Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Category: Science
In medical terminology, the role of the combining vowel is to tell the primary meaning of a word.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

The role of the combining vowel in medical terminology is not to indicate the primary meaning of a word. Instead, the combining vowel is used to facilitate pronunciation and improve the flow of the term. It is inserted between word roots, prefixes, and suffixes to create a smoother and more easily spoken term. The combining vowel does not carry its own independent meaning.

For example, in the term “cardiology,” the combining vowel “o” is inserted between the word root “cardi-” (meaning “heart”) and the suffix “-logy” (meaning “study of”). The combining vowel “o” helps connect the components of the word, making it easier to pronounce: “car-di-ol-o-gy.”

Similarly, in the term “dermatology,” the combining vowel “o” is used between the word root “dermat-” (meaning “skin”) and the suffix “-logy.” This aids in pronunciation: “der-mat-ol-o-gy.”

Therefore, the combining vowel in medical terminology does not convey the primary meaning of a word.

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2
Q

Category: Science
The principle that seeks to eliminate all microorganisms that cause disease is called:

A. Asepsis.
B. Medical asepsis.
C. Asepsis techniques
D. Surgical asepsis.

A

The correct answer is A.

The principle of asepsis is the absence of all harmful microorganisms that cause disease. Surgical asepsis and medical asepsis techniques follow the principle of asepsis. Asepsis techniques are the activities or procedures that prevent or break the chain of infection. They can be divided into two types: medical asepsis, which is a cleaning technique that reduces the number of microorganisms or minimizes their spread (e.g., instrument decontamination and handwashing), and surgical asepsis, which are procedures performed to eliminate the presence of microorganisms (e.g., proper processing and storage of surgical instruments).

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3
Q

Category: Science
________ is tissue, body fat, blood, and other bodily substances.

A. Contaminated waste.
B. Gross soil.
C. Mucous tissue.
D. Biofilm.

A

The correct answer is B.

Gross soil refers to any visible contaminant, such as tissue, body fat, blood, and other bodily substances, that can be seen on a surgical instrument or equipment. It is important to effectively remove gross soil to ensure proper cleaning and disinfection of instruments.

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4
Q

Category: Science
What is the process called when microorganisms attach to surfaces and form a colony?

A. Biofilm
B. Gross soil
C. Colony
D. Microbial adhesion

A

The correct answer is A.

Biofilm. Biofilm refers to the process in which microorganisms attach to surfaces and form a colony-like structure. It involves the adhesion of microorganisms to a surface, followed by their growth and development into a complex community known as a biofilm. This biofilm can be resistant to disinfection and contribute to the persistence of microorganisms in certain environments.

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5
Q

Category: Science
What does the suffix “ectomy” mean?

A. Surgical removal
B. To cut
C. To repair
D. Inflammation

A

The correct answer is A.

The term “ectomy” means surgical removal. For example:

Cystectomy – Removal of the cyst

Tonsillectomy – Removal of the tonsils

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6
Q

Category: Science
What is the outer covering of a cell that regulates what enters and leaves it called?

A. Cytoplasm
B. Cell wall
C. Nucleus
D. Cell membrane

A

The correct answer is D.

The cell membrane is the outer covering of a cell that regulates what enters and leaves it.

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7
Q

Category: Science

What is the function of the connective tissue in the human body?

A. Provides support and stores energy
B. Acts as a means of transport of food and oxygen to all parts of the body
C. Covers the external surface of the body
D. A and B
E. All of the above

A

The correct answer is A.

Connective tissue provides support and stores energy in the human body.

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8
Q

Category: Science

Microorganisms have the capacity to form a thick wall around themselves. This enables them to survive under adverse conditions. These thick walls are called:

A. Endospores
B. Biofilm
C. Pathogens
D. Micron

A

The correct answer is A.

Microorganisms form endospores, which are thick walls that enable them to survive under adverse conditions.

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9
Q

Category: Science

Bacteria that are capable of causing disease are called:

A. Pathogens
B. Micron
C. Endospores
D. Aerobic bacteria

A

The correct answer is A.

Bacteria that are capable of causing disease are called pathogens.

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10
Q

Category: Science

The male sex hormone produced in the testes that promotes the development of sperm cells and maintains secondary sex characteristics is called:

A. Sperm duct
B. Ejaculatory duct
C. Testosterone
D. Scrotum

A

The correct answer is C.

Testosterone is the male sex hormone produced in the testes that promotes the development of sperm cells and maintains secondary sex characteristics.

The sperm duct allows the transit of sperm from the testicles to the outside of the body and allows the maturation of sperm cells themselves.

The ejaculatory duct is a duct formed by the joining of the seminal vesicles with the vas deferens through which semen moves during ejaculation.

The scrotum is a sac in which the testes are suspended.

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11
Q

Category: Science

Which mode of transmission involves infectious agents carried by insects or arthropods?
A. Direct contact
B. Indirect contact
C. Droplet transmission
D. Vector-borne transmission

A

The correct answer is D. Vector-borne transmission

Vector-borne transmission involves infectious agents carried by insects or arthropods, such as mosquitoes, ticks, or fleas.

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12
Q

Category: Science

Which type of bacteria prefers high-temperature environments areas?
A. Psychrophiles
B. Mesophiles
C. Thermophiles
D. Tetrophiles

A

The correct answer is C. Thermophiles

Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high-temperature environments, typically ranging from 45°C to 80°C or even higher. They have adapted to withstand extreme heat found in places like hot springs or hydrothermal vents.

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13
Q

Category: Science

Prions are most frequently found in which part of the body in infected patients?
A. Heart
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Brain

A

The correct answer is D. Brain

Prions are most frequently found in the brain of infected patients.

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14
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

When it is necessary to transport soiled items between facilities using a truck or van, facilities must consult the U.S. Department of Transportation, as well as state and local laws for transporting biohazardous items.

True
False

A

The correct answer is A. True

Facilities must consult the U.S. Department of Transportation and adhere to state and local laws for transporting biohazardous items when necessary. It is important to comply with the regulations and guidelines to ensure safe and proper transportation of biohazardous materials.

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15
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
Because there are effective high-level disinfectants for cleaning surgical instruments, it does not matter if the soil is left to dry on them.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

Dry blood and soil make it difficult to clean and could potentially damage the instrument. It is always best to prevent soil from drying on instruments and to use wetting agents to keep the instruments moist, making them easier to clean and disinfect.

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16
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds are the disinfectant of choice for semi-critical devices.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds are low-level disinfectants used for environmental sanitation, such as floors and furniture.

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17
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
It is acceptable to reuse disposable masks and gowns if they appear clean and undamaged.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

Disposable masks and gowns are designed for single-use only and should not be reused. Reusing them may compromise their effectiveness and increase the risk of contamination. Referance Chapter: Cleaning and Decontamination

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18
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

An Ortho surgery was performed on a 45-year-old patient successfully, but after about a week, the patient’s wounds were not healing. A test was conducted, and it was noticed that there is a surgical site infection. What could be the cause of the infection?

A. The medical device used for the surgery was not processed according to the manufacturer’s instructions for use (IFU).
B. An instrument fell during the procedure and was wiped and given to the surgeon to use.
C. The patient’s body is not responding to treatment.
D. A and B.

A

The correct answer is D.

Both options A and B could potentially cause a surgical site infection. Option A suggests that if the medical device used for the surgery was not processed according to the manufacturer’s instructions for use (IFU), it could have introduced contaminants and increased the risk of infection. Option B indicates that if an instrument fell during the procedure and was not properly sterilized again before use, it could have introduced bacteria or other microorganisms into the surgical site, leading to infection. Both factors, improper processing of the medical device and improper handling of instruments can contribute to surgical site infections. Option C is not directly related to the cause of the infection

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19
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
An SP technician was seen wearing a ring during an inspection by the infection control nurse. They were told it was not allowed and would face disciplinary action. Why are jewelry and long fingernails not allowed in the Central Service Department?

A. They are expensive.
B. Jewelry can harbor bacteria.
C. They may get damaged while working.
D. Jewelry may fall and get lost in the patient’s body.

A

The correct answer is B.

The primary reason for not allowing jewelry and long fingernails in the Central Service Department is the potential risk of harboring bacteria. Jewelry, such as rings, can create spaces where bacteria can accumulate and be difficult to clean thoroughly. This poses a risk of contamination to the sterile processing environment and the instruments being processed. Similarly, long fingernails can also harbor bacteria and make it challenging to maintain proper hand hygiene. Options A, C, and D are not the primary reasons for restricting jewelry and long fingernails in the Central Service Department.

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20
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

A Sterilization technician received instruments from the Operating Room and needs to clean them. What should they wear to protect themselves from splashes and spills?

A. Fluid-resistant gowns.
B. Double cloth gowns.
C. Sterile Operating Room gowns.
D. B and C.

A

The correct answer is A.

A fluid-resistant gown protects the skin and scrubs and provides a barrier against splashes and spills. The complete PPE should include a fluid-resistant gown, face shield, heavy-duty gloves, and shoe covers. Option B is not correct because one fluid-resistant gown is sufficient protection for the SP technician, as recommended by the HSPA group. Also, since these gowns generate heat, it would be very uncomfortable to work in the decontaminated department with two gowns on. Option C is not correct because sterile gowns are specially designed for use in operating theaters and cannot resist fluids like fluid-resistant gowns since they are lighter and can easily tear.

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21
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

A new SP technician has been constantly getting sick. She took a lab test, and the results show she has an infection. It was also noticed that her fingernails are long, and she would always put them in her mouth. What could be the cause or means of infection?

A. Her fingernails could harbor microorganisms.
B. Since her fingernails are long, they could easily tear the gloves, and she may not notice.
C. Long fingernails are not a problem in the Central Service Department as long as they are clean.
D. A and B are correct.

A

The correct answer is D.

The presence of long fingernails can contribute to the spread of infection in a healthcare setting. Fingernails can harbor microorganisms, including bacteria and viruses, which can be easily transferred to surfaces, equipment, or even directly to patients. Additionally, long fingernails can increase the risk of glove tears, allowing microorganisms to come into direct contact with the technician’s hands. Therefore, both factors—the potential presence of microorganisms on the fingernails and the increased risk of glove tears—can contribute to the technician getting infected.

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22
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

A sterile processing (SP) technician arrives at work in the morning and is about to set up their workstation in the decontamination area. What should they consider when setting up the wash sink?

A. The first sink should be filled with water and an enzymatic solution.
B. The temperature of the water should be between 80°F to 110°F and should be monitored.
C. The detergent manufacturer’s instructions for use (IFU) should be followed.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

When setting up the wash sink in the decontamination area, the SP technician should consider multiple factors to ensure proper cleaning and decontamination of instruments.

Referance Chapter: Regulations and Standards

A. The first sink should be filled with water and an enzymatic solution: This is important as the enzymatic solution helps in the breakdown of organic debris on the instruments, facilitating effective cleaning.

B. The temperature of the water should be between 80°F to 110°F and should be monitored: The temperature of the water is crucial for optimal enzymatic activity and detergent effectiveness. It should be within the recommended range, and regular monitoring ensures consistency.

C. The detergent manufacturer’s IFU should be followed: Each detergent has specific instructions for use provided by the manufacturer. Following these instructions ensures proper dilution, usage, and effectiveness of the detergent.

By considering all of these factors, the SP technician can ensure an appropriate setup of the wash sink and maintain a high standard of cleanliness and decontamination in the decontamination area.

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23
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

While working in the Central Service department, you accidentally cut yourself with a contaminated surgical instrument. What should you do?

A. Continue working and wash the cut later.
B. Immediately report the incident to your supervisor or designated individual.
C. Ignore the cut if it seems minor.
D. Wait until the end of your shift to report the incident.

A

The correct answer is B. Immediately report the incident to your supervisor or designated individual.

In the event of an exposure incident, it is crucial to immediately report the incident to your supervisor or designated individual. This ensures that proper evaluation and follow-up actions can be taken to address the potential risk of bloodborne pathogens.

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24
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

You are preparing to perform the decontamination process, and you notice that one of the members of the team is not wearing a mask properly, leaving their nose exposed. What should you do in this situation?

A. Ignore it since it’s not your responsibility.
B. Inform the team member about the importance of wearing the mask properly.
C. Proceed with the procedure as long as you and others are wearing masks correctly.
D. Report the incident to the hospital administration

A

The correct answer is b Inform the team member about the importance of wearing the mask properly.

Wearing masks properly is crucial for preventing the spread of infectious agents, especially in a surgical setting where the risk of contamination is high. By informing the team member about the proper way to wear the mask, you are promoting adherence to infection control protocols and ensuring the safety of everyone involved in the surgical procedure. It is essential to address such issues promptly to maintain a safe and sterile environment. Ignoring the situation (option a) or proceeding with the procedure without addressing the issue (option c) can compromise infection control practices. Reporting the incident to the hospital administration (option d) should be considered if the team member continues to disregard mask-wearing guidelines despite being informed

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25
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

You receive a cart of soiled surgical instruments in the decontamination room. What is the first step you should take?

A. Inspect the instruments for any visible damage.
B. Sort the instruments based on their type and size.
C. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).
D. Rinse the instruments to remove any visible debris.

A

The correct answer is C: Wear appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE).

Before handling any soiled instruments, it is crucial to prioritize personal safety by wearing appropriate PPE. This includes gloves, goggles, masks, and gowns, as necessary, to protect against potential exposure to contaminants or hazardous materials.

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26
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

You are preparing a flexible endoscope for steam sterilization. However, the manufacturer’s instructions state that the endoscope should not be exposed to steam. What should you do?

A. Proceed with steam sterilization as usual
B. Use an alternative sterilization method recommended by the manufacturer
C. Dry the endoscope thoroughly before steam sterilization
D. Increase the sterilization time and temperature to compensate

A

The correct answer is B: Use an alternative sterilization method recommended by the manufacturer

It is crucial to follow the manufacturer’s instructions for sterilization. If the manufacturer advises against steam sterilization, an alternative method should be used to ensure the endoscope’s integrity.

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27
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

Hand hygiene is one of the asepsis techniques used to minimize the spread of microorganisms from one area of the department to another. In this light, it should be lathered and scrubbed properly for at least:

A. 10 – 15 seconds.
B. 20-30 seconds.
C. 40-60 seconds.
D. 5-10 minutes

A

The correct answer is B.

Proper hand hygiene involves lathering and scrubbing hands for an adequate duration to effectively remove microorganisms. The recommended duration for handwashing is typically 20-30 seconds. This allows enough time for the soap or antimicrobial agent to work effectively in removing dirt, oils, and microorganisms from the hands. Options A, C, and D do not align with the recommended duration for proper hand hygiene.

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28
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

Since hand hygiene is one of the bases of asepsis, when should it be performed?

A. Hand hygiene should be performed before starting work.
B. When entering or leaving a work area.
C. Hand hygiene should be done before handling instruments and medical devices for sterilization.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is D.

Hand hygiene is a critical component of asepsis, aiming to prevent the transmission of microorganisms and maintain cleanliness. It should be performed in the following situations:

Before starting work: Hand hygiene is necessary before beginning any work, especially in healthcare settings, to ensure clean hands and minimize the risk of self-contamination and contamination of others and the surrounding environment.
When entering or leaving a work area: Hand hygiene is important upon entering a work area to remove any potential microorganisms acquired during the transition. Similarly, it is crucial when leaving a work area to prevent the spread of microorganisms to other areas or individuals.
Before handling instruments and medical devices for sterilization: Clean hands are essential when handling instruments and medical devices that require sterilization. Practicing hand hygiene before handling these items helps prevent the introduction of harmful microorganisms and maintains the effectiveness of sterilization processes.
Therefore, the correct answer is D. Hand hygiene should be performed in all of the mentioned situations to ensure comprehensive infection control and promote a safe and hygienic environment.

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29
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

The only way to interrupt the transmission of a causative agent is to:

A. Sterilize all items..
B. Wear appropriate personal protective equipment in the Decontaminated area always.
C. Involve the Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
D. Eliminate it.

A

The correct answer is D.

Causative agents are microorganisms that cause infectious diseases. A causative agent is the first link in the chain of infection. If you can eliminate it, then you have broken the cycle. This can be done by initiating the appropriate processes, such as using asepsis techniques to avoid cross-contamination, physically removing the contaminated substance through cleaning, and using effective disinfection and sterilization processes.

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30
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

When should the floor in the Central Service Department be cleaned?

A. Twice a day.
B. Floors should be cleaned once every day.
C. Floors should be wet-mopped daily.
D. Each time the floor is physically dirty.

A

The correct answer is C. Floors should be wet-mopped daily or as needed..

Option D is not correct because there is no specific method of cleaning mentioned. Simply swiping is not allowed as it would raise dust, which may land on instruments and contaminate them. Also, the floor should be wet-mopped daily even if it appears physically clean, not just when it is visibly dirty.

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31
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

________ is the best way of transporting soiled instruments.

A. In an open cart.
B. In plastic bags that are clearly labeled as biohazardous
C. In an enclosed cart.
D. In a tray.

A

The correct answer is C.

All used surgical instruments must be transported in an enclosed cart to reduce or eliminate cross-contamination. This helps maintain a safe and controlled environment for handling and transporting soiled instruments.

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32
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

What is the term for the removal of all visible and non-visible soil and other foreign material from a medical device being reprocessed?

A. Cleaning
B. Decontamination
C. Sterilization
D. Disinfection

A

The correct answer is A.

Cleaning is the first and most important step in the decontamination process. One can clean without sterilization but can never sterilize without cleaning.

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33
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

A sterile processing (SP) technician arrives at work in the morning and is about to set up their workstation in the decontamination area. What should they consider when setting up the wash sink?

A. The first sink should be filled with water and an enzymatic solution.
B. The temperature of the water should be between 80°F to 110°F and should be monitored.
C. The detergent manufacturer’s instructions for use (IFU) should be followed.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

When setting up the wash sink in the decontamination area, the SP technician should consider multiple factors to ensure proper cleaning and decontamination of instruments.

A. The first sink should be filled with water and an enzymatic solution: This is important as the enzymatic solution helps in the breakdown of organic debris on the instruments, facilitating effective cleaning.

B. The temperature of the water should be between 80°F to 110°F and should be monitored: The temperature of the water is crucial for optimal enzymatic activity and detergent effectiveness. It should be within the recommended range, and regular monitoring ensures consistency.

C. The detergent manufacturer’s IFU should be followed: Each detergent has specific instructions for use provided by the manufacturer. Following these instructions ensures proper dilution, usage, and effectiveness of the detergent.

By considering all of these factors, the SP technician can ensure an appropriate setup of the wash sink and maintain a high standard of cleanliness and decontamination in the decontamination area.

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34
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

Why is water degassed each time the ultrasonic cleaner’s tank is changed?

A. Excess bubbles reduce the effectiveness of the detergent.
B. Excess bubbles from filling reduce the energy of the cavitation process.
C. Excess bubbles decrease the temperature of the tank.
D. Excess bubbles make it difficult to see items being cleaned.

A

The correct answer is B.

Excess bubbles interfere with the cavitation process, making it less effective in the cleaning process.

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35
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

What process uses electrical current in a solution to produce a metallic coating?

A. Electroplating
B. Impingement
C. Electrophoresis
D. Cavitation

A

The correct answer is A.

Electroplating is the process that uses electrical current in a solution to produce a metallic coating.

Impingement is the mechanical spray force action of pressurized water against instruments being processed to physically remove bio-burden.

Cavitation is the process used by an ultrasonic cleaner in which low-pressure bubbles in a cleaning solution burst inward and dislodge soil from instruments.

Electrophoresis is a laboratory technique used to separate DNA, RNA, and protein molecules based on their sizes and electrical charge.

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36
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

What is the mechanical spray force action of pressurized water against instruments being processed to physically remove bio-burden called?

A. Electroplating
B. Impingement
C. Electrophoresis
D. Cavitation

A

The correct answer is B.

Impingement is the process by which washer-disinfectors use a high spray force of heated water and chemicals to disinfect reusable medical devices.

Cavitation is the process used by an ultrasonic cleaner in which low-pressure bubbles in a cleaning solution burst inward and dislodge soil from instruments.

Electrophoresis is a laboratory technique used to separate DNA, RNA, and protein molecules based on their sizes and electrical charge.

Electroplating is the process that uses electrical current in a solution to produce a metallic coating.

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37
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

What are the important factors SP technicians should remember when using water for a mechanical washer to be effective and serve its purpose according to the manufacturer’s recommendations?

A. Remove all disposable items, such as filters, that may clog the water.
B. Do not overload the water racks, and spray arms should move freely during operation.
C. Disassemble all instruments, and small parts should be placed inside an approved container device.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is D. All of the above factors should be considered for the proper and effective use of the washer disinfector.

When using a mechanical washer, SP technicians should keep in mind several important factors to ensure the effectiveness and proper functioning of the equipment according to the manufacturer’s recommendations. Let’s examine each option and the rationale behind it:

A. Remove all disposable items, such as filters, that may clog the water: Disposable items like filters can potentially obstruct the water flow within the washer, leading to inadequate cleaning and disinfection. Removing these items ensures unimpeded water circulation and enhances the washer’s performance.

B. Do not overload the water racks, and spray arms should move freely during operation: Overloading the water racks can hinder the proper circulation and distribution of water, resulting in incomplete cleaning and disinfection. It is crucial to maintain sufficient spacing between items and allow the spray arms to move freely to ensure thorough coverage of water during the washing process.

C. Disassemble all instruments, and small parts should be placed inside an approved container device: Disassembling instruments before placing them in the washer allows for better access to all surfaces and ensures proper cleaning and disinfection. Placing small parts in an approved container device prevents their loss or damage during the washing cycle. It also helps in organizing and facilitating the reassembly process.

By considering and implementing these factors, SP technicians can optimize the performance of the washer disinfector, promote effective cleaning and disinfection of instruments, and adhere to the manufacturer’s recommendations.

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38
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

What is a chemical used on living tissue to slow the growth of microorganisms called?

A. Glutaraldehyde
B. Disinfectant
C. Antiseptics
D. Halogens

A

The correct answer is C.

Antiseptics are used on the body, while disinfectants are used on non-living things.

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39
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

Which member of the halogen family is used for the treatment of water and sewage? It is often recommended for biohazard clean-up procedures.

A. Hydrogen Chloride
B. Alcohol
C. Halogens
D. Chlorine

A

The correct answer is D.

Chlorine is a member of the halogen family and may be found in SPD as a hypochlorite solution.

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40
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection

Which of the following statements about sharps disposal is correct?

A. It is acceptable to overfill a sharps container if necessary.
B. Sharps containers should be disposed of in regular trash bins.
C. Containers should be replaced when they are 75% full.
D. Sharps containers should be kept in a locked cabinet.

A

The correct answer is C. Containers should be replaced when they are 75% full.

Sharps containers should not be overfilled, as it increases the risk of injury and may compromise the integrity of the container. When a sharps container reaches approximately 75% of its capacity, it should be replaced to ensure safe and proper disposal of sharps. This allows for adequate space and prevents overflow or accidental exposure to used sharps

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41
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
What should be done if a soiled item is too large or bulky to fit in a standard container?

A. Cut the item into smaller pieces for easier transportation.
B. Wrap the item in multiple layers of plastic bags.
C. Use specialized oversized containers for such items.
D. Transport the item uncovered to save time.

A

The correct answer is C. Use specialized oversized containers for such items

If a soiled item is too large or bulky to fit in a standard container, specialized oversized containers should be used. These containers are designed to accommodate larger items safely and effectively during transportation.

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42
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
Which of the following describes non-critical items in Spaulding Classification?

A. Items that come into contact with intact skin
B. Items that come into contact with mucous membranes
C. Items that penetrate soft tissues or bone
D. Items that require high-level disinfection or sterilization

A

The correct answer is A. Items that come into contact with intact skin

Non-critical items in Spaulding Classification refer to items that come into contact with intact skin, such as blood pressure cuffs, stethoscopes, or crutches. These items have a low risk of transmitting infection and typically require low-level disinfection.

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43
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
What should be done if a soiled item is found to be damaged or missing parts during transportation?

A. Document the issue and report it to the supervisor.
B. Dispose of the item immediately to avoid any safety risks.
C. Attempt to repair the item before continuing transportation.
D. Ignore the issue and continue transporting the item.

A

The correct answer is A. Document the issue and report it to the supervisor.

If a soiled item is found to be damaged or missing parts during transportation, it should be documented, and the issue should be reported to the supervisor. This ensures proper tracking, assessment, and resolution of the issue to maintain the quality and safety of the processing operations.

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44
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
Which level of Spaulding Classification requires the highest level of disinfection or sterilization?

A. Non-critical
B. Semi-critical
C. Critical
D. Disposable

A

The correct answer is C. Critical

Critical items in Spaulding Classification require the highest level of disinfection or sterilization. This is because they come into contact with sterile tissues and have the highest risk of transmitting infection.

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45
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
During manual cleaning of flexible endoscopes, which of the following should be used to brush the channels?
A. Abrasive scrub brushes
B. Toothbrushes
C. Disposable swabs
D. Channel cleaning brushes

A

The correct answer is D. Channel cleaning brushes

Channel cleaning brushes should be used to brush the channels. These brushes are specifically designed for the size and shape of the endoscope channels, allowing for effective cleaning without causing damage. Abrasive scrub brushes (option A) can damage the delicate surfaces of the endoscope. Toothbrushes (option B) are not suitable for cleaning endoscope channels as they may not reach all areas and can introduce contaminants. Disposable swabs (option C) are useful for cleaning external surfaces but are not effective for cleaning the channels.

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46
Q

Category: Cleaning, Decontamination & Disinfection
Which of the following is NOT one of the six elements of the chain of infection?
A. Causative agent
B. Reservoir
C. Mode of transmission
D. Infection prevention

A

The correct answer is D. Infection prevention

The six elements of the chain of infection are causative agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Infection prevention refers to the measures taken to interrupt the chain of infection but is not one of the elements.

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47
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
It is acceptable to wear casual clothing, such as jeans or t-shirts, as long as they are clean and in good condition, in the packing area.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

In the packing area, casual clothing, such as jeans or t-shirts, is
not acceptable even if they are clean and in good condition. Dress code requirements usually call for more formal attire, such as scrubs or uniforms, to maintain a professional appearance and minimize the risk of contamination.
Referance Chapter: Assembly and Packaging

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48
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
You are preparing for packaging delicate surgical instruments. What should you consider when selecting packaging materials for these instruments?

A. Compatibility with sterilization methods.
B. Resistance to tears, punctures, and moisture.
C. Ability to provide cushioning and protection.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is A. All of the above.

When selecting packaging materials for delicate surgical instruments, it is important to consider their compatibility with sterilization methods, their resistance to tears, punctures, and moisture, and their ability to provide cushioning and protection to the delicate instruments.

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49
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
You are preparing the work area for packaging surgical instruments. You notice that one of the packaging materials has a small tear near the seal. What should you do?

A. Use the material as long as the tear is small and does not compromise sterility.
B. Discard the material and replace it with a new, undamaged one.
C. Attempt to repair the tear using adhesive tape.
D. Use the material but mark it with a label indicating the tear.

A

The correct answer is B. Discard the material and replace it with a new, undamaged one.

Even a small tear near the seal of a packaging material can compromise its integrity and the sterility of the packaged items. It is crucial to discard the damaged material and replace it with an undamaged one to ensure the packaging process is carried out properly.

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50
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
You are responsible for training a new staff member in the packing area. The staff member arrives for training wearing open-toe sandals.

Question: What is the appropriate response to the situation?

A. Proceed with the training and mention the dress code requirement during breaks.
B. Allow the staff member to continue wearing open-toe sandals if they feel comfortable.
C. Explain the dress code requirement and provide the staff member with suitable footwear options.
D. Consult with your supervisor to determine whether open-toe sandals are permissible in the packing area.

A

The correct answer is C. Explain the dress code requirement and provide the staff member with suitable footwear options.

In this scenario, it is important to address the dress code requirement immediately to maintain a safe working environment. By explaining the requirement and offering suitable footwear options, you can ensure compliance with the dress code policy.

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51
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
You are performing routine lubrication on a piece of equipment in the Central Service department. While applying the lubricant, you notice that it has exceeded its expiration date.

Question: What should you do in this scenario?

A. Continue using the expired lubricant since it is still in good condition.
B. Dispose of the expired lubricant and find a replacement from the department’s stock.
C. Complete the lubrication process without using any lubricant.
D. Consult with your supervisor to determine the appropriate action.

A

The correct answer is B. Dispose of the expired lubricant and find a replacement from the department’s stock.

Using expired lubricant may compromise the effectiveness and quality of lubrication. It is important to dispose of the expired lubricant and find a replacement from the department’s stock to ensure proper lubrication of the equipment

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52
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
You have received a set of robotic surgical instruments that require decontamination. What should you do before initiating the decontamination process?

A. Follow the same process as for standard surgical instruments.
B. Disassemble the robotic instruments completely into individual components.
C. Consult the manufacturer’s instructions for specific decontamination guidelines.
D. Skip the decontamination process as robotic instruments are sterile.

A

The correct answer is C: Consult the manufacturer’s instructions for specific decontamination guidelines.

Complex robotic surgical instruments have unique decontamination requirements. It is essential to consult the manufacturer’s instructions or guidelines for specific decontamination procedures to ensure proper cleaning and maintenance of these instruments.

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53
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
You are working with a new heat sealer in the Central Service department. What is the recommended practice for operating the heat sealer?

A. Begin using it without any additional precautions.
B. Familiarize yourself with the manufacturer’s instructions before operation.
C. Ask a coworker to demonstrate how to use it.
D. Skip reading the instructions as it is a standard heat sealer.

A

The correct answer is B: Familiarize yourself with the manufacturer’s instructions before operation.

Familiarizing yourself with the manufacturer’s instructions is essential to ensure safe and effective operation of the heat sealer. Following the recommended guidelines helps prevent accidents and damage.

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54
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
The importance of point-of-use treatment and transportation of surgical instruments is:

A. Removal of gross soil and preventing damage.
B. Prevention of cross-contamination and keeping others safe.
C. Timeliness.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is D.

The importance of point-of-use treatment and transportation of surgical instruments includes the removal of gross soil to prevent damage, prevention of cross-contamination to keep others safe, and ensuring timeliness in handling and processing instruments. All of these factors contribute to maintaining quality and safety in instrument management.

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55
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
What should be done in the event of a sharps injury?

A. Keep it to yourself and continue working
B. Wash the area with soap and water and continue your work
C. Report the incident to a supervisor and seek immediate medical attention
D. Apply a bandage and resume work

A

The correct answer is C. Report the incident to a supervisor and seek immediate medical attention

In the event of a sharps injury, it is crucial to report the incident to a supervisor or responsible authority within the healthcare facility. Seeking immediate medical attention is also necessary to assess the injury, receive appropriate treatment, and follow any necessary protocols for potential exposure to infectious materials.

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56
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
What is the purpose of preparing the work area before packaging?

A. To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements
B. To enhance the efficiency of the packaging process
C. To minimize the risk of contamination
D. All of the above

A

The correct answer is D. All of the above

Preparing the work area before packaging serves multiple purposes. It ensures compliance with regulatory requirements, enhances the efficiency of the packaging process, and minimizes the risk of contamination by creating a clean and organized environment.

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57
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
How often should sharpness testing be performed on surgical instruments?

A. Before each use
B. Once a week
C. Whenever the surgeon is complaints
D. At least once a month

A

The correct answer is A. Before each use

Sharpness testing should be performed before each use of surgical instruments to ensure their sharpness and prevent potential harm during procedures.

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58
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
Which of the following is an advantage of using double pouch packaging?

A. It provides enhanced visibility of the item.
B. It allows for easy identification of the packaged item.
C. It offers an extra layer of protection against contamination.
D. It is the most cost-effective packaging method.

A

The correct answer is C. It offers an extra layer of protection against contamination.

Double pouch packaging provides an extra layer of protection against contamination, which enhances the sterility and integrity of the packaged item.

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59
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
Can the expiration date of a sterilized item be extended beyond the predetermined date if it appears to be in good condition?

A. Yes, as long as it passes visual inspection
B. Yes, if approved by the department supervisor
C. No, the predetermined expiration date must be followed
D. No, unless validated by additional microbial testing

A

The correct answer is C.

The expiration date of a sterilized item must be followed and cannot be extended based on visual inspection or personal judgment. It is essential to adhere to established expiration dates to maintain patient safety.

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60
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
When labeling a peel pouch, where should you write the necessary information?

A. On the paper side of the peel pouch.
B. On the plastic side of the peel pouch.
C. On the back of the peel pouch.
D. Labeling is not required for peel pouches.

A

The correct answer is B. On the plastic side of the peel pouch.

When labeling a peel pouch, it is recommended to write the necessary information on the plastic side of the peel pouch. This ensures that the label remains visible and legible even after sterilization.

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61
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
How should a dry leak test be performed for flexible endoscopes?
A. Pressurize the scope and submerge it in water
B. Attach the leak tester and pressurize the scope without submerging it in water
C. Rotate the distal end of the endoscope in water to observe air bubbles
D. Flush water through all channels to remove air bubbles

A

The correct answer is B. Attach the leak tester and pressurize the scope without submerging it in water

A dry leak test for a flexible endoscope should be performed by attaching the leak tester to the endoscope and pressurizing the scope without submerging it in water. The dry leak test is conducted to check whether the endoscope is watertight and free from any leaks. The scope is pressurized using a hand pump or an automated system, and the pressure is monitored using a gauge. If the pressure drops during the test, it indicates a leak in the endoscope, and it should be sent for repair. This method of leak testing is recommended by some manufacturers and is an important step in ensuring the integrity of the endoscope before further cleaning and disinfection processes.

62
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
What is the first step in the cleaning process for flexible endoscopes?
A. High-level disinfecting
B. Precleaning
C. Drying
D. Storing

A

The correct answer is B. Precleaning

The first step in the cleaning process for flexible endoscopes is precleaning. Precleaning involves the removal of gross debris from the external surfaces and internal channels of the endoscope. It is important to begin cleaning at the point of use to prevent blood or protein material from drying on the instrument.

63
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
What is the primary purpose of point-of-use preparation?
A. To replace the cleaning process.
B. To minimize the risk of cross-contamination and infection.
C. To sterilize the instruments before transport.
D. To remove gross soil from instruments.

A

The correct answer is D. To remove gross soil from instruments.

The primary purpose of point-of-use preparation is to remove gross soil from instruments before their transport to the central service decontamination area. It is the initial step in the cleaning process.

64
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
What should be done with reusable sharps during point-of-use preparation?
A. They should be mixed with other instruments for transport.
B. They should be placed in a separate container.
C. They should be discarded as biohazard waste.
D. They should be cleaned and disinfected immediately

A

The correct answer is B. They should be placed in a separate container.

Reusable sharps, such as needles and cutting edges, should be separated from other instruments during point-of-use preparation. Placing them in a separate container reduces the risk of injuries from sharps and facilitates easy identification

65
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
What should be used to clean the exterior of an endoscope during the cleaning process?
A. Soft, lint-free cloth or sponge
B. High-pressure water spray
C. Abrasive scrub brush
D. Wire Brush

A

The correct answer is A. Soft, lint-free cloth or sponge

Using a soft, lint-free cloth or sponge is recommended to clean the exterior of the endoscope during the cleaning process to avoid damaging the equipment

66
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
Which material should be used for testing scissors that are 4″ or smaller?
A. Red test material
B. Yellow test material
C. Orange material
D. Index card

A

The correct answer is B. Yellow test material

Scissors 4″ or smaller should be tested using yellow test material (latex or latex-free). This material is suitable for testing the cutting ability of small scissors.

67
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
Which of the following is an example of a hazardous waste generated in Central Service areas?
A. Plastic packaging materials
B. Used paper towels
C. Empty cardboard boxes
D. Chemical disinfectants

A

The correct answer is D. Chemical disinfectants

Chemical disinfectants used in Central Service areas can be classified as hazardous waste due to their potential environmental and health risks. Proper disposal methods for these chemicals should be followed to prevent contamination and harm to the environment.

68
Q

Category: Preparation & Packaging
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the fire triangle?
A. Combustible/Flammable Substance
B. Source of Ignition
C. Source of Oxygen
D. Chemical Reaction

A

The correct answer is D. Chemical Reaction

The fire triangle consists of three components: combustible/flammable substance, source of ignition, and source of oxygen. These three elements must be present simultaneously for a fire to occur. The combustible/flammable substance provides the fuel, the source of ignition initiates the fire, and the source of oxygen sustains the combustion process. The chemical reaction is not a separate component but rather the result of the interaction between the three components.

69
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Validation is the procedure used by healthcare facilities to confirm that the validation undertaken by the equipment manufacturer applies to the specific setting.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

The procedure used by healthcare facilities to confirm that the validation undertaken by the equipment manufacturer applies to the specific setting is called verification, not validation.

Verification and validation are two distinct terms with different meanings in the context of healthcare facilities:

Verification: Verification refers to the process used by healthcare facilities to confirm that the validation performed by the equipment manufacturer applies to their specific setting. It involves checking and ensuring that the equipment functions as intended and meets the specified performance criteria within the facility’s unique environment. Verification assures that the equipment will perform effectively and reliably in the specific healthcare setting.
Validation: Validation, on the other hand, is the procedure conducted by the equipment manufacturer to demonstrate and document that their equipment meets predefined specifications and requirements. It involves rigorous testing and analysis to verify the performance, safety, and efficacy of the equipment. Validation ensures that the equipment is designed and manufactured to perform consistently and accurately as intended.
Therefore, in the given statement, the correct answer is B. False, as verification is the procedure used by healthcare facilities to confirm the applicability of the manufacturer’s validation to their specific setting.

70
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Education and training records are only required for new employees and do not need to be updated for existing staff.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

Education and training records should be updated regularly for existing staff to document ongoing training, certifications, and professional development.

71
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
You noticed only one label sticker remaining, and you reported it to your manager, who urgently called a supplier to deliver some rolls immediately. How would you describe such a request?

A. Just-in-time delivery.
B. Consignment.
C. STAT Order.
D. Requisition system.

A

The correct answer is C.

A STAT order refers to an urgent or emergency request for supplies or materials that are needed immediately. In this scenario, the manager recognized the urgency of the situation and placed a STAT order with the supplier to ensure the prompt delivery of label rolls. STAT orders are commonly used in healthcare settings when there is a critical need for essential items to maintain uninterrupted workflow and patient care.

72
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Tamir, a technician in the Central Service department, recently obtained a new certification related to instrument sterilization. What should be documented in Tamir’s education and training records?

A. Tamir’s work schedule during the certification period.
B. Tamir’s current job responsibilities.
C. Tamir’s certification information, including the certification name and date of achievement.
D. Documenting education and training records is not necessary for certifications.

A

The correct answer is C. Tamir’s certification information, including the certification name and date of achievement.

Documenting Tamir’s certification information, including the certification name and date of achievement, in his education and training records is essential. It provides proof of his qualifications and demonstrates his commitment to maintaining expertise in the field of instrument sterilization.

73
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
You are a healthcare provider. After opening a sterile package, you notice that the indicator tape on the packaging is not indicating proper sterilization. What should you do?

What is the appropriate action to take?

A. Assume the package is sterile and use it as intended
B. Discard the package and use an alternative sterile item
C. Re-sterilize the package using a different sterilization method
D. Contact the sterile processing department for further guidance

A

The correct answer is B: Discard the package and use an alternative sterile item.

The correct answer is Indicator tape on packaging serves as a visual indicator of proper sterilization. If the tape does not indicate sterilization, it is not safe to assume that the contents are sterile. Discarding the package and using an alternative sterile item is the appropriate action to avoid potential contamination.

74
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
You are about to use a chemical solution but cannot find the Safety Data Sheet (SDS) for it. What should you do?

A. Proceed with using the chemical.
B. Ask a coworker if they know where the SDS is located.
C. Look for the SDS on the manufacturer’s website or contact the manufacturer.
D. Skip using the chemical and find an alternative.

A

The correct answer is C: Look for the SDS on the manufacturer’s website or contact the manufacturer.

SDS provides important information on hazards, handling, and disposal of chemical solutions. If you cannot find the SDS, check the manufacturer’s website or contact them directly for the necessary information.

75
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogen Standard?

A. Use engineering controls to prevent biohazard exposures.
B. Keep the biohazard area locked.
C. Provide hepatitis B vaccines to employees at no cost
D. Observe standard precautions.

A

The correct answer is B.

OSHA functions mainly to ensure safe and healthy working conditions for workers in the United States. It requires employers to provide free personal protective equipment (PPE) and Hepatitis B vaccines to employees who may be exposed to blood and other bodily fluids.

76
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Which agency regulates high-level disinfectants and Liquid Chemical Sterilants (LCS) used to process medical devices and surgical instruments?

A. AAMI
B. FDA
C. OSHA
D. HSPA

A

The correct answer is B.

The FDA regulates high-level disinfectants and Liquid Chemical Sterilants (LCS) used to process medical devices and surgical instruments.

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) functions mainly by ensuring safe and healthy working conditions for workers by setting and enforcing standards and providing training, outreach, education, and assistance.

AAMI (Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation) is a non-profit organization that develops and publishes standards detailing the proper production quality for medical instrumentation and the procedures in which they are used.

HSPA (Healthcare Sterile Processing Association)

77
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
What is the maximum amount or concentration of a chemical that a worker may be exposed to under OSHA regulation called?

A. Permissible exposure limit (PEL)
B. Time-weight average (TWA)
C. Sterility assurance level (SAL)
D. Occupational exposure limit (OEL)

A

The correct answer is A.

Permissible exposure limit (PEL) is the maximum amount or concentration of a chemical that a worker may be exposed to under OSHA regulation.

Time-weight average (TWA) is the amount of substance an employee should be exposed to over eight hours per day.

Sterility assurance level (SAL) is the probability of viable microorganisms being present in a device after sterilization.

78
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Which association is a private nonprofit organization that develops standards for healthcare facilities and often arrives unannounced at an inspection facility?

A. Joint Commission International (JCI)
B. Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation (AAMI)
C. World Health Organization (WHO)
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)

A

The correct answer is A.

Joint Commission International (JCI) is a private nonprofit organization that develops standards for healthcare facilities and often arrives unannounced at an inspection facility.

79
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
What is the purpose of appropriate air exchanges in Central Service work areas?

A. To control temperature and humidity levels
B. To ensure proper air filtration and ventilation
C. To reduce noise levels for staff comfort
D. To minimize the risk of electrical hazards

A

The correct answer is B. To ensure proper air filtration and ventilation

Appropriate air exchanges in Central Service work areas are crucial to ensure proper air filtration and ventilation. This helps maintain a clean and safe environment by removing contaminants and ensuring the circulation of fresh, filtered air

80
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
What is the appropriate air pressure relationship between the clean and dirty areas in the Central Service department?

A. Positive air pressure in the clean area and negative air pressure in the dirty area.
B. Negative air pressure in the clean area and positive air pressure in the dirty area.
C. Equal air pressure in both the clean and dirty areas.
D. Air pressure relationship is not specified for the clean and dirty areas.

A

The correct answer is A. Positive air pressure in the clean area and negative air pressure in the dirty area.

It is recommended to maintain positive air pressure in the clean area and negative air pressure in the dirty area of the Central Service department. This helps prevent cross-contamination by ensuring that air flows from the clean area to the dirty area, minimizing the risk of contaminants spreading to clean areas.

81
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Who is responsible for identifying and reporting workplace hazards in the Central Service department?

A. Facility administrators only.
B. Safety committee members only.
C. All employees.
D. Hazard identification is not necessary in the Central Service department.

A

The correct answer is A. All employees.

All employees in the Central Service department are responsible for identifying and reporting workplace hazards. Creating a culture of hazard identification and reporting empowers employees to contribute to maintaining a safe work environment.

82
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
How can employees contribute to risk management in the Central Service department?

A. By following established protocols and procedures.
B. By suggesting improvements to existing processes.
C. By participating in risk assessments and safety audits.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Employees can contribute to risk management in the Central Service department by following established protocols and procedures, suggesting improvements to existing processes, and actively participating in risk assessments and safety audits. Their involvement strengthens the overall risk management efforts.

83
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
During an internal audit, it is discovered that several sterilization cycles were not properly recorded in the Central Service department’s logbook. What is the potential impact of this non-compliance?

A. No impact, as long as the sterilization cycles were completed.
B. It may lead to an investigation of sterilization process effectiveness.
C. The logbook is not essential for recording sterilization cycles.
D. Non-compliance in recording sterilization cycles is acceptable.

A

The correct answer is B. It may lead to an investigation of sterilization process effectiveness.

Accurate and complete records are essential to demonstrate compliance with standards and regulations, and the absence of proper documentation may raise concerns about the effectiveness and reliability of the sterilization processes.

84
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
AAMI standards are developed in collaboration with:
A. Manufacturers only
B. Healthcare providers only
C. Central Service technicians only
D. All stakeholders, including manufacturers, healthcare providers, and industry experts

A

The correct answer is D. All stakeholders, including manufacturers, healthcare providers, and industry experts

AAMI standards are developed through a collaborative effort involving all stakeholders, including manufacturers, healthcare providers, and industry experts. This diverse input ensures that the standards reflect a comprehensive understanding of the field and promote the best practices and safety measures.

85
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
In a Class I FDA recall, what level of risk does the product pose?
A. Low risk.
B. Medium risk.
C. High risk.
D. Negligible risk.

A

The correct answer is C. High risk

In a Class I FDA recall, the product poses a high risk of causing serious health problems or death. The recall is initiated to address this significant health risk.

86
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
What is the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)?
A. To advertise a product to potential buyers.
B. To provide information about the manufacturer’s warranty.
C. To outline the steps for product installation.
D. To provide detailed safety information about hazardous materials.

A

The correct answer is D. To provide detailed safety information about hazardous materials.

A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) is a document that provides detailed safety information about hazardous materials. It includes information on potential hazards, proper handling and storage procedures, emergency response measures, and more.

87
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
The Central Service Department receives a notification from a supplier about a recall of a specific medical device in your inventory. What should you do?
A. Continue using the device until a replacement is available.
B. Inform the supplier that you will not comply with the recall.
C. Immediately remove the device from inventory and follow the recall instructions.
D. Conduct an internal investigation before deciding on the appropriate action.

A

The correct answer is C. Immediately remove the device from inventory and follow the recall instructions.

In this scenario, receiving a recall notification indicates potential safety concerns with the specific medical device. The appropriate action is to immediately remove the device from inventory and follow the recall instructions provided by the supplier to ensure patient safety and compliance with regulatory requirements.

88
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
The Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 requires healthcare facilities to report medical device malfunctions to the :
A. CDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention)
B. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)
C. NIH (National Institutes of Health)
D. CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services)

A

The correct answer is B. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

The Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990 mandates healthcare facilities to report medical device malfunctions to the FDA.

89
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
What does the abbreviation AAMI stand for?
A. American Association of Medical Institutions
B. Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation
C. Accreditation for Allied Medical Industries
D. Alliance of Advanced Medical Innovations

A

The correct answer is B. Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation

The abbreviation AAMI stands for the Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation. AAMI is an internationally recognized organization that plays a crucial role in developing standards, guidelines, and best practices for the medical device industry. Their work focuses on promoting the safe and effective use of medical instruments, improving patient care, and advancing healthcare technology.

90
Q

Category: Documentation & Record Maintenance
Which category of FDA recall poses the least risk to users?
A. Class I.
B. Class II.
C. Class III.
D. All categories have equal risk levels.

A

The correct answer is C. Class III.

Class III FDA recalls involve devices with low risk and are not likely to cause adverse health consequences. However, the recall is necessary to address the violation of FDA law, ensuring compliance with regulations.

91
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
An Operating Room nurse opened a surgical instrument tray during a procedure and discovered that the instrument set is not what is needed for the surgery. She brought the set to the SP technician and said it was not used. Should the set be treated as a contaminated set?

True
False

A

The correct answer is A. True

According to the principle of asepsis techniques, any open surgical instrument tray should be considered dirty.

92
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
EtO is classified as a non-toxic gas by OSHA.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

The information classifies EtO as a toxic gas classified by OSHA as a carcinogen and reproductive hazard.

93
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
You are working in the Central Service and notice that the temperature has exceeded the recommended range. What should you do?

A. Adjust the temperature controls on the equipment.
B. Inform your immediate supervisor.
C. Continue working as usual.
D. Evacuate the area and contact the facilities department.

A

The correct answer is B. Inform your immediate supervisor.

When the temperature exceeds the recommended range in the Central Service area, it is important to notify your immediate supervisor. They will assess the situation and take appropriate actions to address the deviation, such as contacting the facilities department.

94
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
A technician is loading the sterilizer chamber with instruments and notices that the chamber is overloaded, hindering proper steam circulation. What should the technician do?

A. Proceed with the sterilization cycle as it is.
B. Remove some instruments to allow adequate steam circulation.
C. Increase the cycle time to compensate for the overcrowding.
D. Ignore the issue and close the chamber.

A

The correct answer is B. Remove some instruments to allow adequate steam circulation.

Overloading the sterilizer chamber can compromise steam circulation, leading to ineffective sterilization. In this scenario, it is important to remove some instruments to ensure proper steam penetration and adequate sterilization of all items.
Referance Chapter: High-Temperature Sterilization

95
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
After completing a sterilization cycle, the technician notices that the indicator tape on the packages did not change color. What should the technician do?

A. Assume the items are sterilized and proceed with distribution.
B. Re-sterilize the items using a different sterilization method.
C. Perform a visual inspection of the packages for any signs of damage or contamination.
D. Investigate the issue, document it, and notify the appropriate personnel and reprocess it

A

The correct answer is D. Investigate the issue, document it, and notify the appropriate personnel and reprocess it

The indicator tape not changing color may indicate a potential problem with the sterilization process. It is important to investigate the issue, document the occurrence, and notify the appropriate personnel, such as the supervisor or infection control team, for further assessment and corrective actions.
Referance Chapter:Monitoring and Recordkeeping

96
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
You are responsible for maintaining a steam sterilizer. How should you clean the chamber drain strainer?

What is the recommended cleaning procedure?

A. Clean it daily with a non-abrasive brush and mild detergent
B. Use strong abrasives or steel wool to remove debris
C. Soak the strainer in a cleaning solution for thorough cleaning
D. Remove the strainer only if debris is visible on the surface

A

The correct answer is A Clean it daily with a non-abrasive brush and mild detergent..

The chamber drain strainer should be removed at least daily and cleaned under running water using a non-abrasive brush and a mild detergent. This helps ensure efficient air removal and prevents blockage.

97
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What surrounds the side, top, and bottom of the vessel, and steam circulates in this space to preheat the interior chamber wall? It is covered with insulation to help prevent condensation from forming in the inner and outer walls of the chamber.

A. Jacket
B. Gasket
C. Chamber Drain
D. Door

A

The correct answer is A.

The jacket plays a crucial role in the proper functioning of sterilization equipment by providing insulation and minimizing heat loss. It helps maintain the desired temperature and prevents fluctuations that could affect the sterilization efficacy. By circulating steam in the jacket, the equipment achieves efficient heating and ensures the sterilization process is effective.

Understanding the different components of sterilization equipment, such as the jacket, is essential for operating and monitoring the equipment effectively. It helps ensure that proper sterilization conditions are maintained, resulting in the safe and effective sterilization of instruments and equipment in the central service department.

98
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
Where is the chamber drain located in the steam sterilizer?

A. At the back of the chamber floor
B. At the front or center of the floor
C. At the right side of the chamber floor
D. There is no chamber drain in a steam sterilizer

A

The correct answer is B.

The chamber drain is located at the center or in front of the floor of the steam sterilizer.

99
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What is the process called when steam enters the chamber and, because air is heavier than steam, it forces the cooler air to the bottom of the chamber and out the drain?

A. Dynamic Air Removal
B. Pre-vacuum steam
C. Gravity Air Displacement
D. Cavitation

A

The correct answer is C.

The process whereby steam enters the chamber and, because air is heavier than steam, it forces the cooler air to the bottom of the chamber.

100
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
_________ is a toxic gas classified by OSHA as a carcinogen and reproductive hazard.

A. Hydrogen Peroxide Gas
B. Ethylene Oxide Gas
C. Hydrochloric Gas
D. Carbon dioxide Gas

A

The correct answer is B.

Ethylene Oxide Gas is a toxic gas classified by OSHA as a carcinogen and reproductive hazard.

101
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
Ethylene Oxide (EtO) should not be used to sterilize:

A. Liquids
B. Devices with an energy source
C. Leather items
D. All of the above

A

The correct answer is D. All of the above.

Ethylene Oxide should not be used to sterilize liquids because it will combine with the liquid and may produce harmful chemical by-products.

Devices with an energy source could create a spark in the sterilization chamber during the sterilization cycle.

Leather items contain chemicals used in the tanning process that will combine with Ethylene Oxide to form chlorohydrin, which can cause negative health effects.

102
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What information is typically provided in Safety Data Sheets (SDS) for sterilization chemicals?

A. Instructions for use and dosing guidelines
B. Potential hazards and precautionary measures
C. Manufacturing and expiry dates
D. Price of the chemical

A

The correct answer is B. Potential hazards and precautionary measures

Safety Data Sheets (SDS) for sterilization chemicals provide information about potential hazards associated with the chemical, such as health effects, flammability, or reactivity. They also provide precautionary measures for safe handling, storage, and disposal.

103
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
When should personal protective equipment (PPE) be worn during the handling of sterilization chemicals?

A. Only when handling concentrated forms of the chemical.
B. When working with any quantity of the chemical.
C. Only when transferring the chemical from one container to another.
D. When disposing of empty containers of the chemical.

A

The correct answer is B. When working with any quantity of the chemical.

Personal protective equipment (PPE) should be worn when working with any quantity of sterilization chemicals to minimize the risk of exposure. PPE may include gloves, goggles

104
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
How can adjustable workstations contribute to ergonomics in Central Service?

A. They allow workers to take frequent breaks.
B. They provide space for personal belongings.
C. They accommodate workers of different heights and sizes.
D. They increase the speed of task completion.

A

The correct answer is C. They accommodate workers of different heights and sizes.

Adjustable workstations contribute to ergonomics in Central Service by accommodating workers of different heights and sizes. This ensures that each worker can adjust the workstation to their specific needs, promoting proper posture and reducing the risk of musculoskeletal injuries.

105
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
Who should be informed if the humidity level in the Central Service area falls below the recommended range?

A. The facilities/ Engineering department.
B. The infection control department.
C. The equipment manufacturer.
D. The local environmental agency.

A

The correct answer is A. The facilities/ Engineering department.

If the humidity level in the Central Service area falls below the recommended range, it is necessary to inform the facilities/Engineering department. They are responsible for maintaining the appropriate environmental conditions and can take corrective measures.

106
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
The chamber drain strainer of the steam sterilizer should be removed and cleaned at least ——–

A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Daily
D. Yearly

A

The correct answer is C. Daily

The chamber drain strainer of the steam sterilizer should be removed and cleaned at least Daily. This helps prevent the buildup of debris, sediment, or any other contaminants that may impede proper drainage and affect the sterilization process. Regular cleaning ensures the strainer functions effectively and maintains the sterility of the chamber.

107
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
Leak tests should be performed at least ——– in an empty steam sterilizer

A. Once a week
B. Once a month
C. Once every 6 months
D. Once a Day

A

The correct answer is A. Once a week

Leak tests should be performed at least once a week in an empty sterilizer chamber. This test is important to ensure the integrity of the chamber and the sealing mechanisms. By conducting regular leak tests, any potential leaks or issues can be identified and addressed promptly, ensuring the sterilization process is effective and the chamber maintains its functionality and safety.

108
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What is the purpose of the vacuum system in a high-temperature sterilizer?

A. To remove air and facilitate steam penetration.
B. To generate heat for the sterilization process.
C. To cool down the sterilizer after the cycle.
D. To create a vacuum seal for chamber closure.

A

The correct answer is A. To remove air and facilitate steam penetration.

The vacuum system in a high-temperature sterilizer is designed to remove air from the chamber, creating a vacuum environment. This allows for better steam penetration and ensures efficient sterilization of the items being processed.

109
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
Which low-temperature sterilization method utilizes a combination of hydrogen peroxide gas plasma and radiofrequency energy?

A. Ethylene oxide (EtO)
B. Hydrogen peroxide vapor (HPV)
C. Plasma sterilization
D. Liquid chemical sterilization

A

The correct answer is C. Plasma sterilization

Plasma sterilization is a low-temperature method that involves the use of hydrogen peroxide gas plasma and radiofrequency energy. This process creates a plasma state in the chamber, which generates reactive species that sterilize the items.

110
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What is the microorganism of choice for biological monitoring in Ethylene Oxide (EtO) sterilization?
A. Bacillus atrophaeus spore
B. Escherichia coli
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

The correct answer is A. Bacillus atrophaeus spore

Bacillus atrophaeus spore is the microrganism of choice for biological monitoring in EtO sterilization.

111
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What is the purpose of establishing par levels for inventory items?
A. To set a maximum quantity for each item in stock
B. To determine the minimum amount required for each item
C. To calculate the average demand for each item
D. To track the historical usage of each item

A

The correct answer is B. To determine the minimum amount required for each item

Establishing par levels for inventory items involves determining the minimum quantity of each item that should be maintained in stock. Par levels ensure that an adequate supply is available to meet demand and enable timely stock replenishment

112
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What is the purpose of the aeration process after the EtO sterilization cycle?
A. To remove residual EtO from the chamber.
B. To facilitate load humidification.
C. To enhance sterilant penetration.
D. To prevent instrument damage.

A

The correct answer is A. To remove residual EtO from the chamber.

Aeration is the process in which sterilized packages are subjected to moving air to remove toxic residuals, such as EtO, after exposure to the sterilizing agent.

113
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What is the recommended relative humidity range critical to the penetration of bacterial cells and successful sterilization in Ethylene Oxide (EtO) sterilization?
A. 10% to 30%
B. 30% to 60%
C. 40% to 80%
D. 80% to 100%

A

The correct answer is C. 40% to 80%

The recommended relative humidity range critical to the penetration of bacterial cells and successful sterilization in EtO sterilization is 40% to 80%.

114
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
Which of the following quality tests is used to evaluate the air removal capability of a prevacuum steam sterilizer?
A. Bowie-Dick test
B. Biological indicator test
C. Leak test
D. Chemical indicator test

A

The correct answer is A. Bowie-Dick test

The Bowie-Dick test is used to evaluate the air removal capability of a prevacuum steam sterilizer. This test aims to detect air entrapment within the sterilizer by using a specific test pack that contains a temperature-sensitive indicator. If the indicator shows a uniform color change, it indicates that the sterilizer effectively removed air during the pre-vacuum phase.

115
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
What is the purpose of perforated or mesh-bottomed trays or baskets in steam sterilization?
A. To enhance air removal
B. To facilitate steam penetration
C. To improve condensate drainage
D. All of the above

A

The correct answer is D. All of the above

Perforated or mesh-bottomed trays or baskets enhance air removal, steam penetration, and condensate drainage.

116
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
How should solid containers be positioned in the sterilizer?
A. With visible space between packs
B. Touching the chamber walls
C. Tilted for drainage
D. On top of textile packs

A

The correct answer is A. With visible space between packs

Solid containers should be positioned in a way that allows air to exit and steam to enter, with visible space between packs to allow steam circulation and drying.

117
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
According to steam sterilization guidelines, what is the minimum temperature required to achieve effective sterilization?
A. 100°C (212°F)
B. 121°C (250°F)
C. 150°C (302°F)
D. 180°C (356°F)

A

The correct answer is B. 121°C (250°F)

Steam sterilization typically requires a minimum temperature of 121°C (250°F) to achieve effective sterilization. This temperature ensures the destruction of microorganisms, including bacterial spores.

118
Q

Category: Sterilization Process
Which type of below mentioned sterilizer should be used for sterilizing heat and moisture-sensitive items?
A. Gravity displacement sterilizer
B. Pre-vacuum sterilizer
C. Flash sterilizer
D. Ethylene oxide sterilizer

A

The correct answer is D. Ethylene oxide sterilizer

Ethylene oxide sterilizers are used for sterilizing heat and moisture-sensitive items that cannot withstand the high temperatures of steam sterilization.

119
Q

Category: Customer Relations
A series of incidents has occurred in the department, and as a team, everyone was asked to freely contribute what they think is the key underlying factor for quality production and monitoring. What is this called?

A. Failure mode and effect analysis.
B. Root cause analysis.
C. Six Sigma.
D. Quality assurance.

A

The correct answer is B.

Root cause analysis refers to the process of identifying the fundamental cause or causes of an issue or problem. In this case, the team is asked to contribute their ideas on the key underlying factor that may be causing the incidents to address them and improve quality production and monitoring.

120
Q

Category: Customer Relations
A patient presents with abdominal pain and discomfort. The healthcare provider suspects inflammation of the appendix. What is the medical term for this condition?

A. Appendectomy
B. Appendicitis
C. Appendalgia
D. Appendotomy

A

The correct answer is B. Appendicitis

Appendicitis refers to the inflammation of the appendix. It is a common condition that often requires surgical removal of the appendix through an appendectomy.

121
Q

Category: Customer Relations
You are the supervisor in a central service department, and you have two urgent tasks to be completed. One task involves preparing critical instruments for an emergency surgery, and the other task involves organizing inventory. How should you prioritize these tasks?

Question: What is the best course of action in this scenario?

A. Prioritize preparing critical instruments for the emergency surgery.
B. Prioritize organizing inventory.
C. Delegate one task to a team member and handle the other task.
D. Seek input from the team to collectively decide on the priority.

A

The correct answer is A. Prioritize preparing critical instruments for the emergency surgery.

In this scenario, patient safety and immediate needs take precedence. Prioritizing the task of preparing critical instruments for the emergency surgery ensures that essential equipment is readily available when needed, aligning with the central service department’s primary objective of supporting patient care.

122
Q

Category: Customer Relations
During a team huddle, a central service technician suggests a more efficient way to process and organize instrument trays. What should the team do?

A. Dismiss the technician’s suggestion as unnecessary
B. Implement the suggestion immediately
C. Discuss the suggestion and evaluate its feasibility
D. Assign the technician the task of implementing the suggestion alone

A

The correct answer is C: Discuss the suggestion and evaluate its feasibility.

The correct answer is In this scenario, the team should discuss the technician’s suggestion and evaluate its feasibility.
Dismissing the suggestion without consideration may disregard a potentially valuable improvement. Implementing the suggestion immediately without discussion may lead to unforeseen issues and lack of buy-in from the rest of the team. Assigning the technician the task alone may create a burden and hinder teamwork. By discussing the suggestion and evaluating its feasibility, the team can collectively decide on the best course of action.

123
Q

Category: Customer Relations
Carlos, a CS technician, wants to stay updated on the latest trends and advancements in the CS field. What should Carlos do?

A. Attend educational conferences.
B. Pursue additional technical certifications.
C. Engage in regular on-the-job training.
D. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is D: All of the above.

To stay updated on the latest trends and advancements in the CS field, Carlos should attend educational conferences, pursue additional technical certifications, and engage in regular on-the-job training. These activities provide opportunities for learning and professional growth.

124
Q

Category: Customer Relations
A colleague from another department sends an email requesting urgent assistance with sterilizing an instrument set. However, the technician is already occupied with multiple tasks. What is the appropriate response?

A. Ignore the email and prioritize existing tasks.
B. Reply rudely, stating that you are too busy to help.
C. Respond promptly, expressing the need for prioritization and suggesting an alternative time for assistance.
D. Forward the email to a supervisor without responding.

A

The correct answer is C: Respond promptly, expressing the need for prioritization and suggesting an alternative time for assistance.

In customer relations, it is important to respond to requests promptly and professionally. The technician should acknowledge the request, explain the current workload, and propose an alternative time for assistance, demonstrating a willingness to help while managing priorities effectively.

125
Q

Category: Customer Relations
What does AAMI mean?

A. Association of the Accreditation of Medical Instrumentation
B. Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation
C. Association for the Advancement of Material Instrumentation
D. Association for Material Management

A

The correct answer is B. The correct answer is B. AAMI stands for Association for the Advancement of Medical Instrumentation.

126
Q

Category: Customer Relations
The surgical technologist is preparing the surgical instruments for an orthopedic procedure. Which instrument would be used to remove bone fragments or to scrape soft tissue?

A. Rongeur
B. Retractor
C. Hemostat
D. Forceps

A

The correct answer is A. Rongeur

A rongeur is a surgical instrument used to remove bone fragments or to scrape soft tissue.

127
Q

Category: Customer Relations
When faced with multiple tasks in the central service department, which step is crucial for effective prioritization?

A. Start with the easiest task.
B. Follow a random order.
C. Consider the urgency and importance of each task.
D. Delegate all tasks to other team members.

A

The correct answer is C. Consider the urgency and importance of each task.

Prioritization involves assessing the urgency and importance of each task. By considering these factors, one can make informed decisions about the order in which tasks should be addressed to ensure optimal efficiency and patient safety.

128
Q

Category: Customer Relations
What should be considered when evaluating the risks and benefits of different options?

A. Only the potential benefits.
B. Only the potential risks.
C. Both the potential risks and benefits.
D. Neither the risks nor the benefits.

A

The correct answer is C. Both the potential risks and benefits.

When evaluating different options, it is important to consider both the potential risks and benefits associated with each option. This comprehensive evaluation allows for a balanced decision-making process that takes into account the potential positive outcomes and the potential negative consequences.

129
Q

Category: Customer Relations
How does effective teamwork contribute to employee satisfaction in Central Service?
A. It leads to higher salaries and benefits.
B. It reduces job responsibilities and workload.
C. It promotes a positive work environment.
D. It guarantees job security.

A

The correct answer is C. It promotes a positive work environment.

Effective teamwork in Central Service promotes a positive work environment. When team members work together collaboratively, support each other, and communicate effectively, it creates a sense of camaraderie and job satisfaction, leading to a more enjoyable work experience.

130
Q

Category: Customer Relations
Which of the following is a key characteristic of effective teamwork in the context of central service operations?
A. Competition among team members
B. Independent decision-making
C. Clear communication and collaboration
D. Task delegation to a single team member

A

The correct answer is C. Clear communication and collaboration

Effective teamwork in central service operations relies on clear and open communication among team members. This allows for the sharing of information, coordination of tasks, and collaboration on problem-solving. Competition among team members (option A) can lead to a breakdown in teamwork and hinder productivity. Independent decision-making (option B) may lead to inconsistent outcomes and a lack of alignment within the team. Task delegation to a single team member (option D) can create a bottleneck and overload a single individual, impacting efficiency and teamwork.

131
Q

Category: Customer Relations
Which of the following is an example of an ethical work practice in Central Service?
A. Adhering to proper instrument sterilization procedures
B. Maintaining a clean and organized work environment
C. Balancing workload among team members
D. Following established infection control guidelines

A

The correct answer is C. Balancing workload among team members

Balancing workload among team members can be an ethical dilemma in Central Service. It requires fair distribution of tasks and resources, considering the well-being and job satisfaction of all team members, and ensuring equitable workloads.

132
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
Inventories are reusable equipment and consumable items that are used in providing healthcare services for patients.

True
False

A

The correct answer is A. True

Inventories are the various equipment or consumable items used in providing healthcare services for patients. They can be reusable inventories, such as medical devices and sterilization containers, or consumable inventories, such as wrapping sheets and processing chemicals.

133
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
Wet packs should be considered sterile and safe for use.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

Wet packs are considered contaminated and should not be used. They should be documented, reported, and undergo further investigation and reprocessing before being considered sterile and safe for use.

134
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
It is acceptable to store sterile items directly on the floor in a Central Service department.

True
False

A

The correct answer is B. False

Sterile items should never be stored directly on the floor, as it increases the risk of contamination.

135
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
A system that measures the current output of the process or production and then modifies it to increase the output efficiency and effectiveness is called:

A. Total quality management.
B. Total quality cost.
C. Total quality improvement.
D. Total acquisition cost.

A

The correct answer is C.

Total quality improvement refers to a system or approach that aims to measure the current output of a process or production and make modifications or improvements to increase its efficiency and effectiveness. It focuses on continuous improvement and enhancing overall quality.

136
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
What factor(s) should be considered when choosing shelving in the SPD?

A. Storage shelving should be designed to protect the sterile product.
B. Shelving must be easy to clean.
C. Shelving should be sized to properly fit the stored items without product overhanging.
D. A and C
E. All of the above.

A

The correct answer is E.

All of the above factors should be considered when choosing shelving in the SPD.

When selecting shelving in the SPD, it should be designed to protect the sterile product, be easy to clean, and be properly sized to accommodate the stored items without overhanging.

137
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
Which of the following areas requires positive air pressure relative to adjacent areas?

A. Sterile storage rooms
B. Dirty utility areas
C. Decontamination areas
D. Break rooms

A

The correct answer is A. Sterile storage rooms

Sterile storage rooms should have positive air pressure relative to adjacent areas. This helps prevent the entry of contaminants from outside areas, ensuring the maintenance of sterility within the storage environment.

138
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
The sterile storage room should also have at least ——— air exchanges per hour

A. 1
B. 10
C. 4
D. 2

A

The correct answer is C. 4

The sterile storage room requires a sufficient number of air exchanges per hour to maintain air quality and minimize the risk of contamination. A recommended range for air exchanges in the sterile storage room is minimum 4 exchanges per hour. This helps to remove airborne particles, control humidity levels, and promote a clean and sterile environment for storing sterile supplies and instruments.

139
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
Which inventory replenishment system automatically restocks supplies based on predetermined par levels?

A. Periodic automated replenishment system
B. Exchange cart system
C. Requisition system
D. Just-in-time inventory system

A

The correct answer is A. Periodic automated replenishment system

Periodic automated replenishment is a system that automatically restocks supplies at predetermined intervals or when inventory levels reach a specified par level. It helps ensure that supplies are consistently available without the need for manual intervention or constant monitoring.

140
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
Which inventory replenishment system aims to minimize inventory levels by delivering supplies exactly when they are needed?

A. Periodic automated replenishment system
B. Exchange cart system
C. Requisition system
D. Just-in-time inventory system

A

The correct answer is D. Just-in-time inventory system

The just-in-time inventory system focuses on minimizing inventory levels by delivering supplies exactly when they are needed. This system helps reduce inventory holding costs and eliminates the need for excessive storage space while ensuring that supplies are available in a timely manner.

141
Q

Category: Sterile Storage & Inventory Management
Which inventory replenishment system aims to minimize inventory levels by delivering supplies exactly when they are needed?

A. First in First Out
B. Fast in Fast Out
C. First in Fast Out
D. Fast in First Out

A

The correct answer is A. First in First Out

FIFO stands for First in First Out. It is an inventory rotation method where the oldest inventory items are used or sold first, ensuring that the items with the earliest expiration dates or manufacturing dates are consumed or distributed before newer items.

142
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
Patient care equipment should be cleaned and decontaminated according to facility protocols and manufacturer’s instructions.

True
False

A

The correct answer is A. True

Patient care equipment must undergo proper cleaning and decontamination processes to maintain a safe and hygienic environment. Following facility protocols and manufacturer’s instructions ensures that the equipment is effectively cleaned, reducing the risk of cross-contamination and infection transmission.

143
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
You are performing a leak test on a flexible endoscope, and you notice that there is leakage from one of the endoscope’s channels. What action should you take?

A. Proceed with the endoscope’s use and monitor for any complications.
B. Document the leakage and report it to the appropriate personnel for repair.
C. Continue the leak test and reprocess the endoscope afterwards.
D. Disregard the leakage and proceed with the endoscope’s use.

A

The correct answer is B: Document the leakage and report it to the appropriate personnel for repair. .

Leakage from an endoscope’s channels can compromise its functionality and safety during medical procedures. It is important to document the observation, report it to the appropriate personnel, and follow facility protocols for repair or replacement. Patient safety should be the priority, and using a faulty endoscope (option A or D) is not recommended.

144
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
You are preparing a set of surgical instruments for transport to the central service decontamination area. While separating reusable sharps, you accidentally prick your finger with a reusable needle. What should you do next?

A. Ignore the incident as it was an accident.
B. Continue with the preparation process and inform your supervisor later.
C. Immediately report the incident to your supervisor and follow the facility’s protocol for needlestick injuries.
D. Clean the wound with soap and water and continue working.

A

The correct answer is C: Immediately report the incident to your supervisor and follow the facility’s protocol for needlestick injuries.

Needlestick injuries carry the risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens. It is crucial to report such incidents immediately and follow the facility’s protocol for needlestick injuries, which may include medical evaluation, documentation, and necessary follow-up actions.

145
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
Which part of the word indicates the specific area of the body where a procedure is to be performed?

A. Root word
B. Prefix
C. Suffix
D. Combine vowels

A

The correct answer is A.

The root word in medical terminology indicates the primary meaning of a term and can often provide insight into the specific area of the body where a procedure is to be performed. The root word serves as the foundation upon which prefixes and suffixes are added to create more complex terms.

For example, let’s consider the term “Cardiology.” In this term, the root word is “Cardio,” which is derived from the Greek word “cardia” meaning “heart.” By recognizing the root word, we understand that “Cardiology” pertains to the study or field related to the heart.

Similarly, let’s examine the term “Dermatology.” The root word here is “Dermat,” derived from the Greek word “derma” meaning “skin.” Understanding the root word allows us to identify that “Dermatology” refers to the branch of medicine focused on the study and treatment of skin conditions.

In another example, the term “Hepatitis” consists of the root word “Hepat,” which comes from the Greek word “hepar” meaning “liver.” By recognizing the root word, we can infer that “Hepatitis” is related to inflammation of the liver.

By analyzing the root word, we gain valuable information about the specific area of the body that a medical term is referring to. It forms the core of the term’s meaning and provides a foundation for understanding the terminology used in various medical procedures and conditions.

146
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
What is the meaning of CABG?

A. Coronary artery bypass
B. Coronary artery bypass graft
C. Coronary aorta bypass graft
D. Coronary aorta bypass

A

The correct answer is B.

CABG stands for Coronary artery bypass graft, which is a surgical procedure used to treat coronary heart disease.

147
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
What should be done before accepting loaned pateint care equipment into the Central Service department?

A. Request a detailed usage report from the lender
B. Perform a thorough inspection and cleaning of the equipment
C. Sign a legal agreement with the equipment lender
D. Contact the equipment manufacturer for warranty validation

A

The correct answer is B. Perform a thorough inspection and cleaning of the equipment

Before accepting loaned pateint care equipment into the Central Service department, it is important to perform a thorough inspection and cleaning of the equipment. This ensures that the equipment is in proper working condition, clean, and safe for use.

148
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
What does OSHA stand for?

A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration.
B. Office of Safety and Health Administration
C. Occupational Standards and Hazard Assessment.
D. Office of Safety and Hazard Assessment.

A

The correct answer is A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

OSHA stands for Occupational Safety and Health Administration. It is a federal agency responsible for enforcing workplace safety and health regulations to protect employees.

149
Q

Category: Patient Care Equipment
When testing a patient care equipment, which source should be consulted for the specific testing instructions?

A. Central service technical manual
B. Manufacturer’s IFU
C. OSHA guidelines
D. Facility policies and procedures

A

The correct answer is B. Manufacturer’s IFU

When testing atient care equipment, it is essential to consult the Manufacturer’s IFU for specific testing instructions. The manufacturer’s instructions provide accurate and detailed information on how to properly test and maintain the equipment, ensuring its functionality and safety.

150
Q
A