-HT1, 5-HT2, 5-HT3, 5-HT4, 5-HT5, 5-HT6, 5-HT7
-monoamine oxidase (MAO)

136
Q

what is acetylcholine? what is the name of the receptors? what is the name of each receptor? what is it catabolized by? how can it help Alzheimer’s disease?

A

-cholinergic receptors
-nicotinic (nicotine) and muscarinic (shrooms)
-acetylcholinesterase
-acetylcholinesterase inhibitors help stop the reuptake of the neurotransmitter