Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Dental Materials DES2100 > Test 2 (12-15, 17-19) > Flashcards

Test 2 (12-15, 17-19) Flashcards

1
Q

The type of implant that involves cutting a hold in the alveolar bone and then pressing or screwing in the implant is called:

A. Subperiosteal

B. Staple

C. Transosseous

D. Endosseous

A

D. Endosseous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following takes place during the 2nd endosseous implant surgery?

A. An impression is taken for crown fabrication

B. An abutment is attached to the body of the implant

C. A healing cap is attached to the body of the implant

D. The amount of osseointegration is measured

A

C. A healing cap is attached to the body of the implant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

To ensure longevity and function of the implant, the patient is responsible for:

a. eventual payment in full of all implant procedures
b. plaque control
c. applicationof tray delivered fluoride
d. proper occlusion

A

b. plaque control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

the surgical procedure for placing implants just not injure the bone. Overheating the bone prevents osseointegration of the implant. Recommended temperatures are not to exceed:

a. 98.6 F
b. 47 F
c. 117 C
d. 117F

A

d. 117F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

all of the following conditions are contraindications for implant placement except:

a. recurrent caries
b. Poor oral hygiene
c. diabetes
d. smoking

A

a. recurrent caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Titanium is very difficult to cast. It is not very strong but is acceptable for implant uses.

a. the first statement is true, the second is false
b. the first statement is false, the second is true
c. both statements are true
d. both statements are false

A

c. both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A patient who has a very small or essentially no mandibular ridge is said to have a(n):

a. atrophic dentulous mandible
b. atrophic endentulous mandible
c. iatrogenic edentulous mandible
d. dysfunctional edentulous mandible

A

b. Atrophic edentulous mandible
* An alveolar ridge having no teeth is said to be edentulous. in most cases, when the mandibular arch atrophies, it becomes smaller in size due to aging. An atrophic edentulous mandible is one that has no teeth, is very “low” and small, and would not be adequate to support a denture.

The word “iatrogenic” means caused by a professional by accident.

the word “dentulous” means with or having teeth.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The patient’s home care regimen of implant maintenance may consist only of a toothbrush and floss. Without proper maintenance, the possibility of implant failure greatly increases.

a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
b. the first statement is false, the second statement is true
c. both statements are true
d. both statements are false

A

c. both statements are true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The prosthodontic phase of implant treatment involves the placement of several “parts” or attachments. a patient who has completed the surgeries and restorative care would receive in, in order:

a. cylinder, implant, abutment, crown
b. implant cylinder abutment, crown
c. cylinder, implant, crown, abutment
d. implant, abutment, cylinder, crown

A

d. implant, abutment, cylinder, crown

  1. first surgery an implant is placed
  2. in the next surgery a healing cap is placed, which is exposed to the oral cavity
  3. later the healing cap is removed and an abutment is placed the implant.
  4. It acts as an abutment of a bridge and supports the prosthesis.
  5. A cylinder is then placed on the abutment, and then a crown is placed on the cylinder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

All of the following should be included in the post care maintenance of a patient with an implant except one. Which one is the exception?

a. necessary chairside, home care instructions
b. recommended auxiliary aids
c. selecting the restorative material for an adjacent restoration
d. specific length of time between recall visits.

A

c. selecting the restorative material for an adjacent restoration.
* the scope of practice of dental hygiene does not include selecting restorative material for tooth restoration.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The word “obturation” when used in discussion of root canal therapy means:

a. accessing the canal
b. filling and sealing the canal
c. placing the final restoration
d. removing the contents of the pulp

A

b. filling and sealing the canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which type of composite gives the clinician an advantage when removing orthodontic resins during bonding?

a. microfilled
b. macrofilled
c. hybird
d. none of the above

A

b. macrofilled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The endodontic surgical procedure that removes 1-3 mm of the root apex is called a(n):

a. endodontic retreatment
b. retrofill
c. root resection
d. apicoectomy

A

d. apicoectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is used to disinfect the canal system by killing bacteria and dissolving plural tissue?

a. endodontic sealers
b. paper points
c. irrigants
d. gutta percha

A

c. irrigants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

which orthodontic device prevents “relapse” of the teeth?

a. archwire
b. ligature
c. bracket
d. retainer

A

d. retainer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the debonding procedure is done after orthodontic treatment is completed. The dental material removed from tooth surface is:

a. composite resin
b. cold cure resin
c. dental cement
d. ligature material

A

a. composite resin

Brackets are secured to the tooth surface by acid etching and composite resin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the most commonly used technique to fill a root canal with gutta-percha is termed:

a. direct compression
b. lateral compression
c. direct condensation
d. lateral condensation

A

d. lateral condensation
* Lateral condensation is used to fill the root canal with gutta-percha.

Condensation is a term used in dentistry to describe the method of compressing and filling a small area in a tooth such as a preparation or root canal.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

a pulpotomy usually serves as a ___________ procedure on permanent molars.

a. temporary
b. permanent
c. either temporary or permanent
d. neither temporary or permanent

A

a. temporary
* for permanent molars a pulpotomy is a temporary procedure and is followed by a root canal therapy.

For primary molars, it is a permanent procedure and is restored with a stainless steel crown. This will maintain space and function until the permanent molar takes it’s place.*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following materials used in orthodontic treatment serves to secure the arch wire on the facial surfaces of a tooth?

a. band
b. bracket
c. composite resin
d. retainer

A

b. bracket

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

surgical silk suture is:

a. another name for surgical gut suture
b. absorbable and removed at a later appointment
c. nonabsorbable and removed at a later appointment
d. absorbable and exists both inside and outside the body while in place.

A

c. nonabsorbable and removed at a later appointment
* surgical silk sutur is nonabsorbable and must be removed at a later appointment

absorbable sutures are usually placed on the inside of the body, and since the body resorbs them, a later appointment for removal is not necessary

surgical gut suture is one type of absorbable suture*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following restorative materials may be affected by numerous applications of acidulated phosphate fluoride?

A) Cast gold
B) Zinc oxide-eugenol (ZOE) temporary restorations
C) Glass ionomers
D) Amalgam

A

C) Glass ionomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Margins of cast restorations can be altered by instrumentation with curettes and explorers. A suggestive technique for a deposit removal in these areas to employ:

A) A vertical stroke, as used on natural tooth structure
B) A vertical stroke, but with anterior instruments only
C) An oblique or horizontal stroke, with appropriate instruments
D) Any stroke, but with ultrasonic scalers

A

C) An oblique or horizontal stroke, with appropriate instruments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A dull sound when an instrument is being used on these surfaces should be evident with which of the following materials?

A) Gold foil and base metal alloys
B) Enamel and dentin
C) Amalgam and cast gold
D) Composite and glass ionomer

A

D) Composite and glass ionomer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tactile sensitivity and a sharp explorer will aid the clinician in identifying:

A) Opacities from translucencies
B) Glossy surfaces from dull surfaces
C) Dull sounds from sharp sounds
D) Rough surfaces from smooth surfaces

A

D) Rough surfaces from smooth surfaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Creating temperatures of 140 degrees F or greater when amalgam restorations are being finished and polished will:

A) Arrest corrosion and marginal breakdown
B) Accelerate corrosion and marginal breakdown
C) Create a roughened surface
D) Change a sharp sound to a dull sound

A

B) Accelerate corrosion and marginal breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the agents of choice for polishing a gold crown intraorally?

A) Silex and tin oxide
B) Brown and green polishing pastes
C) A correct sequence of prophylaxis pastes
D) A sequence of aluminum oxide-coated discs

A

A) Silex and tin oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

One benefit of a moist polishing agent is:

A) Heat reduction
B) Aid in swallowing
C) Faster stain removal
D) Ease in rinsing

A

A) Heat reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When a cast gold crown has been marginated, it means that the:

A) Casting fits precisely in the preparation
B) Margins have been closely adapted to the crown preparation
C) Casting fits within the gingival margin
D) Casting is in relation to the adjacent marginal ridge

A

B) Margins have been closely adapted to the crown preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When clinically polishing gold and gold foil, the regimen is similar to that of:

A) Composite
B) Amalgam
C) Glass ionomer
D) Porcelain fused to metal crown

A

B) Amalgam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Acidulated phosphate fluoride is not recommended for the following materials:

A) Composite and porcelain only
B) Composite and glass ionomer only
C) Gold, composite, and porcelain
D) Glass ionomer, composites, and porcelain

A

D) Glass ionomer, composites, and porcelain

31
Q

To competently integrate dental radiographs into patient treatment, the dental hygienist must:

A) Diagnose dental disease fromt he dental radiographs
B) Recognize normal anatomy, landmarks, and restorations from abnormalities, pathologies, adn artifacts
C) Prescribe radiographs and determine a dental hygiene diagnosis
D) Collect data and determine the definitive diagnosis

A

B) Recognize normal anatomy, landmarks, and restorations from abnormalities, pathologies, adn artifacts

32
Q

Oral tissues and dental materials in the oral cavity result in radiographic contrast on a processed radiograph. These structures attenuate the primary beam of the X-rays.

A) The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false

A

C) Both statements are true

33
Q

The more dense the object/material in the oral cavity, the more radiolucent the area will appear on a dental radiograph. The less dense the abject/material in the oral cavity, the more radiopaque the area will appear on a dental radiograph.

A) The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false

A

D) Both statements are false

34
Q

An endodontically treated tooth may be sealed with gutta-percha. The gutta-purcha appears radiolucent on the radiograph.

A) The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false

A

A) The first statement is true, the second statement is false

35
Q

A porcelain-fused-to-metal crown appears both radiolucent and radiopaque on the radiograph. This radiographic appearance is caused by the various types of electromagnetic radiation.

A) The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false

A

A) The first statement is true, the second statement is false

36
Q

The presence of an orthodontic band interferes with the detection of a carious lesion because:

A) The band encircles the tooth, and its radiolucent appearance prevents the identification of proximal or occlusal decay
B) The band encircles the tooth, and its radiopaque appearance prevents the identification of proximal or occlusal decay
C) The band is cemented with zinc phosphate cement and fogs the detection of proximal or occlusal decay
D) The band is bonded with composite resin and fogs the detection of proximal or occlusal decay

A

B) The band encircles the tooth, and its radiopaque appearance prevents the identification of proximal or occlusal decay

37
Q

Resorbable materials used to repair or regenerate the periodontium are not generally visible on radiographs. The resultant healing of the resorbable material may be identified on the radiograph.

A) The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B) The first statement is false; the second statement is true
C) Both statements are true
D) Both statements are false

A

C) Both statements are true

38
Q

A base may be placed under a new restoration and act as a thermal insulator to the pulp. Compared to a metal restoration, the radiographically visible base material is:

A) Opaque
B) Radiopaque
C) Radiolucent
D) Translucent

A

C) Radiolucent

39
Q

To differentiate a radiopaque dental material from enamel or dentin, one should compare the:

A) Composition of the material with the anatomical parts of the tooth.
B) Size of the material with the anatomical layers of the tooth
C) Shape of the radiopacity with the expected anatomical features of the tooth.
D) Amount of the material with the anatomical parts of the tooth

A

C) Shape of the radiopacity with the expected anatomical features of the tooth.

40
Q

In recent years, it has become less confusing to radiographically distinguish composite resin restorations from carious lesions. The reason is that composite restorative material:

A) Has improved compressive strength
B) Has coefficients of thermal expansion closer to that of enamel
C) Contains radiopaque filler particles
D) Has improved elastic properties

A

C) Contains radiopaque filler particles

41
Q

The term “nonvital” may be used to describe a tooth that has:

A) Been treated with a root canal procedure
B) A necrotic pulp
C) No pulp tissue in the pulp cavity
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

42
Q

Which of the following esthetic tooth treatments requires no removal of tooth structure?

A) Nonvital tooth whitening
B) Vital tooth whitening
C) facial veneer
D) porcelain-bonded-to-metal crown

A

B) Vital tooth whitening

43
Q

Which of the following statements is the most accurate?

A) Hydrogen peroxide is more stable than carbamide peroxide
B) carbamide peroxide is used in the nonvital tooth whitening technique known as a walking bleach
C) hydrogen peroxide decomposes into water and free radicals of oxygen
D) caramide peroxide is most often applied to teeth as a gel at a 35% concentration

A

C) hydrogen peroxide decomposes into water and free radicals of oxygen

44
Q

Which of the following variables is not a factor in the success of a vital tooth whitening treatment?

A) number of teeth to be treated
B) strength of the whitening agent
C) type and intensity of discoloration or stain
D) length of exposure of the tooth to the whitening agent

A

A) number of teeth to be treated

45
Q

Teeth with a moderate degree of ____________ are the most difficult to successfully whiten.

A) extrinsic food and beverage stain
B) yellow intrinsic discoloration
C) extrinsic tobacco stain
D) tetracycline stain

A

D) tetracycline stain

46
Q

Which of the following statements is not true regarding tooth sensitivity from vital tooth whitening?

A) it is a common side effect
B) it is not reversible
C) it can be treated by topical application of potassium nitrate.
D) it may be caused by a tray that is too ridgid

A

B) it is not reversible

47
Q

Which of the followign is the most common esthetic procedure in dentistry?

A) facial veneer
B) all porcelain crown
C) porcelain-bonded-to-metal crown
D) tooth whitening

A

D) tooth whitening

48
Q

brushing with a potassium nitrate containing dentifrice before and after bleaching is advised. During power bleaching, a patient must be anesthetized.

A) the first statement is true; the second statement is false
B) the first statement is false, the second statement is true
C) both statements are true
D) both statements are false

A

A) the first statement is true; the second statement is false

49
Q

when should a bleached tooth be restored with a composite restoration?
A) immediately
B) 1-2 days
C) 3-4 days
D) 1-2 weeks

A

D) 1-2 weeks

50
Q

all of the following are contraindications to light-activated bleaching procedures EXCEPT:

A) use of photo sensitive drugs
B) history of melanoma
C) undergoing radiation therapy or chemotherapy
D) previous use of night guard bleaching system

A

D) previous use of night guard bleaching system

51
Q

An aqueous cleaning technology used in pre-whitening and touch-up whitening is dispensed in a _______________

A) gel
B) liquid
C) strip
D) swab

A

D) swab

52
Q

Dental professionals should be aware that a statement on safety and effectiveness of whitening products is available through the _______________

A) whitening product manufacturers
B) MSDS sheets
C) ADA
D) ADHA

A

C) ADA

53
Q

The purpose of wearing an oral appliance for OSA is to modify the position of upper airway structures so that:

a) the airway is enlarged
b) the airway is reduced
c) collapsibility is reduced
d) both a and c
e) both b and c

A

d) both a and c

54
Q

Patients wearing an oral appliance during sleep have NOT demonstrated a/an:

a) increase in periodontal diseases
b) decrease in periodontal diseases
c) frequent occurrence of periodontla absecesses
d) change in periodontal health

A

d) change in periodontal health

55
Q

Athletic mouth guards may prevent a concussion. However, they must be worn correctly and consistently.

a) the first statement is true, the second statement is false
b) the first statement is false; the second statement is true
c) both statements are true
d) both statements are false

A

c) both statements are true

56
Q

Night guards are worn to:

a) prevent dental caries
b) alleviate tooth surface wear
c) provide minor tooth movement or stabilization
d) temporarily hold teeth in position

A

b) alleviate tooth surface wear

57
Q

Dental professionals fabricate stock mouth guards. Custom made mouth guards can be purchased at most athletic and drug stores.

a) the first statement is true, the second statement is false
b) the first statement is false; the second statement is true
c) both statements are true
d) both statements are false

A

d) both statements are false

58
Q

Thermoplastic materials will _______ on heating and _______ on cooling.

a) Soften, re-harden
b) Harden, soften
c) Harden, stay hard
d) Soften, melt

A

a) Soften, re-harden

59
Q

Patients may clean oral appliances with a soft-bristled, wet tooth brush. No commercial products are available in which to soak oral appliances.

a) the first statement is true, the second statement is false
b) the first statement is false; the second statement is true
c) both statements are true
d) both statements are false

A

a) the first statement is true, the second statement is false

60
Q

Mouth protectors can be:

a) custom-made
b) stock
c) “boil-and-bite”
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

61
Q

Space maintainers are used to:

a) alleviate bruxism
b) hold the tongue in proper position
c) temporarily hold teeth in position
d) alleviate OSA

A

c) temporarily hold teeth in position

62
Q

Athletic mouth guards should be properly fitted, stay in place comfortably, be made of resilient material approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration and:

a) be physiologically compatible with the wearer
b) have a fresh scent
c) increase the amount of force placed on the occlusion
d) be worn on the mandibular arch

A

a) be physiologically compatible with the wearer

63
Q

when fabricating an oral appliance, which of the following oral anatomical structures should be necessarily replicated?

a) sulcus
b) periodontal ligament
c) gingival contours of the teeth
d) soft palate

A

c) gingival contours of the teeth

64
Q

Fluoride custom trays are recommended for which of the following patients?

a) Elderly patient with severe periodontal disease
b) three-year-old patient with early childhood caries
c) adult patient undergoing head or neck radiation therapy
d) adolescent patient with severe halitosis

A

c) adult patient undergoing head or neck radiation therapy

65
Q

A uniform corrosive attack that produces a film or surface layer on the metal is termed:

a. corrosion
b. tarnish
c. electrochemical corrosion
d. concentration cell corrosion

A

b. tarnish

66
Q

A beneficial chemical process in manufacturing that creates a thin layer of chromium oxide on the surface of the instrument to protect it from corrosion is called:

a. manufacturing of alloy
b. electroplating
c. passivation
d. electropolishing

A

c. passivation

67
Q

The standard protocol for chemical vapor sterilization is

a. 270 degree F at 27 psi for at least 6 min
b. 320 degree F for approx 2 hrs
c. 270 degree F at 20 to 40 psi for at least 10 min
d. 270 degree F at 20 to 40 psi for at least 20 min

A

d. 270 degree F at 20 to 40 psi for at least 20 min

68
Q

Risks are involved when re-tipping instruments. One of these risks is frequent breakage between the shank and tip

a. The first statement true, second statement false
b. The first statement is false, the second statement is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are false.

A

a. The first statement true, second statement false

69
Q

To determine when the instruments should be sharpened, this chapter provides ______ questions to ask when looking over the appointment book so that an effective sharpening schedule may be developed

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

A

b. 3

70
Q

The major components of stainless steel alloy are:

a. tin, chromium, and nickel
b. iron, silver, and nickel
c. iron, aluminum, and nickel
d. iron, chromium, and nickel

A

d. iron, chromium, and nickel

71
Q

The major disadvantage of using noble metals for the fabrication of instruments is:

a. cost
b. corrosion
c. wear rate
d. pitting

A

a. cost

72
Q

The dry heat method of sterilization is used when:

a. Ventilation is not adequate
b. items cannot withstand temp greater than 270 degree F
c. items cannot withstand compressed steam condition
d. items are needed for the next patient

A

c. items cannot withstand compressed steam condition

73
Q

Which of the following sequence of steps is correct for the instrument maintenance cycle?

a. use and maintain, sharpen, sterilize, inspect, wash/ultrasonic clean
b. sharpen, inspect, use and maintain, sterilize, wash/ultrasonic clean
c. use and maintain, inspect, wash/ultrasonic clean, sterilize, sharpen
d. use and maintain, inspect, wash/ultrasonic clean, sharpen, sterilize

A

c. use and maintain, inspect, wash/ultrasonic clean, sterilize, sharpen

74
Q

The name of the procedure that produces a smooth, highly polished finish on an instrument is

a. passivation
b. electropolishing
c. heat treatment polishing
d. cryogenic polishing

A

b. electropolishing

Dental Materials DES2100 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions