Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Threats to AIS

A
  • Natural and political disasters
  • Software errors and equipment malfunctions
  • Unintentional acts
  • Intentional Acts
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2
Q

An intentional act where the intent is to destroy a system or some of its components

A

Sabotage

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3
Q

Gaining an unfair advantage over another person

A

Fraud

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4
Q

Legally, for an act to be fraudulent there must be:

A
  1. False statement, representation, disclosure
  2. Material facts
  3. An intent to deceive
  4. Justifiable reliance
  5. Injury or loss
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5
Q

Typically, business people who commit fraud. Criminals usually resort trickery or cunning, and their crimes usually involve a violation of trust or confidence

A

white-collar criminals

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6
Q

Dishonest conduct by those in power and it often involves actions that are illegitimate, immoral, or incompatible with ethical standards

A

Corruption

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7
Q

Misrepresenting or leaving out facts in order to promote and investment that promises fantastic profits with little or no risk

A

Investment fraud

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8
Q

The theft of company assets by employees

A

Misappropriation of assets

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9
Q

Fraudulent financial reporting

A

Intentional or reckless conduct, whether by act or omission, that results in materially misleading financial statements

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10
Q

4 actions to reduce fraudulent financial reporting

A
  1. Establish an environment that contributes to integrity
  2. Identify and understand factors that lead to fraudulent financial reporting
  3. Assess the risk of fraudulent reporting within the company
  4. Design and implement internal controls
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11
Q

SAS requires auditor’s to:

A
  • Understand fraud
  • Discuss the risks of material fraudulent misstatements
  • Obtain information
  • Identify, assess, and respond to risks
  • Evaluate the results of their audit tests
  • Document and communicate findings
  • Incorporate a technology focus
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12
Q

Fraud Triangle

A
  • Opportunity
  • Rationalization
  • Pressure
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13
Q

A person’s incentive or motivation for committing fraud

A

Pressure

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14
Q

The condition or situation that allows a person or organization to commit and conceal a dishonest act and convert it to a personal gain

A

Opportunity

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15
Q

Concealing the theft of cash by means of a series of delays in posting collections to accounts receivable

A

Lapping

Customer A, B, C…

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16
Q

Cash is created using the lag between the time a check is deposited and the time it clears the bank

A

Check kiting

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17
Q

Allows perpetrators to justify their illegal behavior
- justification, attitude, lack of personal integrity

A

Rationalization

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18
Q

Any type of fraud that requires computer technology to perpetrate it

A

Computer fraud

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19
Q

Computer fraud classifications

A
  • Input fraud
  • Processor fraud
  • Data fraud
  • Output fraud
  • Computer instructions fraud
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20
Q

Input fraud

A

Simplest and most common way to commit a computer fraud is to alter or falsify computer inout

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21
Q

Processor fraud

A

Includes unauthorized system use, including the theft of computer time and services

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22
Q

Computer instructions fraud

A

Includes tampering with company software, copying software illegally, using software in an unauthorized manner, and developing software to carry out an unauthorized activity

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23
Q

Data fraud

A

illegally using, copying, browsing, searching, or harming company data

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24
Q

Output fraud

A

Output can be stolen, copied, or misused
- television like signals

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25
Q

A probability distribution for the likelihood of a digit in a large set of naturally occurring numbers

A

Benford’s Law

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26
Q

6 steps criminals use to attack information systems

A
  1. Conduct reconnoissance
  2. Attempt social engineering
  3. Scan the map target
  4. Research
  5. Execute the attack
  6. Cover tracks
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27
Q

The unauthorized access, modification, or use of an electronic device or some element of a computer system

A

Hacking

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28
Q

Gaining control of a computer to carry out illicit activities without the user’s knowledge

A

Hijacking

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29
Q

Short for robot network, is a powerful network of hijacked computers, called zombies, that are used to attack systems or spread malware

A

Botnet

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30
Q

Hijacked computers, typically part of a botnet, that are used to launch a variety of internet attacks

A

Zombies

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31
Q

Installs software that responds to the hacker’s electronic instructions on unwitting PCs

A

Bot herder

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32
Q

The attacker sends so many e-mail bombs or web page requests, often more randomly generated false addresses, that the internet service provider’s e-mail server or the web page server is overloaded and shuts down

A

Denial-of-service attack (DoS)

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33
Q

A trial-and-error method that uses software to guess information, such as the user ID and the password, needed to gain access to a system

A

Brute force attack

(1) the computing power used and (2) enough time to generate the number of combinations needed

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34
Q

Passwords stored in or transmitted by a computer system are recovered by trying every possible combination of upper- and lower-case letters, numbers, and special characters and comparing them to a cryptographic hash of the password

A

Password cracking

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35
Q

Software generates user IDs and password guesses using a dictionary of possible user IDs and passwords to reduce the number of guesses required

A

Dictionary attack

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36
Q

Simultaneously sending the same unsolicited message to many people at the same time, often in an attempt to sell something

A

Spamming

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37
Q

Making an e-mail appear as though it originated from a different source

A

E-mail spoofing

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38
Q

Making an electronic communication look as if someone else sent it to gain the trust of the recipient

A

Spoofing

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39
Q

Displaying an incorrect number on a caller ID display to hide the caller’s identity

A

Caller ID spoofing

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40
Q

Creating Internet protocol (IP) packets with a forged source IP address to conceal the identity of the sender or to impersonate another computer system

A

IP address spoofing

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41
Q

Using the short message service (SMS) to change the name or number a text message appears to come from

A

SMS spoofing

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42
Q

software program flaws that a hacker can exploit to either crash a system or take control of it

A

Vulnerabilities

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43
Q

an attack between the time a new software vulnerability is discovered and the time a software developer releases a patch that fixes the problem

A

zero-day attack

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44
Q

code released by software developers that fixes a particular vulnerability

A

patch

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45
Q

a vulnerability in dynamic web pages that allows an attacker to bypass a browser’s security mechanisms and instruct the victim’s browser to execute code, thinking it came from a desired website

A

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

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46
Q

Happens when the amount of data entered into a program is greater than the amount of memory (the input buffer) set aside to receive it

A

buffer overflow attack

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47
Q

Malicious code in the form of an SQL query is inserted into input so it can be passed to and executed by an application program

A

SQL injection attack

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48
Q

Places a hacker between a client and a host and intercepts network traffic between them

A

man-in-the middle attack

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49
Q

Pretending to be an authorized user to access a system

A

masquerading/impersonation

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50
Q

an unauthorized party gains access to some system in connection with an authorized party

A

piggybacking

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51
Q

programming a computer to dial thousands of phone lines searching for dial-up modem lines

A

War dialing

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52
Q

driving around looking for unprotected wireless networks

A

war driving

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53
Q

attacking phone systems to obtain free phone line access; use phone lines to transmit malware; and access, steal, and destroy data

A

Phreaking

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54
Q

Using a small device with storage capacity, such as an iPod or flash drive, to download unauthorized data

A

Podslurping

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55
Q

Stealing tiny slices of money from many different accounts

A

Salami technique

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56
Q

All interest calculations are truncated at two decimal places and the excess decimals put into an account the perpetrator controls

A

round-down fraud

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57
Q

Theft of information, trade secrets, and intellectual property

A

Economic espionage

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58
Q

Using an internet auction site to defraud another person

A

Internet action fraud

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59
Q

Using the internet to pump up the price of a stock and then selling it

A

Internet pump-and-dump fraud

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60
Q

Investors are defrauded in a variety of cryptocurrency-related fraud schemes

A

cryptocurrency fraud

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61
Q

Manipulating click numbers to inflate advertising bills

A

Click fraud

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62
Q

The unauthorized copying or distribution of copyrighted software

A

software piracy

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63
Q

Techniques or psychological tricks used to get people to comply with the perpetrator’s wishes in order to gain physical or logical access to a building, computer, server, or network - usually to get the information needed to access system and obtain confidential information

A

Social engineering

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64
Q

Assuming someone’s identity, usually for economic gain, by illegally obtaining and using confidential information, such as a social security number or a bank account or credit card number

A

Identity theft

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65
Q

Using an invented scenario to increase the likelihood that a victim will divulge information or do something

A

Pretexting

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66
Q

Creating a seemingly legitimate business, collecting personal info while making a sale, and never delivering the product

A

Posing

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67
Q

Sending an electronic message pretending to be a legitimate company, usually a financial institution, and requesting information or verification and often warning of a negative consequence if it is not provided

A

Phishing

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68
Q

Voice phishing, is like phishing except the victim enters confidential data by phone

A

Vishing

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69
Q

Activities performed on stolen credit cards, including making online purchases

A

Carding

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70
Q

Redirecting website traffic to a spoofed website

A

Pharming

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71
Q

Wireless network with the same name as a legitimate wireless access point

A

Evil twin

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72
Q

setting up similarly named websites so that users making typographical errors when entering a website name are sent to an invalid site

A

Typosquatting/ URL hijacking

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73
Q

Searching documents and records to gain access to confidential information

A

Scavenging/dumpster diving

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74
Q

Perpetrators look over a person’s shoulders in a public place to get information such as ATM PIN numbers or user IDs and passwords

A

Shoulder surfing

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75
Q

The perpetrator inserts a sleeve into an ATM that prevents the ATM from ejecting the card

A

Lebanese looping

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76
Q

Double-swiping a credit card in a legitimate terminal or covertly swiping a credit card in a small, hidden, handheld card reader that records credit card data for later use

A

Skimming

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76
Q

Planting a small chip that records transaction data in a legitimate credit card reader

A

chipping

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77
Q

Any software that is used to do harm

A

Malware

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78
Q

Software secretly monitors and collects personal information about users and sends it to someone else
- gathered by logging keystrokes, monitoring websites visited, and scanning documents on the computer’s hard drive

A

Spyware

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79
Q

Spyware that can pop banner ads on a monitor, collect information about the user’s web-surfing and spending habits, and forward it to the adware creator

A

Adware

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80
Q

Software records computer activity, such as user’s keystrokes, e-mails sent and received, websites visited, and the chat session Participation

A

Keylogger

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81
Q

Set of malicious computer instructions in an unauthorized and otherwise properly functioning program

A

Trojan horse

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82
Q

Processes implemented to provide reasonable assurance

A

Internal Controls

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83
Q

Deter problems before they arise. Examples include hiring qualified personnel, segregating employee duties, and controlling physical access to assets and information

A

Preventative controls

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84
Q

Discover problems that are not prevented. Examples include duplicate checking of calculations and preparing bank reconciliations and monthly trial balances

A

Detective controls

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85
Q

Identify and correct problems as well as correct and recover from the resulting errors. Examples include maintaining backup copies of files, correcting data entry errors, and resubmitting transactions for subsequent processing

A

Corrective controls

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86
Q

Make sure an organization’s control environment is stable and well managed. Examples include security; IT infrastructure; and software acquisition, development, and maintenance controls

A

General controls

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87
Q

Prevent, detect, and correct transaction errors and fraud in application programs. They are concerned with the accuracy, completeness, validity, and authorization of the data captured, entered, processed, stored, transmitted to other systems, and reported

A

Application controls

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88
Q

Describes how a company creates vale, helps employees understand management’s vision, communicates company core values, and inspires employees to live by those values

A

Belief system

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89
Q

Helps employees act ethically by setting boundaries on employee behavior

A

Boundary system

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90
Q

Measures, monitors, and compares actual company progress to budgets and performance goals. Feedback helps management adjust and fine-tune inputs and processes so future outputs more closely match goals

A

Diagnostic control system

91
Q

Helps managers to focus subordinates’ attention to key strategic issues and to be more involved in their decisions.

A

Interactive control system

92
Q

Passed to prevent companies from bribing foreign officials to obtain business

A

Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA)

93
Q

Designed to prevent financial statement fraud, make financial reports more transparent, protect investors, strengthen internal controls, and punish executives who perpetrate fraud

A

Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002

94
Q

Control the auditing profession. Sets and enforces auditing, quality control, ethics, independence. and other auditing standards
- created by SOX
- 5 people

A

Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB)

95
Q

After SOX was passed, the SEC mandated that management must:

A
  1. Base its evaluation on a recognized framework
  2. Disclose all material internal control weaknesses
  3. Conclude that a company does not have effective financial reporting internal controls if there are material weaknesses
96
Q

Consolidates control standards from many different sources into a single framework that allows (1) management to benchmark security and control practices of IT environments, (2) users to be assured that adequate IT security and controls exist, and (3) auditors to substantiate their internal control operations and to advise IT security and control matters

A

Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)
- developed by ISACA

96
Q

A private sector group consisting of the American Accounting Association, the AICPA, the institute of Internal Auditors, the Institute of Management Accountants, and the Financial Executives institute

A

Committee of Sponsoring Organizations (COSO)

97
Q

A COSO framework that defines internal controls and provides guidance for evaluating and enhancing internal control systems; widely dated to be accepted authority on internal controls incorporated into policies, rules, and regulations
bused to control business activities.

A

Internal Control - Integrated Framework (IC)

98
Q

5 Components of COSO

A
  1. Control Environment
  2. Risk assessment
  3. Control activities
  4. Information and communication
  5. Monitoring
99
Q

AKA company culture, influences how organizations establish strategies and objectives; structure business activities; and identify, assess, and respond to risk

A

Control environment

100
Q
  • Developed in 2004 by COSO
    The process the board of directors and management use to set strategy, identify events that may affect the entity, assess and manage risk, and provide reasonable assurance that the company achieves its objectives and goals.
A

Enterprise Risk Management (ERM)

101
Q

The amount of risk they are willing to accept to achieve their goals

A

Risk appetite

102
Q

Outside independent directors responsible for financial reporting, regulatory compliance, internal control, and hiring and overseeing internal and external auditors, who report all critical accounting policies and practices to them

A

Audit Committee
- Required by SOX

103
Q

Explains proper business practices, describes needed knowledge and experience, explains document procedures, explains how to handle transactions, and lists the resources provided to carry out specific duties

A

Policy and procedures manual

104
Q

The susceptibility of a set of accounts or transactions to significant control problems in the absence of internal controls

A

Inherent Risk

105
Q

The risk that remains after management implements internal controls or some other response to risk

A

Residual Risk

106
Q

Respond to risk in one of 4 ways:

A
  • Reduce
  • Accept
  • Share
  • Avoid
107
Q

The mathematical product of impact and likelihood

A

Expected loss

Expected loss = impact X likelihood

108
Q

The benefits of an internal control procedure must___ its costs

A

exceed

109
Q

Policies, procedures, and rules that provide reasonable assurance that control objectives are met and risk responses are carried out

A

Control activities

110
Q

Approving transactions and decisions

A

Authorization

111
Q

Preparing source documents; entering data into computer systems; and maintaining journals, ledgers, and files, or databases

A

Recording

112
Q

Handling cash, tools, inventory, or fixed assets; receiving informing customer checks, writing checks

A

Custody

113
Q

Implementing control procedures to clearly divide authority and responsibility within the information system function

A

Segregation of systems duties

114
Q

Help users to determine their information needs

A

Systems analysts

115
Q

People who use the analysts design to create and test computer programs

A

Programmers

116
Q

People who operate the company’s computers. They ensure that data are properly entered, processed correctly, properly stored, and that needed output is produced.

A

Computer operators

117
Q

People who record transactions, authorize data to be processed, have logical access to company data, and produce system output. Responsible for safekeeping any data they may access or distribute as system output.

A

Users

118
Q

Make sure all information system components operate smoothly and efficiently

A

System administrators

119
Q

Ensure that devices are linked to the organization’s internal and external networks and that those networks operate properly

A

Network managers

120
Q

Make sure that systems are secure and protected from internal and external threats

A

Security management

121
Q

Make sure changes are made smoothly and efficiently and do not negatively affect systems reliability, security, confidentiality, integrity, availability

A

Change management

122
Q

Ensures that source data have been properly approved, monitors the flow of work through the computer, reconciles input and output, maintains a record of inout errors to ensure their correction and resubmission, and distributes systems output

A

Data control

123
Q

Guides and oversees systems development and acquisition

A

Steering committee

124
Q

Developed and updated yearly to align an organization’s information system with its business strategies. Shows the projects that must be completed, addresses company’s hardware, software, personnel, and infrastructure

A

Strategic master plan

125
Q

Shows the tasks to be performed, who will perform them, project costs, completion dates, and project milestones

A

Project development plans

126
Q

Significant points when progress is reviewed and actual and estimated completion times are compared

A

Project milestones

127
Q

Shows when each task should be performed

A

Data processing schedule

128
Q

Established to evaluate the system. common measurements include throughput, utilization, and response time

A

System performance measurement

129
Q

Performed after a development project is completed to determine whether the anticipated benefits were achieved

A

Post-implementation review

130
Q

Manage a systems development effort involving its own personnel, its client, and other vendors

A

Systems integrator

131
Q

Independent checks on performance

A
  • top level reviews
  • Analytical reviews
  • reconciliation of independently maintained records
  • comparison of actual qualities with recorded amounts
  • double-entry accounting
  • independent reviews
132
Q

In charge of system security, independent of the information system function, and reports to the chief operating officer (COO) or the CEO

A

Computer security officer

133
Q

An employee responsible for all the compliance task associated with SOX and other laws and regulatory rulings

A

Chief compliance officer

134
Q

Specialize in fraud. a fast-growing group in the accounting profession

A

Forensic investigators

135
Q

Discover, extract, safeguard, and document computer evidence such that its authenticity, accuracy, and integrity will not succumb to legal challenges

A

computer forensics specialists

136
Q

(Programs with learning capabilities) can accurately identify fraud

A

Neural networks

137
Q

A phone number employees can call to anonymously report fraud and abuse

A

Fraud hotline

138
Q

Employ a combination of preventative, detective, and corrective controls to protect information assets long enough for an organization to detect that an attack is occurring and to take timely steps to thwart the attack before any information is lost or compromised

A

Time-based model of information security

139
Q

Using multiple layers of controls in order to avoid having a single point of failure

A

defense-in-depth

140
Q

The process of verifying the identity of the person or device attempting to access the system

A

Authentication

141
Q

Three types of credentials can be used to verify a person’s identity

A

1) passwords or or PINS
2) something a person has, such as smart cards or ID badges
3) behavioral or physical characteristic (biometric identifier) of the person, such as fingerprints or typing patterns

142
Q

The use of two or more types of authentication credentials in conjunction to achieve a greater level of security

A

Multi-factor authentication

143
Q

The use of multiple authentication credentials of the same type to achieve a greater level if security

A

multimodal authentication

144
Q

Connects an organization’s information system to the internet

A

border router

145
Q

a special-purpose hardware device or software running on a general-purpose computer, that controls both inbound and outbound communication between the system behind the firewall and other networks

A

firewall

146
Q

A separate network located outside the organization’s internal information system that permits controlled access from the internet to selected resources, such as the organization’s e-commerce web server

A

Demilitarized zone

147
Q

special-purpose devices deigned to read the source and destination address fields in IP packet headers to decide where to send (route) the packet next

A

Routers

148
Q

A process that uses various fields in a packet’s IP and TCP headers to decide what to do with the packet

A

Packet filtering

149
Q

A process that examines the data in the body of a TCP packet to control traffic, rather than looking only at the information in the IP and TCP headers

A

Deep packet inspection

150
Q

software or hardware that monitors patterns in the traffic flow to identify and automatically block attacks

A

Intrusion prevention systems (IPS)

151
Q

Used to identify unused and, therefore, unnecessary programs that represent potential security threats

A

Vulnerability scanners

152
Q

A program designed to take advantage of a known vulnerability

A

Exploit

153
Q

Is the process for regularly applying patches and updates to all software used by the organization

A

Patch management

154
Q

The process of modifying the default configuration of endpoints to eliminate unnecessary settings and services

A

Hardening

155
Q

The process of examining logs to identify evidence of possible attacks

A

Log analysis

156
Q

Systems that create logs of all network traffic that was permitted to pass the firewall and then analyze those logs for signs of attempted or successful intrusions

A

Intrusion detection systems

157
Q

A system that looks like a legitimate part of the organization’s internal network but is just a decoy system

A

honeypot

158
Q

A team responsible for dealing with major security incidents

A

Computer incident response team (CRIT)

159
Q

CRIT incident response team 4 steps:

A
  1. Recognition
  2. Containment
  3. Recovery
  4. Follow-up
160
Q

An authorized attempt by either an internal audit team or an external security consulting firm to break into the organization’s information system

A

Penetration Testing

161
Q

Software that provides an additional layer of protection to sensitive information stored in digital format, offering the capability not only to limit access to specific files or documents but also to specify the actions that individuals granted access to that resource can perform

A

Information rights management

162
Q

software that works like antivirus programs in reverse, blocking outgoing messages that contain key words or phrases associated with the intellectual property or other sensitive data the organization wants to protect

A

Data loss prevention (DLP)

163
Q

A detective control that enables an organization to identify confidential information that has been disclosed

A

Digital watermark

164
Q

Protecting privacy by replacing sensitive personal information with fake data

A

Data masking aka tokenization

164
Q

Protecting privacy by replacing sensitive personal information with fake data

A

Data masking aka tokenization

165
Q

One of the strictest and most far-reaching privacy regulations is the

A

European Union’s General Data Privacy Regulations (GDPR)

166
Q

The processing of transforming normal content, called plaintext, into unreadable gibberish, called cipher-text

A

Encryption

167
Q

Transforming cipher-text back into plaintext

A

Decryption

168
Q

Uses the same key both to encrypt and decrypt. EX AES

A

Symmetric encryption system

169
Q

Uses two keys that are created as a matched pair

A

Asymmetric encryption systems

170
Q

key that is widely distributed and made available to everyone
- asymmetric encryption

A

Public key

171
Q

Key that is kept secret and known only to the owner of that pair keys

A

Private key

172
Q

The process of storing a copy of an encryption key in a secure location

A

Key escrow

173
Q

Using encryption and authentication to securely transfer information over the internet, thereby creating a “virtual” private network

A

Private network

173
Q

The process that takes plaintext of any length and creates a short code called a message digest, popularly referred to as a hash

A

Hashing

174
Q

Creating legally binding agreements that cannot be unilaterally repudiated by either party

A

nonrepudiation

175
Q

Protecting Confidentiality and Privacy

A

1) identify and classify the information to be protected
2) encrypt the information
3) control access to the information
4) train employees to properly handle the information

176
Q

Factors that influence encryption strength

A

1) Key length
2) encryption algorithm
3) policies for managing the cryptographic keys

177
Q

Longer keys provide ___ encryption

A

stronger

178
Q

Process of creating a digital signature

A

step 1: the document creator uses a hashing algorithm to generate a hash of the original document
step 2: The document creator uses his/her private key to encrypt the hash created in step 1
Result: The encrypted hash is a legally-binding digital signature

179
Q

An electronic document that contains an entity’s public key and certifies the identity of the owner of that particular key

A

digital certificate

180
Q

An organization that issues public and private keys and records the public key in a digital certificate

A

Certificate authority

181
Q

The system for issuing pairs of public and private keys and corresponding digital certificates is called a

A

public key infrastructure (PKI)

182
Q

A distributed ledger of hashed documents with copies stored on multiple computers

A

blockchain

183
Q

A random number; used in the process mining to validate a new block in a blockchain

A

nonce

184
Q

determines whether the characters in a field are of the proper type. Ex. only numeric or alphabetic numbers

A

field check

185
Q

Determines whether the data in a field have the appropriate arithmetic sign. Ex. the quantity ordered field should never be negative

A

Sign check

186
Q

Tests a numerical amount against a fixed value. Ex. the regular hours worked field in weekly payroll input must be less than or equal to 40 hours

A

Limit check

187
Q

Ensures that the input data will fit into the assigned field. For example, 9 digits must be in a social security number

A

Size check

188
Q

Verifies that all required data items have been entered. Ex. inputting all customer data before shipping

A

Completeness check

189
Q

Compares the ID code or account number in transaction data with similar data in the master file to verify that the accounts exists. Ex product number 65432 entered on sales order must match product 65432 in inventory database

A

Validity check

190
Q

Determines the correctness of the logical relationship between two data items

A

Reasonableness check

191
Q

ID codes can contain a ____ that is computed from the other digits. The purpose is to verify that the information on the barcode has been entered correctly.

A

check digit

192
Q

recalculating the check digit to identify data entry errors

A

Check digit verification

193
Q

Tests whether a transaction file is in the proper numerical or alphabetical sequence

A

Sequence check

194
Q

Calculate numeric values for a batch of input records. Used to ensure that all records in a batch are processed correctly

A

Batch totals

195
Q

sums a field that contains monetary values, such as the total dollar amount of all sales for a batch of sales transactions

A

Financial totals

196
Q

Sums a non-financial numeric field, such as the total of the quantity-ordered field in a batch of sales transactions. No inherent meaning

A

Hash total

197
Q

Number of records in a batch

A

Record count

198
Q

The system requests each input data item and waits for an acceptable response, ensures that all necessary data are entered

A

Prompting

199
Q

Checks the accuracy of input data by using it to retrieve and display other related information. Ex if a clerk enters na account number, the system could retrieve and display the account name so that the clerk could verify that the correct account number has been entered

A

Closed-loop verification

200
Q

Two or more items of data must be matched before an action can take place

A

Data matching

201
Q

Located at the beginning of each file and contains the file name, expiration date, and other identification data

A

Header record

202
Q

Located at the end of the file; in transaction files it contains the batch totals calculated during input

A

trailer record

203
Q

two adjacent digits were inadvertently reversed. Ex 46 instead of 64

A

Transportation error

204
Q

A processing control that verifies accuracy by comparing two alternative ways of calculating the same total

A

cross-footing balance total

205
Q

A processing control that verifies that the balance of a control equals zero after all entries to it have been made

A

zero-balance test

206
Q

Protect against overwriting or erasing of data files stored on magnetic media

A

write-protection mechanisms

207
Q

Prevent errors by locking out one user when two or more users attempt to update the same record simultaneously

A

Concurrent update controls

208
Q

A data transmission control that uses a hash of a file to verify accuracy

A

checksum

209
Q

an extra digit added to the beginning of every character that can be used to check transmission accuracy

A

Parity bit

210
Q

The capability of a system to continue to performing when there is a hardware malfunction

A

Fault tolerance

211
Q

A fault tolerance technique that records data on multiple disk drives instead of just one to reduce the risk of data loss

A

Redundant arrays of independent drives RAID

212
Q

Provides protection in the event of a prolonged power outage, using battery power to enable the system to operate long enough to back up critical data and safely shut down

A

Uninterruptible power supply (UPS)

213
Q

The maximum amount of data that the organization is willing to have to reenter or potentially lose

A

Recovery point objective (RPO)

214
Q

The maximum tolerable time to restore an information system after a disaster

A

Recovery time objective (RTO)

215
Q

Exact copy of the entire backup

A

full backup

216
Q

Copying only the data items that have changed since the last partial backup

A

Incremental backup

217
Q

Copies all changes made since the last full backup. Each new backup files contains the cumulative effects of all activity since the last full backup

A

Differential backup

218
Q

Uses hashing to identify and backup only those portions of a file or database that have been updated since that last backup

A

Deduplication

218
Q

A copy of a database, master file, or software retained indefinitely as a historical record, usually to satisfy legal and regulatory requirements

A

Archive

219
Q

Outlines the procedures to restore an organization’s IT function in the event that its data center is destroyed

A

Disaster recovery plan (DRP)

220
Q

A disaster recovery option that relies on access to an alternative facility prewired for necessary telephone and internet access, but does not contain any computing equipment

A

Cold site

221
Q

a facility not only prewired for telephone and internet access but also contains all the computing and office equipment the organization needs to perform its essential business activities

A

hot site

222
Q

Maintaining two copies of the database at two separate data centers at all times and updating both databases in real-time at each transaction occurs

A

real-time mirroring