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Microbiology 2320 > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

sterilization

A

destruction of all forms of microbial life

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2
Q

examples of sterilization

A

boiling and incineration

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3
Q

disinfection

A

destructions of disease-causing micoorganism

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4
Q

examples of disinfection

A

bleach

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5
Q

antisepsis

A

disinfection safe for use on human tissues

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6
Q

examples of antipsis

A

iodine and peroxide

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7
Q

sanitize

A

microbial control to public health standards
use of sanitizers prevents epidemics

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8
Q

decontaminate

A

make safe to handle

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9
Q

-cide

A

denotes killing

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10
Q

-stat

A

denotes inhibition

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11
Q

pasteurization

A

heat treatment of food to prevent spoiling and kill certain microbial pathogens

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12
Q

what does pasteurization kill

A

vegetative bacteria, not endospores

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13
Q

preservation

A

any physical or chemical treatment of food that inhibits microbial growth and spoilage

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14
Q

examples of preservation

A

refrigeration, radiation, low pH, chemicals, salting, drying

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15
Q

microbial factors

A

microorganisms vary in susceptibility to killing and are ranked in seven groups. log-phase bacteria are more susceptible to killing, stationary are more resistant

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16
Q

environmental factors

A

temperature, pH, and presence of organic matter surrounding and protecting the microorganisms

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17
Q

ranking of microorganism in resistance to killing

A

bacterial endospores
fungal spores
mycobacteria
naked viruses (non-lipid coated)
fungi
bacteria
lipid-coated viruses

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18
Q

rate of death

A

under constant conditions is constant and logarithmic

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19
Q

how does dry heat kill microbial

A

oxidizes or burns the cell components

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20
Q

how does moisture heat kill microbial

A

hydrolyzes chemical bonds (faster than oxidation
)

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21
Q

positive features of killing with heat

A

effective, fast, reliable, cheap, non-toxic

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22
Q

negative features of killing with heat

A

heat or moisture may damage some products

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23
Q

how does the autoclave kill with moist heat

A

sterilizes (kills endospores
uses steam under pressure
uses 121 degrees at 15 pounds per square inch for 15 min.
items get wet

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24
Q

who discovered pasteurization

A

louis pasteur

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25
Q

how does pasteurization kill microorganisms

A

uses combination of heat and tike to selectively kill them
food becomes safe to heat but not sterile

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26
Q

what are the three types of pasteurization

A

low temp long time: 62 C for 30 min
high temp short time: 72 for 15 sec.
ultra high temp: 140 C for 3 sec.

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27
Q

examples of dry heat

A

hot air oven: 170 C for 2 hours, used on items that wont burn
incineration: for bacteriological loops, bunson burners, commercial products

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28
Q

filtration

A

cellulose filters have pores smaller than microorganisms: air or fluid pass through to filter

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29
Q

where are disinfectants registered

A

EPA

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30
Q

where are sterilants registered

A

FDA

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31
Q

what system is used for disinfectants in hospitals

A

spaulding system (after Earle H. Spaulding)

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32
Q

sterilants

A

produce sterility, for critical items

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33
Q

high-level disinfectants

A

kill all pathogens for semi-critical

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34
Q

intermediate-level disinfectants

A

kill mycobacteria and below on killing scale

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35
Q

low-level

A

disinfectants kill less resistant microorganisms, for non critical items

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36
Q

how should chemicals be used

A

according to directions/instructions for use

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37
Q

common alcohols

A

ethanol and isopropanol

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38
Q

how are alcohols used

A

in small amounts as antiseptics (which are flammable)

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39
Q

what do alcohols do

A

dissolve lipids and disrupt membranes (proteins)

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40
Q

how are alcohols usually concentrated

A

70% in water; more powerful are 100%
example, hand sanitizer and wipes

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41
Q

common halogens

A

iodine and chlorine

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42
Q

how to halogens work

A

oxidize protiens

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43
Q

what is the concentration of chlorine

A

0.5 ppm in water = bleach

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44
Q

example of a halogen

A

betadine before surgery

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45
Q

iodine

A

iodine is a tincture (with alcohol) or idophor (a chemical that controls the release of halogens)

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46
Q

what do phenol and phenolics do

A

damage plasmic membrane

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47
Q

do phenol and phenolics have residual activity on surfaces

A

yes

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48
Q

where is phenol and phenolics used most

A

operating rooms because they can damage some materials

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49
Q

how do aldehydes act

A

inactives proteins and DNA

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50
Q

examples of aldehydes

A

formaldehyde and glutaraldehyde

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51
Q

what are aldehydes used for

A

as a general purpose high-level disinfectant

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52
Q

is aldehydes classified as hazardous

A

yes

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53
Q

how do quaternary ammonium compounds work

A

disrupt the cell membrane

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54
Q

what is the general purpose of quaternary ammonium compounds

A

is a low-level disinfectant, applied with a squirt bottle and left on for 10 miin

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55
Q

how do metals work as a chemical

A

combine with -SH groups, denature proteins

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56
Q

examples of metals as a chemical

A

silver nitrate ointments, mercury, copper

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57
Q

where are metals commonly used

A

burns, dosen’t sting of irritate skin

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58
Q

ethylene oxide gas

A

denatures proteins and DNA
used for some heat sensitive hospital instruments

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59
Q

plasma sterilizers

A

generate superoxide radicals in vapor form
can replace autoclaves in some applications but not others

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60
Q

ionizing radiation

A

destorys DNA
gamma and x-ray
used for foods and some hospital supplies

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61
Q

UV light

A

damages DNA
used for clean surfaces and in air ducts
used in some situations to kill TB
does not penetrate or bend around corners

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62
Q

chemicals as preservation products

A

germicidal chemicals can be added to products that are not consumed
benzoic, sorbic, and propionic can be used in food safe to eat, reduces need for refrigeration

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63
Q

temperature as preservation products

A

refrigerator and freezer

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64
Q

reducing water available as a preservation product

A

adding salt or sugar
drying or freeze drying

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65
Q

organic catalysts

A

enzymes

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66
Q

what are enzymes

A

proteins which speed up rate of chemical reactions by lowering activation energy. the chemical bond is formed or broken at the enzyme’s active site

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67
Q

what are small non-protein molecules that help the reaction and that enzymes may require

A

coenzymes

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68
Q

how are enzymes made and controlled by

A

DNA
proteins come from RNA and RNA comes from DNA

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69
Q

can we use enzymes to identify bacteria

A

yes

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70
Q

what do enzyme rates depend on

A

temperature and pH

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71
Q

what do regulatory molecule do

A

turn on and off the enzyme

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72
Q

how can enzymes be competitively inhibited

A

substrates that are similar interfere with each other at the active site (some antibiotics work this way)

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73
Q

the chemical reactions that take place in a cell

A

metabolism

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74
Q

synthesize larger molecules and components from smaller ones, requires energy and small chemical components

A

anabolic reactions

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75
Q

take larger molecules and break them up, releasing the energy in their chemical bonds.

A

catabolic reactions

76
Q

how does bacteria vary in their metabolism

A

ability for substrates to get in varies and presence of the right enzymes varies

77
Q

what does the efficiency of metabolism vary on

A

substrate and pathway

78
Q

what are sequential enzymatic reactions that result in a product and can be linear or cyclical

A

metabolic pathways

79
Q

can we identify bacteria based on their metabolism

A

yes

80
Q

is metabolism high controlled

A

yes

81
Q

what is stored and transferred in chemical bonds

A

energy

82
Q

how many breakable phosphate bonds does ATP have

A

2

83
Q

what releases energy

A

removing a phosphate in ATP

84
Q

what does NAD/NADP

A

store and release hydrogen atoms

85
Q

adding a H is

A

reduction

86
Q

removing an H is

A

oxidation

87
Q

what connects anabolic and catabolic pathways when they work concurrently in the cell

A

ATP and NAD, energy from the catabolic feeds the anabolic

88
Q

common bacteria pathways

A

glycolysis, krebs, pentose phosphate

89
Q

with these, bacteria can catabolize food and make the precursors for things they need

A

sugars for carbohydrates
amino acids for proteins
nucleic acids for RNA and DNA

90
Q

most common catabolic pathway

A

glycolysis

91
Q

what do glycolysis start with

A

glucose

92
Q

most common energy source

A

glucose

93
Q

what does glucose split into in glycolysis pathways

A

3-carbon molecules on pyruvate

94
Q

yield of glucose

A

2 ATP and 2 NADH

95
Q

metabolism of pyruvate without oxygen

A

fermentation

96
Q

what does pyruvate convert to

A

lactic acid, acetaldehyde, other mixed organic compounds

97
Q

can end products of fermentation unique to each species and can they be used to identify bacteria

A

yes

98
Q

another name for krebs cycle

A

tricarboxylic acid or respiration

99
Q

krebs cycle is

A

an aerobic reaction (requires oxygen)

100
Q

what does krebs cycle start with

A

pyruvate from glycolysis

101
Q

during krebs cycle what does the rest of the energy from pyruvate become

A
  • three CO2 and water
  • releases almost all the energy in the glucose
  • captures enough energy for 15 ATP
  • more efficient but requires oxygen
102
Q

what is an alternative energy source to glycolysis

A

pentose phosphate pathway

103
Q

what is pentose phosphate pathway important for

A

supplying 4-carbon and 5-carbon molecules to other pathways

104
Q

what is performed by algae and photosynthetic bacteria

A

photosynthesis

105
Q

what captures light energy which is used to make fructose from atmospheric CO2 and water

A

photosynthesis

106
Q

another name for the calvin cycle

A

photosynthesis

107
Q

what is a DNA molecules structure

A

double helix

108
Q

what does a subunit of DNA consist of

A

nucleotides, a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate, and a pryimidine or purine base.

109
Q

what are strands of DNA

A

chains of sugars and phosphates held by covalent bonds, with the bases pointing outward

110
Q

what are the two strands of DNA held together by

A

weaker hydrogen bonds between the bases and are twisted

111
Q

what determines the other strand of DNA

A

the sequence of the original strand

112
Q

nitrogenous bases are

A

complementary (adenine bonds to thymine, guanine with cytosine)

113
Q

where is the deoxyribose missing

A

the -OH on the second carbon

114
Q

how many rings does purine have

A

2

115
Q

how many rings does pyrimidines have

A

1

116
Q

where is pentoses connected to on DNA

A

between 3 and 5 carbon, connected by strong covalent phosphate bones

117
Q

where is the base attached to DNA

A

1 carbon and sticks out from the chain of pentose

118
Q

how do the chromosomes line up in two single strand

A

opposite directions (antiparallel)

119
Q

base pairing

A

the bases form hydrogen (weak) bones with each other

120
Q

complementary base pairing

A

the pyrimidines bind to the purines
thymine always binds with adenine using 2 hydrogen bonds
cytosine always binds with guanine using three hydrogen bonds

121
Q

what does the helix twist into

A

supercoil (takes up less space)

122
Q

what shape is the DNA molecule in bacteria

A

ends are connected and is one circular chromosome

123
Q

what is the spot on the circle where replication always starts

A

origin of replication

124
Q

what does DNA replication result in

A

one exact copy of the original DNA chromosome

125
Q

what sits on the origin of replication, unwinds the helix, separates the hydrogen bonds of the base pairs, and adds new nucleotides to the template strand

A

DNA polymerase complex

126
Q

what direction does DNA replication proceed in

A

both directions

127
Q

when is replication complete

A

when the two forks meet

128
Q

what does semiconservative mean

A

describes replication because it results in two chromosomes, each with one new strand and one old strand in its helix

129
Q

are both strands replicated continuously

A

no, one strand is done continuously and the other is done discontinuously because the enzymes van only go in one direction

130
Q

what is used to make RNA

A

DNA

130
Q

what is used to make proteins

A

RNA

131
Q

what is the purpose of DNA

A

to make and control the making of protein

132
Q

making RNA from DNA

A

transcription

133
Q

making proteins from RNA

A

translastion

134
Q

what determines everything that happens in the cell

A

proteins (as structural or enzyme proteins)

135
Q

what shape is RNA

A

single strand

136
Q

what does RNA use instread of thymine

A

uracil

137
Q

what are the three RNA

A

messenger, ribosomal, transfer

138
Q

messanger RNA

A

forms an exact copy of DNA

139
Q

ribosomal RNA

A

helps from ribosomes

140
Q

transfer RNA

A

brings the amino acids to the ribosome

141
Q

genes

A

DNA coding regions, a DNA sequence that produces one protein

142
Q

what is a promotor

A

just prior to the coding region allows transcription to be turned on or off

143
Q

terminator

A

stops transcription

144
Q

what does RNA polymerase enzyme do

A

make a new mRNA strand from one of the DNA strands

145
Q

RNA polymerase binds to the DNA regulatory region and starts making RNA at the beginning of the coding region

A

initiation

146
Q

The polymerase moves along the DNA strand, adding RNA nucleotides together to make mRNA complementary to the DNA template

A

elongation

147
Q

the polymerase comes to the end of the gene, hits the stop codon, stops and falls off

A

termination

148
Q

what are linear polymers made from 20 different amino acids

A

proteins

149
Q

what codes for one amino acids

A

a set of three nucleotides

150
Q

what is making RNA and proteins called

A

gene expression

151
Q

each of the 20 amino acids is coded for by a set of three consecutive RNA nucleotides called what

A

codon

152
Q

stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

153
Q

start codon

A

AUG

154
Q

what does the cell make proteins from linear single-stranded mRNA using

A

genetic code

155
Q

how much energy is required for translation

A

90%

156
Q

uses transfer RNA and ribosomes:

A

-the cell has 20 unique tRNA; one for each amino acid
-each tRNA holds its amino acids on one end and has a complementary codon on the other end that sits onto the mRNA

157
Q

large molecules with two parts:
- ribosomal RNA
- proteins

A

ribonucleoprotien

158
Q

small subunit that holds the mRNA being translated

A

ribosome

159
Q

what does the large subunit of ribosomes do

A

aligns the tRNA holding amino acids

160
Q

how are bacterial ribosomes different

A

they are smaller

161
Q

what holds the mRNA single strand

A

ribosomes

162
Q

what rides in the groove between the small and large subunits of ribosome particles

A

mRNA

163
Q

how many binding sites for tRNA does ribosomes have

A

2

164
Q

what kind of bond is formed when the ribosome grabs the tRNA that it needs for its first two codons and holds them next to each other

A

peptide bond

165
Q

what holds the first tRNA; the anticodon bound to the corresponding mRNA codon

A

peptide site

166
Q

what accepts the incoming tRNA that it needs for its next codon

A

acceptor site

167
Q

proteins from one amino acids at a time

A

the peptide site tRNA transfers it’s amino acid to the acceptor tRNA, then falls off, the protein now has one more amino acid and is still sitting in the acceptor site

168
Q

what moves forward on codon during elongation of RNA

A

ribosome

169
Q

when what is formed, does a protien lengthen by on amino acid

A

peptide bond between new amino acid

170
Q

bacterial translation is

A

fast

171
Q

are all proteins functional after they come off the ribosome

A

no some are not and they need to be folded into their proper 3-D shape by chaperone enzymes and some need to be transported across the cell membrane

172
Q

what do regulatory mechanisms do

A

turn synthesis of protein on or off at the gene level.

173
Q

what is the region called where all the enzymes of one pathway are

A

promotor region

174
Q

polycistronic

A

can code for more that one protein on one mRNA

175
Q

cistron

A

RNA that codes for one protein

176
Q

introns

A

only in eukaryotic cells; non-coding RNA that needs to be cut out

177
Q

repressor

A

end product of a pathway that turns off transcription of the genes for all the pathway enzymes at the regulatory site when enough product has been produced.

178
Q

inhibitor

A

the end product of a pathway goes back and turns off the first enzyme in the pathway

179
Q

inducer

A

the presence of the nutrient that needs to be metabolized that turns on the regulatory region, allowing the genes to be turned on and enzyme made only when they are needed

180
Q

enzymes that are normally off but can be turned on are

A

inducible

181
Q

enzymes that are always on

A

constitutive

182
Q

when a cells in a population of bacteria communicate with each other to coordinate the metabolism of the population as a group

A

quorum setting

183
Q

an external signal sensed by bacteria

A

signal transduction

184
Q

the study of the DNA sequence of an orangism

A

genomics

185
Q

what may be useful in the design of new drugs

A

genomics

Microbiology 2320 (2 decks)

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