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Pharmacolgy > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

This term describes the pressure exerted on the ventricle wall by the “load” or volume of blood in the ventricles just before ventricular contraction.

A

Preload

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2
Q

This term describes the special cardiac cells that quickly pass along a depolarization wave throughout the heart, resulting in a coordinated contraction.

A

Conduction Cell

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3
Q

This is the property that describes the ability of certain heart cells to depolarize spontaneously on their own.

A

Automaticity

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4
Q

This is the pacemaker of the heart

A

Sinoatrial Node (SA node)

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5
Q

This term is the part of the ECG that represents atrial depolarization.

A

P wave

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6
Q

This is the specialized structure through which depolarization waves in the atria must pass to get to the ventricles; it delays the depolarization wave as it passes.

A

Atrioventricular Node (AV Node)

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7
Q

That part of the ECG that represents movement of the depolarization wave through the AV node.

A

P R Interval or PQRS

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8
Q

This is the part of the ECG that represents ventricular depolarization.

A

Q R S Complex

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9
Q

This is the part of the ECG that represents ventricular repolarization.

A

T wave

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10
Q

When a cardiac cell is in the resting, polarized state, this ion is mostly concentrated on the inside of the cell.

A

Potassium

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11
Q

This ion rushes into the cardiac cell to initiate depolarization

A

Sodium

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12
Q

This is the specialized pump that maintains concentrations of sodium and potassium in their respective locations during the polarized resting state.

A

Sodium - Potassium ATPase

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13
Q

The influx of what ion produces the plateau phase of cardiac muscle cell depolarization?

A

Calcium

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14
Q

This is any abnormal or irregular heart rhythm.

A

Arrhythmia

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15
Q

These are the two catecholamines released by the sympathetic nervous system that produce its effects.

A

Epinephrine and norepinephrine

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16
Q

Stimulation of this receptor increases heart rate.

A

Beta 1

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17
Q

Stimulation of this receptor slows heart rate.

A

Cholinergic

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18
Q

Stimulation of this receptor causes bronchodilation.

A

Beta 2

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19
Q

Stimulation of this receptor causes increased GI activity.

A

Cholinergic

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20
Q

Stimulation of this receptor causes peripheral vasoconstriction.

A

Alpha 1

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21
Q

This term means a fast heart rate. Slow heart rate?

A

Tachycardia - fast
Bradycardia - slow

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22
Q

This is a site of depolarization in the heart that is other than on the normal conduction pathway sequence (SA node, AV node).

A

Ectopic focus

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23
Q

Large, bizarre-looking wave on the ECG caused by some cell in the ventricles depolarizing on its own out of sequence and disrupting normal ventricular depolarization.

A

Premature ventricular contraction

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24
Q

Abnormality seen on ECG as a prolongation of the PR interval, representing decreased conduction of the depolarization wave through the atrioventricular (AV) node.

A

First degree AV block

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25
Q

At the end of a drug name, this often indicates the drug is a β-blocker (β1 antagonist) antiarrhythmic drug.

A

-olol

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26
Q

This is the process by which cardiac cells become less sensitive to the effects of β-blocker antiarrhythmics; the process involves increasing the number of β1 receptors on the cardiac cell surface, making it more sensitive to catecholamines like norepinephrine.

A

Upregulation

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27
Q

Which cardiovascular drug should be monitored for toxicity levels through blood testing?

A

Epinephrine and lidocaine are typically given in clinic and animals are not sent home on these medications, they also are rapidly metabolized in the body. Dopamine is one of the bodies natural catecholamines, and therefore digoxin is the drug which can often lead to toxic levels and the animal should be monitored while on the medication, concurrent administration of digoxin and quinidine may lead to toxic levels of digoxin

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28
Q

Which group of drugs prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

A
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29
Q

What structures constitute the urinary system?

A

Kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra

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30
Q

Explain how diuretics work

A

Diuretics work by removing excess Extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension

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31
Q

What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics?

A

Potassium

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32
Q

What drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic?

A

Spironolactone

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33
Q

Which one of the following is an osmotic diuretic?
a. Chlorothiazole
b. mannitol
c. Furosemide
d. Spironolactone

A

Mannitol

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34
Q

ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to

A

Angiotensin II

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35
Q

Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretic?

A

Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium

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36
Q

Name a beta-adrenergic blocker drug that is used to control mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure?

A

Acebutolol

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37
Q

Enalapril is a(n) __________.

A

Ace inhibitor

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38
Q

The ureters ____.

A

originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder.

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39
Q

Persistently high blood pressure is known as _____.

A

Hypertension

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40
Q

Diuretics are used to remove ____ fluid.

A

Extracellular

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41
Q

Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of ______.

A

Sodium

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42
Q

List three general functions of the GI tract.

A
  1. Intake of fluid into the body
  2. Absorption of nutrients and fluid
  3. Excretion of waste products
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43
Q

List three examples of monogastric animals.

A

Dogs, Cats, Primates

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44
Q

What is the GI configuration of ruminant animals?

A

They have three fore stomachs (reticulum, rumen, omasum) which allows them to digest coarse plant
material, and one true stomach (abomasum)

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45
Q

What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation?

A

Vomiting is the ejection of contents of the stomach and upper intestine whereas regurgitation is the ejection of contents of the esophagus
Regurgitation is a normal process of ruminants
that permits them to bring up partially digested
foodstuff for rechewing. Vomiting is the
forcible expulsion of gastric contents and is
generally considered to be pathologic.

46
Q

Ruminants are animals that use ______________ to digest coarse plant material.

A

microorganisms

47
Q

What are the three basic control mechanisms of the GI tract?

A

Autonomic Nervous System
Hormones of the endocrine system (gastrin)
Locally releases compounds like histamine

48
Q

What is the significance of the presence of bacterial endotoxins in the GI tract?

A

They can stimulate secretions of electrolytes which will draw fluid from intestinal cells and animals will experience diarrhea / dehydration

49
Q

The CRTZ stimulates vomiting when activated by ______________________.

A

Chemical substances (digitalis compounds,
urea, ketone bodies, and others) and impulses
from the inner ear

50
Q

List two examples of centrally acting emetics and two examples of peripherally acting emetics.

A

Centrally acting : apomorphine and xylazine;
peripherally acting : syrup of ipecac and NaCl

51
Q

Drugs that inhibit vomiting are called ______________________.

A

Antiemetics

52
Q

List two H2 receptor antagonists.

A

Cimetidine and ranitidine

53
Q

What are the two types of intestinal motility patterns?

A

Peristalsis (a wave of contraction) and
segmentation (a mixing action)

54
Q

Acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as ______________________.

A

Withholding of food for 12 to 24 hours

55
Q

List two species that do not vomit.

A

rats and horses

56
Q

What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives?

A

By retaining water osmotically in the gut, these
agents cause softening of the stool

57
Q

Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism?

A

By mimicking the effect of acetylcholine

58
Q

List four products used as dentifrice/oral cleansing agents.

A

C.E.T., Nolvadent, Oral Dent, and Oxydent

59
Q

What is the difference between peristalsis and segmentation?

A

Peristalsis refers to a wave of contraction that
moves contents along, and segmentation refers
to intestinal constrictions that mix contents.

60
Q

TRUE OR FALSE Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the ANS decreases intestinal motility.

A

False

61
Q

About what percent of the stomach’s contents do emetics usually remove?

A

80%

62
Q

How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent gastric ulcers?

A

By forming a pastelike barrier over the surface
of gastric ulcers

63
Q

The crop in birds is used for ______.

a. a stomach

b. food storage

c. feces storage

d. a place where food goes to mix with hydrochloric acid to aid in the breakdown of foodstuffs

A

Food Storage

64
Q

________ are substances that loosen bowel contents and encourage their evacuation.

A

Laxatives

65
Q

This term means the administration a drug by a mist that is inhaled.

A

Nebulization or aerosolization

66
Q

This is the mechanism that traps inhaled particles in a mucous layer and moves it up and out of the respiratory tree.

A

Mucociliary apparatus

67
Q

This term describes pulmonary disease that causes cardiac disease.

A

Cor pulmonale

68
Q

This is the term that describes the narrowing of the terminal bronchioles.

A

Bronchocontrictiction

69
Q

The type of drug that suppresses cough.

A

Antitussive drugs

70
Q

The type of drug that chemically breaks apart mucus.

A

Mucolytic

71
Q

The type of drug that does not break apart mucus but increases watery secretions in the lungs.

A

Expectorant

72
Q

The type of drug that decreases congestion in the upper part of the respiratory tract by causing vasoconstriction.

A

Decongestant

73
Q

The specific receptor that, when stimulated, causes bronchodilation.

A

Beta 2

74
Q

The specific receptor that, when stimulated, causes peripheral vasoconstriction in the skin and mucous membranes.

A

Alpha 1

75
Q

The specific receptor that, when stimulated, increase the heart rate and force of contraction.

A

Beta 1

76
Q

The receptor through which histamine produces its inflammatory effects.

A

Histamine Type 1

77
Q

This term means “difficult breathing.”

A

Dyspnea

78
Q

This term means “dried out.”

A

Inspissated

79
Q

This describes a type of cough in which mucus is brought up by the cough.

A

Productive cough

80
Q

This is the definition of “MDI.”

A

Metered dose inhaler

81
Q

The inflammatory mediator other than histamine that is likely involved in feline asthma.

A

serotonin

82
Q

The chronic respiratory disease in horses that is characterized by asthma like clinical signs.

A

Recurrent airway obstruction

83
Q

This term describes any type of drug that is a narcotic and has opium-like characteristics.

A

Opioid

84
Q

This is the cellular compound that causes the smooth muscles of bronchioles to relax.

A

Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (camp)

85
Q

This is the enzyme that degrades cAMP.

A

Phosphodiesterase

86
Q

Name the drug! Expectorant; works by irritating the gastric lining.

A

Guaifenesin

87
Q

Name the drug! Centrally acting opioid antitussive; the only Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved veterinary product for cough.

A

Butorphanol

88
Q

Name the drug! Same drug group as caffeine and theobromine (in chocolate); a bronchodilator that contains 80% active ingredient and 20% salt.

A

Aminophylline

89
Q

Name the drug! Used in patients in which the inflammatory process is life threatening; not to be used with respiratory fungal disease; stabilizes cellular membranes more than antihistamines.

A

Glucocorticoids

90
Q

Name the drug! Mucolytic that breaks apart sulfhydryl bonds (SS).

A

Acetylcysteine

91
Q

Name the drug! Prophylactic anti-inflammatory that decreases inflammatory response only if it is at the site of inflammation before the inflammation starts.

A

Antihistamine

92
Q

Name the drug! Potent narcotic antitussive; human product; C-II or C-III controlled substance.

A

Hydrocodone

93
Q

Name the drug! Type of drug used to decrease pulmonary edema.

A

Diuretic

94
Q

Name the drug! Common antitussive ingredient in over-the-counter (OTC) cold preparations; not a controlled substance; not very effective in veterinary patients.

A

Dextromethorphan

95
Q

Name the drug! Also used as an intravenously (IV) administered muscle relaxant for equine patients.

A

Guaifenesin

96
Q

Name the drug! Also used as an antidote in cats with acetaminophen toxicosis.

A

Acetycysteine

97
Q

Name the drug! Active ingredient of aminophylline.

A

Theophylline

98
Q

Name the drug! Used to dilate bronchioles by directly stimulating β2 receptors.

A

Albuterol

99
Q

Name the drug! Human prescription opioid antitussive that is widely used in human medicine, often in conjunction with other cold or flu medications; a strongly abused opioid; not used much in veterinary medicine.

A

Codeine

100
Q

Name the drug! Bronchodilator that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase.

A

Methylxanthine

101
Q

The active ingredient in Ventiplumin is?

A

Clenbuterol

102
Q

Which category of drugs produce bronchodilation and mild diuresis?

A

methylxanthines

103
Q

Which drug will liquefy and dilute the viscid secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions?

A

expectorants

104
Q

Identify the specific drug which may be used for the relief of chronic nonproductive coughs in dogs and for analgesia and preanaesthesia in dogs and cats.

A

butorphanol tartrate

105
Q

TRUE OR FALSE The use of a diuretic drug would decrease the efficiency of the mucociliary clearance.

A

True

106
Q

TRUE OR FALSE Beta2-adrnergic agonists combine with appropriate receptors on the smooth muscle fibres and effect relaxation of those fibres.

A

True

107
Q

TRUE OR FALSE Nebulization describes the process by which macrophages move into the alveoli and clean up debris that made it down that far.

A

False

108
Q

Stimulation of which branch of the autonomic nervous system produces bronchodilation>

A

Sympathetic Nervous System

109
Q

When foreign particles manage to get past the upper cilia they are trapped by mucus in the trachae; particles which may manage to get to the lower airways will be phagocytized by which of the following immunoglobulins?
IgA
IgD
IgG
IgE

A

IgA

110
Q

Identify which of the following, when irritated, will produce a cough reflex from the cough centre in the brainstem.
bronchi

bronchioles

larynx

trachea

all of the above

A

all of the above

Pharmacolgy (2 decks)

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