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A&PII > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Normal pH range of blood.

A

7.35-7.45

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2
Q

Is the blood slightly acidic or slightly basic?

A

Slightly basic

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3
Q

Total liters of blood: ____L

A

5

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4
Q

Approximately how many gallons of blood are there in an adult?

A

1.2 - 1.5 gallons

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5
Q

Is plasma extracellular or intercellular fluid?

A

Extracellular

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6
Q

Which of the four basic types of tissue is blood?

A

Connective tissue

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7
Q

What are the two components of whole blood?

A

Formed elements/cell and cell fragments + plasma

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8
Q

 what makes up plasma?

A

 water,  solutes: gases, hormones, enzymes, waste products, ions

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9
Q

List all the plasma proteins.

A

Albumin, fibrinogen, globulins, other clotting factors

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10
Q

What does albumin do?

A

Plays a role in maintaining osmotic pressure.

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11
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

Force which water moves across a membrane, due to a concentration gradient

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12
Q

When there is a lot of albumin in the blood, is osmotic pressure high or low?

A

High

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13
Q

What does fibrinogen do?

A

Clot blood

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14
Q

What are globulins?

A

Antibodies and transport proteins

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15
Q

What are erythrocytes?

A

Red blood cells

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16
Q

What do red blood cells do generally?

A

Carry oxygen in the bloodstream

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17
Q

What is a leukocyte?

A

A white blood cell

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18
Q

What do white blood cells generally do?

A

Immune function

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19
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

 platelets

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20
Q

What do platelets do?

A

Clotting function

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21
Q

Which type of blood cell is the most numerous formed element?

A

Red blood cells

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22
Q

What is the ratio of red blood cells to white blood cells?

A

1000:1

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23
Q

What is the ratio of red blood cells to platelets?

A

10:1

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24
Q

What is a Hematocrit?

A

The percent of red blood cells in whole blood (38-55% - varies with age and sex)

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25
Q

When whole blood is centrifuged it separates into cells at the bottom of the tube and _____________ at the top. The white blood cells and platelets create a Buffy coat in between the plasma and red blood cells.

A

Plasma

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26
Q

The percentage volume of red blood cells relative to the volume of the total liquid is called the ___________.

A

Hematocrit

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27
Q

Define hematopoiesis.

A

Whole blood formation (Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets)

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28
Q

Define erythropoiesis.

A

Red blood cell formation

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29
Q

All blood cells are made in the adult in the ___________.

A

red bone marrow

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30
Q

Where is red bone marrow located?

A

In flat bones and in Epiphyseal ends of long bones

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31
Q

In the fetus, blood cells are made in the _________, __________, and _________.

A

Liver, spleen, thymus

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32
Q

Define Leukopoiesis.

A

Formation of white blood cells

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33
Q

All blood cells (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes) are derived from the same ______________________.

A

Hematopoietic stem cell

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34
Q

Depending on which external factors act on it, the hematopoietic stem cell can become one of the following cells:

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

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35
Q

Can hematopoietic Stem cells undergo mitosis?

A

Yes

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36
Q

Can hematopoietic stem cells become different types of blood cells?

A

Yes

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37
Q

How does the stem cell know which type of cells become?

A

Colony stimulating factors and hormones

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38
Q

What are the two growth factors acting on bone marrow cells that affect growth of certain cells?

A

 erythropoietin and colony stimulating factors

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39
Q

What is erythropoietin?

A

Hormone made by the kidney when oxygen is low

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40
Q

Erythropoietin _____(increases/decreases)____ erythropoiesis in the bone marrow.

A

 increases

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41
Q

What do colony stimulating factors do?

A

Primarily increase growth of blood cells

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42
Q

What is the size of a red blood cell?

A

7-8 um

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43
Q

How long do red blood cells live?

A

120 days

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44
Q

In which organs are Red blood cells destroyed?

A

Spleen and liver

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45
Q

Which cells in the liver sinusoid destroys old red blood cells?

A

Kupffer cells

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46
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

A cell that is made in the next to last step of erythropoiesis that loses its nucleus to become a red blood cell

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47
Q

When the rate of Erythropoiesis is high a __________ Number of reticulocytes are found in the blood.

A

High

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48
Q

Which vitamins are important for erythropoiesis?

A

Folate, vitamin B12, iron

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49
Q

What happens to iron in hemoglobin when it’s broken down?

A

Iron is salvaged and recycled

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50
Q

What happens to heme in hemoglobin when it is broken down?

A

Heem forms Bilirubin

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51
Q

What happens to globin in hemoglobin when it is broken down?

A

Globin is made of amino acids which are broken down

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52
Q

Do red blood cells have nuclei?

A

 no

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53
Q

Do red blood cells have mitochondria?

A

No

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54
Q

How do red blood cells produce ATP?

A

Glycolysis

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55
Q

How many blood cells are there per mm^3

A

5 million/mm^3

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56
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Too many red blood cells which causes thick blood which causes blood clots

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57
Q

What is anemia?

A

Reduced oxygen carrying capacity of the blood caused by iron deficiency or blood loss

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58
Q

What is a hematocrit?

A

Percentage of erythrocytes in whole blood sample

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59
Q

What is the normal value of a hematocrit?

A

Between 38 and 55

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60
Q

Does the value of the hematocrit have units?

A

No, not really, but usually reported as a percent

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61
Q

How prevalent is hemoglobin in the red blood cell?

A

95% hemoglobin in red blood cell

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62
Q

What Is oxyhemoglobin? What color is oxyhemoglobin?

A

Bright red hemoglobin that is carrying oxygen

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63
Q

What element binds to oxygen and hemoglobin?

A

 Iron

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64
Q

How many oxygen molecules combine to one hemoglobin molecule?

A

4

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65
Q

What is normal hemoglobin for women and for men?

A

Women: 12 - 15 g/dL
Men: 13 - 17 g/dL

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66
Q

What is carbaminohemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin and carbon dioxide attached

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67
Q

What symptoms or signs are present in anemia?

A

Fatigue, fast heart rate, shortness of breath

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68
Q

What is hemorrhagic anemia?

A

Red blood cells are destroyed faster than they are made

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69
Q

What is hemolytic anemia?

A

Red blood cells are breaking apart caused by sickle cell or infection. Hemolytic anemia causes jaundice.

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70
Q

What is Aplastic anemia?

A

The inability to make bloods cells in the bone marrow

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71
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

Lack of vitamin B 12/intrinsic factor

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72
Q

What is iron deficiency anemia?

A

Caused by blood loss

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73
Q

What is sickle cell anemia?

A

Abnormal hemoglobin that causes red blood cells to sickle when exposed to low oxygen, stopping up circulation

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74
Q

If the anemia is due to a loss of red blood cells, with the hematocrit be low or high?

A

Low

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75
Q

What do antigens do?

A

Causes an immune response

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76
Q

What are found on the surface of red blood cells and determine blood type?

A

 glycoproteins and glycolipids (proteins with sugars or fats attached)

Also called agglutinogens

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77
Q

What does agglutinate mean?

A

Clump together

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78
Q

The body recognizes its own surface antigens as “_____________” and does not attack its own surface antigens.

A

 self

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79
Q

If blood is received from someone else with different antigens, the immune system will attack those cells, it does so through plasma proteins called _______.

A

Antibodies

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80
Q

The Rh factor (D antigen) makes the blood type __________ or __________.

A

Negative or positive

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81
Q

Only glycolipid (antigen) A is present on the red blood cell = blood group ______

A

A

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82
Q

Only glycolipid (antigen) B is present on the red blood cell = blood group ______

A

B

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83
Q

Both glycolipids (antigens) A and B are present on the red blood cell = blood group ______

A

AB

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84
Q

Neither A nor B glycolipids (antigens) are present = blood group _______

A

O

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85
Q

Each blood type has ____________ in the plasma against the A or B antigens it does not possess.

A

Antibodies

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86
Q

Blood group a house which antibodies?

A

Anti-B

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87
Q

Blood group B has which antibodies?

A

Anti-A

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88
Q

Blood group oh has which antibodies?

A

Both a and B antibodies

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89
Q

Blood group AB has which antibodies?

A

No antibodies

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90
Q

Can a persons blood type change?

A

No

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91
Q

If the D antigen is present, the person is _______.

A

Positive

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92
Q

If the D antigen is not present, the person is __________.

A

 negative

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93
Q

The __________ present on the red blood cell determine the blood type..

A

Antigens

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94
Q

If the A and D antigens are present, the person would have ________ blood.

A

A+

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95
Q

If the A and B antigens are present but the D is not, the person would have __________ blood

A

AB-

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96
Q

There are no antigens on the red blood cell but a and B antibodies, what is the blood type?

A

O-

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97
Q

There are only D antigens on the red blood cell. What is the blood type?

A

O+

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98
Q

Could an Rh- Person receive Rh+ blood one time?

A

Yes, But only one time because it is not until the Rh negative person makes antibodies after one exposure that the person is in danger of a transfusion reaction.

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99
Q

Rh+ blood is never given to a Rh- patient in a clinical setting. True or false?

A

True

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100
Q

When looking at blood compatibility, the donor’s _________ and the recipients __________ Are significant.

A

Red blood cells; antibodies

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101
Q

Can a person with A+ blood receive blood from AB+?

A

No, because the B antibodies will react with the B antigen on the donors red blood cells.

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102
Q

Can a person with B- blood receive blood from O-?

A

Yes, because there are no antigens on the donor red blood cells, so there will be no reaction with the recipients A antibodies.

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103
Q

What blood type is the universal donor?

A

A person with O- blood can donate to any blood type, because O- has no antigens.

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104
Q

Which blood type Is the universal recipient?

A

A person with AB+ blood can receive from any blood type, because AB+ has no antibodies.

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105
Q

Can B + blood donate to AB +?

A

Yes, AB+ is the universal recipient

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106
Q

Can AB+ blood donate to O+?

A

No

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107
Q

Can O+ blood donate to AB+?

A

 yes

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108
Q

Can B+ blood donate to B-?

A

No

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109
Q

Most people are Rh__

A

+

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110
Q

RH negative mothers can become pregnant with Rh positive children. The problem will be with the next pregnancy, assuming she is carrying an RH positive child. The mother now has ________. they would cross the placenta and clump The babies blood. That can lead to devastating effects in a condition called ______________ _________.

A

D antibodies; erythroblastosis fetalis

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111
Q

Mothers who are Rh negative are given _________ before and after delivery.

A

Rhogam

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112
Q

What is Rhogam?

A

It contains D antibodies. It prevents the mother from building her own antibodies. Because the mother did not build up any D antibodies of her own, she can carry a second Rh positive child.

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113
Q

Do leukocytes have nuclei?

A

 yes

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114
Q

Do leukocytes have hemoglobin?

A

No

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115
Q

How does the size of a white blood cell compared to a red plet cell?

A

White blood cells are double the size as red blood cells. They are BIGGER!

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116
Q

What is the significance of histocompatibility proteins on the surface of white blood cells?

A

For immune system response

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117
Q

What is the major histocompatibility complex?

A

Coding region for surface proteins

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118
Q

How many white blood cells per mm^3?

A

5,000-10,000/mm^3

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119
Q

What is the clinical term for too many white blood cells?

A

Leukocytosis

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120
Q

What is the clinical term for two few white blood cells?

A

Leukopenia

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121
Q

How do you a granular and granular leukocytes differ?

A

Granular leukocytes have granules in the cytoplasm

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122
Q

Where are granular Leukocytes made?

A

Red bone marrow

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123
Q

Where are a granular lymphocytes made?

A

Red bone marrow

124
Q

What is the general function of white blood cells in the body?

A

To fight infection and/or disease

125
Q

Define diapedesis (emigration)

A

Ability of white blood cells to move through an intact capillary

126
Q

Which white blood cells are capable of diapedesis?

A

All Leukocytes

127
Q

Can red blood cells undergo diapedesis

A

No

128
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Movement of cell toward or away from a chemical

129
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Phagocytes engulf then ingest cells, destroying them

130
Q

Which white blood cell is the fastest?

A

 neutrophils

131
Q

Name all the granular white blood cells.

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

132
Q

Name all the agranular white blood cells.

A

Lymphocytes, monocytes

133
Q

What percent of neutrophils are found in a white blood cell differential?

A

50 to 70%

134
Q

What is the major function of a neutrophil?

A

Phagocytize bacteria

135
Q

What are the purposes of defensins, lysozymes, and oxidants in the granules of neutrophils?

A

They are Digestive enzymes That phagocytize bacteria

136
Q

What is the difference between a band and a PMN (polymorphonuclear leukocyte or “seg”)?

A

A PMN is old and a band is young.

137
Q

If a patient has too many neutrophils, what made that indicate?

A

A bacterial infection

138
Q

What is a defining characteristic of neutrophils?

A

2 to 6 lobes of nuclei

139
Q

What percent Eosinophils are in white blood cell differential?

A

2 to 5%

140
Q

What is a defining characteristic of an eosinophil?

A

Orange granules; bi-lobed nucleus

141
Q

The granules in eosinophils have chemicals that attack _________________.

A

Parasitic worms

142
Q

In addition, eosinophils play a roll in ____________ such as asthma. Eosinophils are important cells in regulating the immune response.

A

Allergic responses

143
Q

What percent of white blood cell differential are made up of basophils?

A

0 to 1%

144
Q

What defining characteristics does basophils have?

A

S shaped nuclei; many large granules that look like they bulge past the cellular membrane.

145
Q

What did the granules of basophils contain?

A

Histamine, heparin, serotonin

146
Q

What does histamine do?

A

Increases inflammation

147
Q

What does heparin do?

A

Keeps blood from clotting

148
Q

What does serotonin do?

A

Mood stabilization

149
Q

Explain the significance of basophils in anaphylactic shock.

A

 too many basophils releasing histamine causes anaphylaxis.

150
Q

Are mast cells and basophils from the same cell lines?

A

NO

151
Q

What percent of a white blood cell differential is made up of lymphocytes?

A

20 to 30%

152
Q

What is the defining characteristic of lymphocytes?

A

Very large nuclei 

153
Q

What are the three major types of lymphocytes?

A

B lymphocytes, T lymphocytes, NK cells

154
Q

What is the function of a B-lymphocyte?

A

It’s a plasma cell and it has antibody immunity which creates a different specific antibody.

155
Q

What is the function of a T lymphocyte?

A

Cellular immunity. Specific T cells are made for specific bacteria.

156
Q

What is the function of an NK cell?

A

Combats any abnormal cell

157
Q

What might an elevated number of lymphocytes indicate?

A

A viral infection

158
Q

What percent of a white blood cell differential make up monocytes?

A

3 to 8%.

159
Q

What is the defining characteristic of a monocyte?

A

Its HUGE!!

160
Q

What is the function of a monocyte?

A

Specific immunity, phagocytosis

161
Q

Monocytes leave the blood and become ___________.

A

 macrophages

162
Q

Name the places tissue macrophages are located:

A

Blood, bone marrow, brain, skin

163
Q

How many White blood cells are counted in a white blood cell differential?

A

100

164
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

 platelets

165
Q

Are thrombocytes cells? Why or why not?

A

No, they’re cell fragments from megakaryocytes

166
Q

How many platelets are there in a mm^3?

A

200,000 to 400,000 mm^3

167
Q

What is the term for an elevated platelet count?

A

 Thrombocytosis

168
Q

What is the term for a low platelet count?

A

Thrombocytopenia

169
Q

What is the general function of platelets?

A

Hemostasis (stopping of bleeding)

170
Q

Are platelets derived from the same hematopoietic stem cell as red blood cells and white blood cells?

A

Yes, red bone marrow

171
Q

What is a megakaryocyte?

A

Huge nucleated cell that gives off platelets

172
Q

What are the important substances found in platelets:

A

Contractile proteins actin and myosin, clotting factors, ADP, serotonin, thromboxane A2

173
Q

What does thromboxane A2 do?

A

It helps platelets stick together and aggregate.

174
Q

Why might a baby aspirin be helpful during a heart attack?

A

They stop clotting

175
Q

What are the three major steps involved in hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm, platelet plug, coagulation

176
Q

What is a vascular spasm

A

Damage to the wall of a vessel that causes contraction of the smooth muscle, vasoconstriction helps to limit blood loss.

177
Q

What does vasoconstriction do?

A

Helps to limit blood loss

178
Q

What is a platelet plug

A

When platelets come in contact with the damaged lining of a blood vessel ( endothelium) The platelets stick to the exposed collagen.

179
Q

What is the significance of prostacyclin?

A

Comes from prostaglandin which keeps platelets from sticking

180
Q

What do platelets do?

A

They stick,

they break apart releasing their chemicals (ADP, thromboxing, calcium, serotonin;

 this makes more platelets stick and break apart

The end result is a platelet plug

181
Q

Explain why the formation of a platelet plug is a positive feedback mechanism.

A

As more platelet stick, more ADP is released, then more platelets stick

182
Q

What is coagulation

A

A permanent plug or clot that is actually insoluble fibrin

183
Q

What does coagulation require?

A

What factors made in the liver, calcium, platelet factors, tissue factor from damaged cells

184
Q

Damaged cells release chemicals to activate ___________.

A

Clotting factors

185
Q

In a cascade of reactions, one clotting factor activates the next until the _______ is formed.

A

Prothrombin activator complex/prothrombinase

186
Q

What are the two ways that lead to the formation of prothrombin activator complex?

A

Intrinsic pathway and extrinsic pathway

187
Q

Is intrinsic pathway or extrinsic pathway faster?

A

Extrinsic pathway

188
Q

What causes intrinsic pathway

A

Do you to damage to blood vessels

189
Q

What causes extrinsic pathway?

A

Due to additional tissue damage

190
Q

Prothrombin is catalyzes the following reaction:

A

 prothrombin (plasma protein) ->  thrombin (another enzyme)

191
Q

Thrombin catalyzes the following reaction:

A

Fibrinogen (plasma protein) -> fibrin (insoluble protein)

192
Q

What is the blood clot?

A

Insoluble fibrin

193
Q

What happens during retraction in the clotting process?

A

Platelets Paul fibrin thought. Serum escapes.

194
Q

What is serum?

A

Liquid remaining after blood has clouded. Contains no clotting factors.

195
Q

How does serum differ from plasma?

A

Plasma is the liquid remaining after clotting is prevented by an anticoagulant which contains clotting factor. Serum is the liquid remaining after blood has clotted with no clotting factors.

196
Q

What is fibrinolysis?

A

When the tissues have repaired, the clot dissolves

197
Q

What is the following process called?

Plasminogen -> plasmin -> fibrin -> degraded fibrin


A

Fibrinolysis

198
Q

Define the following process:

Fibrinogen -> fibrin (catalyzed by the enzyme thrombin)

A

 coagulation

199
Q

The heart is found in the ________ of the thoracic cavity.

A

 mediastinum

200
Q

What is the approximate size of the heart?

A

The size of a fist or 8 to 12 ounces

201
Q

Where is the Apex of the heart located?

A

On the diaphragm

202
Q

Where is the base of the heart?

A

Superiorly where great vessels enter and leave the heart

203
Q

What part of the heart creates the left order of the heart?

A

The left ventricle

204
Q

What part of the heart creates the right border of the heart?

A

The right atrium

205
Q

What part of the heart comprises most of the anterior surface of the heart?

A

Right ventricle

206
Q

What is pericardium composed of?

A

Fibrous and serous layers around the heart

207
Q

What are the 3 layers of pericardium?

A

Fibrous pericardium, parietal pericardium, visceral pericardium

208
Q

What is fibrous pericardium made of?

A

Dense connective tissue

209
Q

What does fibrous pericardium anchor?

A

The heart to the diaphragm and large blood vessels

210
Q

What is the parietal pericardium attached to?

A

Fibrous pericardium

211
Q

What tissue is made up of parietal pericardium

A

Serous membrane (simple squamous epithelium and connective tissue that secretes fluid)

212
Q

What is the pericardial cavity?

A

Located between visceral and parietal pericardium that contains fluid to reduce friction

213
Q

What is another name for visceral pericardium?

A

 epicardium

214
Q

The visceral pericardium is attached to the _________.

A

Myocardium

215
Q

Explain how pericarditis with affect heart function.

A

Pericardium information keeps heart muscle from expanding

216
Q

How would cardiac tamponade affect heart function?

A

The heart can’t freely beat. Blood or fluid surrounds the heart causing excess pressure keeping the ventricles from expanding.

217
Q

What is the  myocardium

A

Cardiac muscle layer of the heart

218
Q

How do you cardiac muscle cells differ from skeletal muscle cells?

A

Cardiac muscle cells are branched

219
Q

Are cardiac muscle cells striated?

A

 yes

220
Q

What are two functions of inter-collated discs?

A

It functions as a desmosome to weld cells together. It also functions as a gap junction for quick communication

221
Q

What are two main phases of an action potential of the heart and what happens in each phase?

A

Depolarization when sodium rushes into the cell and the inside of the cell becomes positive.

Repolarization when potassium rushes out of the cell and the inside of the cell becomes negative again.

222
Q

Is the cardiac muscle action potential the same or different as skeletal muscle action potentials?

A

 different

223
Q

What is the difference between a cardiac action potential in a skeletal muscle action potential?

A

The cardiac lasts longer

224
Q

Which action potential is longer?

A

 cardiac

225
Q

What creates the plateau phase in the cardiac muscle?

A

Calcium rushing into the cell

226
Q

What is the significance of the longer refractory period of cardiac muscle?

A

It prevents tetanus from occurring and ensures each contraction is followed by enough time to allow the heart chamber to refill with blood before the next contraction.

227
Q

Skeletal muscle contraction completed before the next action potential can begin?

A

 no

228
Q

Is cardiac muscle contraction completed before the next action potential can begin?

A

 yes

229
Q

Why is it significant that the cardiac muscle contraction is completed before the next action potential can begin?

A

So that the heart relaxes to let blood fill up by completing the action potential

230
Q

Explain how myocarditis would affect the heart function.

A

Heart muscle information; can’t pump necessary amount of blood

231
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the endocardium?

A

Simple squamous cells

232
Q

Why is it important that the endocardium of the heart and endothelium in blood vessels provide a continuous surface of simple squamous cells?

A

Blood must have smooth surface to travel so no clotting occurs

233
Q

Does endocardium also cover heart valves?

A

 yes

234
Q

Explain how endocarditis would affect heart function

A

reduced heart valve function - clots forming in valves

235
Q

The right ventricle of the heart pumps blood through the _________.

A

Pulmonary circulation

236
Q

The left ventricle of the heart pumps blood through the _________.

A

Systemic circulation

237
Q

The _____ and ______ Pump blood at the same time

A

Right and left ventricles

238
Q

And healthy hearts, the _______ and _______ pump The same amount of blood.

A
239
Q

What is an artery?

A

Carries blood away from the heart

240
Q

What is a vein

A

Brings blood to the heart

241
Q

What are the three veins bring blood to the right atrium?

A

The superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, and the coronary vein (sinus)

242
Q

Blood flows from the right atrium to the right ventricle through the ___________.

A

Tricuspid valve

243
Q

What type of tissue are valves made of?

A

Dense irregular connective tissue covered by endocardium

244
Q

How do valves open and close?

A

Open and close in response to pressure changes

245
Q

What do valves ensure?

A

That blood only flows one way through the heart, not backwards

246
Q

Do atrioventricular valves contain muscle?

A

 yes

247
Q

The tricuspid valve closes when the pressure in the ____________ is greater than in the _________.

A

Right ventricle; right atrium

248
Q

Blood flows from the right ventricle through a ____________ into the ___________.

A

Semi lunar valve; pulmonary artery

249
Q

Define pulmonary circulation

A

The pulmonary artery carries the blood to the lungs to be oxygenated. 

250
Q

Right ventricle to the pulmonary semilunar valve to the pulmonary artery to the lungs.

True or false?

A

 True

251
Q

The pulmonary artery carries __________ blood.

A

 deoxygenated

252
Q

In the lungs oxygen will move into the blood, attach to hemoglobin, and carbon dioxide will leave the blood. True or false?

A

 True

253
Q

The pulmonary semilunar valves close when the pressure in the ________ is greater than the _________.

A

Atrium; ventricles

254
Q

Blood, now oxygenated, flows from the lungs through the _________ to the ________.

A

Four pulmonary veins; left atrium

255
Q

Pulmonary veins filled with oxygenated blood goes to the left atrium. True or false?

A

 True

256
Q

Blood flows from the _______ through another atrioventricular valve (_________ or __________) to the ____________.

A

Left atrium; mitral or bicuspid valve; left ventricle

257
Q

Blood flows from the _________ through another __________ to the __________ and then through the systemic circulation.

A

Left ventricle; semi lunar valve; aorta

258
Q

Name the three Venous openings in the right atrium.

A

Superior vena cava, inferior vena cava, coronary sinus

259
Q

Name the four venous openings in the left atrium.

A

4 Pulmonary veins, left atrialventricular  valve

260
Q

What is a fossa ovalis

A

The indentation in the atrial septum between the right and left atria

261
Q

What is the remnant of what once was the foramen ovale

A

Fossa ovalis

262
Q

Blood goes from the right atrium to the foramen ovale to the left atrium to the left ventricle. True or false?

A

True

263
Q

Does the atria have myocardium? If so is it thin or thick?

A

The atria has a thin layer of myocardium

264
Q

_______% Of the blood flows passively from the atria to the ventricles without being pumped by the atria.

A

70

265
Q

Name the types of tissue found in the atrioventricular valves

A

Endocardium and  dense connective tissue

266
Q

Atrioventricular valves are like sails attached to “ cords”. What are these chords called?

A

Chordae tendonae

267
Q

Chordae tendon a is attached to heart muscles called _______.

A

Papillary muscles

268
Q

The chordae tendon a ensure that the valves cannot _________ into the atria during ventricular contraction.

A

Invert or turn inside out

269
Q

What is the major purpose of the valves?

A

To stop flow of blood from going backwards

270
Q

What would happen if the valves with invert?

A

Backflow of blood would occur

271
Q

An atrial ventricular valve opens when the pressure in the _______ is greater than in the ________.

A

Atrium; ventricle

272
Q

When the ventricles contract, would the atrioventricular valves be open or closed?

A

 closed

273
Q

When the ventricles relax, would the atrio ventricular valves be open or closed?

A

 Open

274
Q

Why do ventricles have a thicker myocardium than the atria?

A

Greater pressure in the ventricles

275
Q

If the right ventricle and left ventricles pump the same amount of blood, why is the myocardium in the right ventricle thinner than the myocardium in the left ventricle?

A

The right ventricle does not have as high pressure as the left ventricle

276
Q

What is the approximate pressure in the pulmonary artery?

A

 15 mm Hg

277
Q

What is the approximate pressure in the aorta?

A

100 mm Hg

278
Q

How does the pressure in the pulmonary artery and aorta play a role in the thickness of the myocardium?

A

High pressure = high myocardium thickness

279
Q

What separates the right Ventricle from the left ventricle?

A

Interventricular septum

280
Q

The left ventricle pumps through the _________ Circuit, and the right ventricle pumps through the _________ Circuit.

A

Systemic; pulmonary

281
Q

Does the left ventricle pump more blood than the right ventricle? Why or why not

A

No, they pump the same amount of blood

282
Q

Name the types of tissues that are found in the semi lunar valves

A

Endocardium, connective tissue, fibrous tissue

283
Q

What are shapes like pockets?

A

Semi lunar valves

284
Q

The aortic semi lunar valve opens when the pressure in the _________ greater than the ______.

A

Left ventricle; aorta

285
Q

When ventricles contract, the semi lunar valves will _________.

A

Open

286
Q

What is auscultation

A

Listening with a stethoscope to heart or lungs

287
Q

What causes the lub?

A

Closure of mitral and tricuspid atrioventricular valves at the beginning of ventricular systole

The lubb is the first heart sound

288
Q

What is the dub?

A

The second heart sound. Aortic and pulmonary valves close after blood leaves the heart.

289
Q

Where can the pulmonary semilunar valve be heard?

A

Second intercoastal space on the left

290
Q

Where can the mitral valve be heard

A

Fifth intercoastal Space on the left

291
Q

Where can the aortic semi lunar valve be heard

A

Second intercostal space on the right

292
Q

Where can the tricuspid valve be heard?

A

Fifth intercoastal Space on the right

293
Q

 What is a murmur?

A

Abnormal heart sound produced when blood flow becomes turbulent

294
Q

What are the coronary arteries?

A

Two main arteries, the left and the right, that supply the myocardium of the heart. They are branches of ascending aorta near the opening of the aortic semi lunar valve.

295
Q

What is the right coronary artery do?

A

Carries blood primarily to the right ventricle and the right atrium

296
Q

What is the marginal artery do you?

A

Supplies blood to the right ventricle

297
Q

What does the left coronary artery do?

A

Carries blood to the left and right ventricles and left atrium

298
Q

What does the circumflex artery do?

A

Supplies blood to the left atrium

299
Q

What does the anterior interventricular artery do? (left anterior descending artery or LAD)

A

Supplies blood to both ventricles

300
Q

Does the coronary sinus have smooth muscle?

A

No

301
Q

What is ischemia

A

Decreased oxygen supply

302
Q

What is angina pectoris?

A

Pain in the chest due to low oxygen supply to the heart muscle

303
Q

What is myocardial infarction

A

Death of myocardium. This is irreversible because cardiac muscle does not regenerate. Myocardial cells are replaced by collagen.

304
Q

What is anastomosis

A

A connection between two structures.

305
Q

How do pacemaker cells of the heart to reach the threshold potential without nervous system input?

A

The essay node drifts by itself to the threshold by leaky ion channels

306
Q

Where is the SA node located?

A

Located in the right atrial wall and called the pacemaker

A&PII (2 decks)

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