Test 2 Flashcards
This term describes the pressure exerted on the ventricle wall by the “load” or volume of blood in the ventricles just before ventricular contraction.
Preload
This term describes the special cardiac cells that quickly pass along a depolarization wave throughout the heart, resulting in a coordinated contraction.
Conduction Cell
This is the property that describes the ability of certain heart cells to depolarize spontaneously on their own.
Automaticity
This is the pacemaker of the heart
Sinoatrial Node (SA node)
This term is the part of the ECG that represents atrial depolarization.
P wave
This is the specialized structure through which depolarization waves in the atria must pass to get to the ventricles; it delays the depolarization wave as it passes.
Atrioventricular Node (AV Node)
That part of the ECG that represents movement of the depolarization wave through the AV node.
P R Interval or PQRS
This is the part of the ECG that represents ventricular depolarization.
Q R S Complex
This is the part of the ECG that represents ventricular repolarization.
T wave
When a cardiac cell is in the resting, polarized state, this ion is mostly concentrated on the inside of the cell.
Potassium
This ion rushes into the cardiac cell to initiate depolarization
Sodium
This is the specialized pump that maintains concentrations of sodium and potassium in their respective locations during the polarized resting state.
Sodium - Potassium ATPase
The influx of what ion produces the plateau phase of cardiac muscle cell depolarization?
Calcium
This is any abnormal or irregular heart rhythm.
Arrhythmia
These are the two catecholamines released by the sympathetic nervous system that produce its effects.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Stimulation of this receptor increases heart rate.
Beta 1
Stimulation of this receptor slows heart rate.
Cholinergic
Stimulation of this receptor causes bronchodilation.
Beta 2
Stimulation of this receptor causes increased GI activity.
Cholinergic
Stimulation of this receptor causes peripheral vasoconstriction.
Alpha 1
This term means a fast heart rate. Slow heart rate?
Tachycardia - fast
Bradycardia - slow
This is a site of depolarization in the heart that is other than on the normal conduction pathway sequence (SA node, AV node).
Ectopic focus
Large, bizarre-looking wave on the ECG caused by some cell in the ventricles depolarizing on its own out of sequence and disrupting normal ventricular depolarization.
Premature ventricular contraction
Abnormality seen on ECG as a prolongation of the PR interval, representing decreased conduction of the depolarization wave through the atrioventricular (AV) node.
First degree AV block
At the end of a drug name, this often indicates the drug is a β-blocker (β1 antagonist) antiarrhythmic drug.
-olol
This is the process by which cardiac cells become less sensitive to the effects of β-blocker antiarrhythmics; the process involves increasing the number of β1 receptors on the cardiac cell surface, making it more sensitive to catecholamines like norepinephrine.
Upregulation
Which cardiovascular drug should be monitored for toxicity levels through blood testing?
Epinephrine and lidocaine are typically given in clinic and animals are not sent home on these medications, they also are rapidly metabolized in the body. Dopamine is one of the bodies natural catecholamines, and therefore digoxin is the drug which can often lead to toxic levels and the animal should be monitored while on the medication, concurrent administration of digoxin and quinidine may lead to toxic levels of digoxin
Which group of drugs prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II?
What structures constitute the urinary system?
Kidneys, bladder, ureters, urethra
Explain how diuretics work
Diuretics work by removing excess Extracellular fluid, by increasing urine volume and sodium excretion, and by decreasing hypertension
What supplement may be administered in conjunction with loop diuretics?
Potassium
What drug is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
Spironolactone
Which one of the following is an osmotic diuretic?
a. Chlorothiazole
b. mannitol
c. Furosemide
d. Spironolactone
Mannitol
ACE inhibitors block the conversion of angiotensin I to
Angiotensin II
Why is furosemide referred to as a loop diuretic?
Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of sodium
Name a beta-adrenergic blocker drug that is used to control mild to moderate hypertension associated with chronic renal failure?
Acebutolol
Enalapril is a(n) __________.
Ace inhibitor
The ureters ____.
originate from the kidneys and connect with the urinary bladder.
Persistently high blood pressure is known as _____.
Hypertension
Diuretics are used to remove ____ fluid.
Extracellular
Loop diuretics inhibit the tubular reabsorption of ______.
Sodium
List three general functions of the GI tract.
- Intake of fluid into the body
- Absorption of nutrients and fluid
- Excretion of waste products
List three examples of monogastric animals.
Dogs, Cats, Primates
What is the GI configuration of ruminant animals?
They have three fore stomachs (reticulum, rumen, omasum) which allows them to digest coarse plant
material, and one true stomach (abomasum)
What is the difference between vomiting and regurgitation?
Vomiting is the ejection of contents of the stomach and upper intestine whereas regurgitation is the ejection of contents of the esophagus
Regurgitation is a normal process of ruminants
that permits them to bring up partially digested
foodstuff for rechewing. Vomiting is the
forcible expulsion of gastric contents and is
generally considered to be pathologic.
Ruminants are animals that use ______________ to digest coarse plant material.
microorganisms
What are the three basic control mechanisms of the GI tract?
Autonomic Nervous System
Hormones of the endocrine system (gastrin)
Locally releases compounds like histamine
What is the significance of the presence of bacterial endotoxins in the GI tract?
They can stimulate secretions of electrolytes which will draw fluid from intestinal cells and animals will experience diarrhea / dehydration
The CRTZ stimulates vomiting when activated by ______________________.
Chemical substances (digitalis compounds,
urea, ketone bodies, and others) and impulses
from the inner ear
List two examples of centrally acting emetics and two examples of peripherally acting emetics.
Centrally acting : apomorphine and xylazine;
peripherally acting : syrup of ipecac and NaCl
Drugs that inhibit vomiting are called ______________________.
Antiemetics
List two H2 receptor antagonists.
Cimetidine and ranitidine
What are the two types of intestinal motility patterns?
Peristalsis (a wave of contraction) and
segmentation (a mixing action)
Acute vomiting and diarrhea in dogs and cats often respond to conservative management such as ______________________.
Withholding of food for 12 to 24 hours
List two species that do not vomit.
rats and horses
What is the mechanism of action of saline/hyperosmotic laxatives?
By retaining water osmotically in the gut, these
agents cause softening of the stool
Direct cholinergic drugs stimulate the GI tract by what mechanism?
By mimicking the effect of acetylcholine
List four products used as dentifrice/oral cleansing agents.
C.E.T., Nolvadent, Oral Dent, and Oxydent
What is the difference between peristalsis and segmentation?
Peristalsis refers to a wave of contraction that
moves contents along, and segmentation refers
to intestinal constrictions that mix contents.
TRUE OR FALSE Stimulation of the parasympathetic portion of the ANS decreases intestinal motility.
False
About what percent of the stomach’s contents do emetics usually remove?
80%
How does sucralfate work to treat/prevent gastric ulcers?
By forming a pastelike barrier over the surface
of gastric ulcers
The crop in birds is used for ______.
a. a stomach
b. food storage
c. feces storage
d. a place where food goes to mix with hydrochloric acid to aid in the breakdown of foodstuffs
Food Storage
________ are substances that loosen bowel contents and encourage their evacuation.
Laxatives
This term means the administration a drug by a mist that is inhaled.
Nebulization or aerosolization
This is the mechanism that traps inhaled particles in a mucous layer and moves it up and out of the respiratory tree.
Mucociliary apparatus
This term describes pulmonary disease that causes cardiac disease.
Cor pulmonale
This is the term that describes the narrowing of the terminal bronchioles.
Bronchocontrictiction
The type of drug that suppresses cough.
Antitussive drugs
The type of drug that chemically breaks apart mucus.
Mucolytic
The type of drug that does not break apart mucus but increases watery secretions in the lungs.
Expectorant
The type of drug that decreases congestion in the upper part of the respiratory tract by causing vasoconstriction.
Decongestant
The specific receptor that, when stimulated, causes bronchodilation.
Beta 2
The specific receptor that, when stimulated, causes peripheral vasoconstriction in the skin and mucous membranes.
Alpha 1
The specific receptor that, when stimulated, increase the heart rate and force of contraction.
Beta 1
The receptor through which histamine produces its inflammatory effects.
Histamine Type 1
This term means “difficult breathing.”
Dyspnea
This term means “dried out.”
Inspissated
This describes a type of cough in which mucus is brought up by the cough.
Productive cough
This is the definition of “MDI.”
Metered dose inhaler
The inflammatory mediator other than histamine that is likely involved in feline asthma.
serotonin
The chronic respiratory disease in horses that is characterized by asthma like clinical signs.
Recurrent airway obstruction
This term describes any type of drug that is a narcotic and has opium-like characteristics.
Opioid
This is the cellular compound that causes the smooth muscles of bronchioles to relax.
Cyclic Adenosine Monophosphate (camp)
This is the enzyme that degrades cAMP.
Phosphodiesterase
Name the drug! Expectorant; works by irritating the gastric lining.
Guaifenesin
Name the drug! Centrally acting opioid antitussive; the only Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved veterinary product for cough.
Butorphanol
Name the drug! Same drug group as caffeine and theobromine (in chocolate); a bronchodilator that contains 80% active ingredient and 20% salt.
Aminophylline
Name the drug! Used in patients in which the inflammatory process is life threatening; not to be used with respiratory fungal disease; stabilizes cellular membranes more than antihistamines.
Glucocorticoids
Name the drug! Mucolytic that breaks apart sulfhydryl bonds (SS).
Acetylcysteine
Name the drug! Prophylactic anti-inflammatory that decreases inflammatory response only if it is at the site of inflammation before the inflammation starts.
Antihistamine
Name the drug! Potent narcotic antitussive; human product; C-II or C-III controlled substance.
Hydrocodone
Name the drug! Type of drug used to decrease pulmonary edema.
Diuretic
Name the drug! Common antitussive ingredient in over-the-counter (OTC) cold preparations; not a controlled substance; not very effective in veterinary patients.
Dextromethorphan
Name the drug! Also used as an intravenously (IV) administered muscle relaxant for equine patients.
Guaifenesin
Name the drug! Also used as an antidote in cats with acetaminophen toxicosis.
Acetycysteine
Name the drug! Active ingredient of aminophylline.
Theophylline
Name the drug! Used to dilate bronchioles by directly stimulating β2 receptors.
Albuterol
Name the drug! Human prescription opioid antitussive that is widely used in human medicine, often in conjunction with other cold or flu medications; a strongly abused opioid; not used much in veterinary medicine.
Codeine
Name the drug! Bronchodilator that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase.
Methylxanthine
The active ingredient in Ventiplumin is?
Clenbuterol
Which category of drugs produce bronchodilation and mild diuresis?
methylxanthines
Which drug will liquefy and dilute the viscid secretions of the respiratory tract, thereby helping to evacuate those secretions?
expectorants
Identify the specific drug which may be used for the relief of chronic nonproductive coughs in dogs and for analgesia and preanaesthesia in dogs and cats.
butorphanol tartrate
TRUE OR FALSE The use of a diuretic drug would decrease the efficiency of the mucociliary clearance.
True
TRUE OR FALSE Beta2-adrnergic agonists combine with appropriate receptors on the smooth muscle fibres and effect relaxation of those fibres.
True
TRUE OR FALSE Nebulization describes the process by which macrophages move into the alveoli and clean up debris that made it down that far.
False
Stimulation of which branch of the autonomic nervous system produces bronchodilation>
Sympathetic Nervous System
When foreign particles manage to get past the upper cilia they are trapped by mucus in the trachae; particles which may manage to get to the lower airways will be phagocytized by which of the following immunoglobulins?
IgA
IgD
IgG
IgE
IgA
Identify which of the following, when irritated, will produce a cough reflex from the cough centre in the brainstem.
bronchi
bronchioles
larynx
trachea
all of the above
all of the above
