TEST 1A (NAB) Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following part of “STANDARD PRECAUTIONS” for infection control?
A. Wearing a gown each time there is a clothing change for an incontinent resident.
B. Placing soiled linens on the floor rather than on the bed or other furniture.
C. Washing hands after touching a resident’s blood or urine, if gloves were worn at the time of contact.
D. Using an antimicrobial soap for routine hand washing.

A

App. PP: -F441-
C. Washing hands after touching a resident’s blood or urine, if gloves were worn at the time of contact.

C is better than D, because, washing hands is always better than Anti bacterial Soap, and Standard Precautions say wash your hands after every glove change, and ESPECIALY when handling blood or urine.

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2
Q

What was the quarterly turnover rate at a facility that had 18 separations in the quarter, and that averaged 225 employees in the first month, 220 employees in
the second month, and 215 employees in the third month of the quarter?

A

8.1%

Average the employees. Divide by Employees lost.
225+220+215/3 = 220

18/220 = .081 OR

220(x) = 18 ; X = .081

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3
Q

lf a facility must notify a resident’s physician about a significant change in the resident’s status but the resident’s attending physician cannot be reached, which
of these steps should the facility take first?
A. Call the Medical Director.
B. Send the resident to a hospital emergency room.
C. Call the physician designated by the attending physician to cover for him or her in his or her absence.
D. Assign another physician to the case.

A

483.40

C. Call the physician designated by the attending physician to cover for him or her in his or her absence.

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4
Q

Which of the following professionals is authorized to dispense medications?
A. registered nurse
B. licensed nurse, physician and, in some states, medication aide.
C. licensed nurse and physician
D. pharmacist

A

D. Pharmacist

The key is “Dispense” Med Aids can pass, and distribute but not dispense.

Procedures. A facility must provide pharmaceutical services (including procedures that assure the accurate acquiring, receiving, dispensing, and administering of all drugs and biological) to meet the needs of each resident

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5
Q

At the beginning of a standard federal certification survey, the facility will be expected to provide the survey team with all except which one of the following?
A- incident reports
B- copies of menus
C-copies of each of the facility’s types of admission contracts
D- names of all residents receiving psychoactive medication

A

C-Incident Reports

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6
Q
Spread of cancer cells from one part of the body to another is referred to as...
A. dysphagia
B. metastasis
C. myasthenia
D. necrosis
A

B. Metastasis

Dysphagia-difficulty or discomfort in swallowing, as a symptom of disease.
Myasthenia- condition causing abnormal weakness of certain muscles.
Necrosis-death of most or all of the cells in an organ or tissue due to disease, injury, or failure of the blood supply.

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7
Q

What is tardive dyskinesia?

A

a neurological disorder characterized by involuntary movements of the face and jaw.

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8
Q
22. What should be the temperature range in the dry storage area?
A. 50 to 70 degrees F. 
B. Below 45 degrees F.
C. 60 to 8O degrees F.
D. 72 to 82 degrees F.
A

A. 50 to 70 degrees F.

    • This is the RECOMMENDED TEMPERATURE RANGE
      19. 318-k-The Texas Regulation is maximum room temperature for food storage must not exceed 85 degrees Fahrenheit at all times
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9
Q
24. Which of the following types of drugs is given to a stroke victim?
A. antihistamine
B. anticoagulant
C. antipsychotic
D. antidepressant
A

A. Antihistamine

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10
Q

A facility has $50O,OOO in assets and $45O,O00 in liabilities. Which of the following statements is best supported by this information?
A. This facility is in financial trouble.
B. This facility has $50,OO0 in cash on hand.
C. This facility has enough revenue to cover expenses.
D. Owners equity is $5O,00O.

A

D. Owners equity is $5O,00O.

Assets = Liabilities + Owners Equity

Assets - Liabilities = Owners Equity

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11
Q
The type of therapeutic diet often prescribed for people with hypertension is
A. low fat
B. low sodium
C. bland
D. liquid
A

B. low sodium

SALT is bad for those that have HIGH BLOOD PRESSURE

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12
Q

Effective delegation of authority occurs when…

A.subordinates are given the responsibility to complete a task, but all authority is retained by the supervisor.
B. decisions are made by the lowest person in the organization who is capable and authorized to make decisions.
C. tasks are delegated to subordinates who do not as yet have the necessary competence for the tasks, so that they will learn from the experience.
D. only part of a job, rather than the whole job, is delegated to subordinates.

A

B. decisions are made by the lowest person in the organization who is capable and authorized to make decisions.

This is the most effective way, when the lowest person is empowered to make decisions.

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13
Q
ln collective bargaining, when labor and management select a third party to decide an issue, and agree to accept that third party's decision as final and binding on both sides, the process is called.
A. mediation
B. arbitration
C. conciliation
D. subrogation
A

B. Arbitration

Arbitration the use of an arbitrator to settle a dispute.
Mediation intervention in a dispute in order to resolve it; arbitration

The key is Third party — the meeting is a Mediation, the third party is the Arbitron

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14
Q

The facility must disclose all persons with an ownership interest in the facility. This must include any person or corporation holding which one of the following?
A. any amount of direct interest
B. a direct interest of 5 percent or more
C. a direct or indirect interest of 5 percent or more
D. a direct interest of 5 percent or more, and an indirect interest of 10 percent or more

A

42 CFR 420.206 - Disclosure of persons having ownership, financial, or control interest.

D. a direct interest and indirect interest of 5 % or more.

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15
Q

A resident bedroom housing 2 residents must have at least how many square feet of floor space?

A

160 sq feet

100 for 1 person private room
80 per person in a semi private room :
80x2 = 160

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16
Q

When may residents organize and participate in resident groups?
A. According to a schedule set by the facility and posted at least one week in advance of the meetings.
B. According to a schedule jointly determined by residents and facility staff .
C. lf the facility is able to provide the space and privacy for meetings, and staff support.
D. Whenever the residents wish.

A

D. Whenever the residents wish.

B is for the resident council in TEXAS

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17
Q
ln financial recording, every transaction is first recorded in which one of the following?
A. journal
B. ledger
C. prospectus
D. book of posting entries
A

A. journal

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18
Q
Who orders a therapeutic diet?
A. dietician
B. attending physician
C. food service manager
D. supervisory nurse
A

A. Attending Physician

  1. 35-e-
    (e) Therapeutic diets must be prescribed by the attending physician.
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19
Q
When lmmediate Jeopardy has been found, among the remedies that may be imposed is a per-day civil money penalty falling into which of the following
ranges of amounts?
A. $50 to $3,050
B. $1,000to $1O,0OO
C. $3,050 to $10,000
D. $-1,OOO to $3,OOO
A

C-3,050 - 10,000

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20
Q
A facilityhires 75 of the 1OO persons of the majority race who submitted applications for job openings. lt received job applications from 60 members of a minority race. Under the "4/5th rule" used in the enforcement of the Civil Rights Act, the employer might have to defend itself against the charge of adverse impact in its hiring decisions if fewer than how many members of the minority race were hired?
A. 45 
B. 36 
C. 48
D. 60
A

B.36
Also know as the 80% rule

EXAMPLE
Majority = 75 hire / 100 app. 75/100=.75
Minority = X hire / 60 app. X/60 = Y

Minor/Major must= 80%

Y/.75=.80—-> Y= .75*.80
Y=.60

X/60=Y —-> X/60=.60 —-> X=60*.60 —> X=36

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21
Q
A facility might have to turn over to a court a copy of a resident's clinical record, in response to an order called
A. respondeat superior
B. subpoena duces tecum
C. Warranty
D. habeas corpus
A

B. Subpoena duces tecum

Subpoena duces tecum:
a writ ordering a person to attend a court and bring relevant documents.

Respondeat superior (Latin: “let the master answer”; plural: respondeant superiores) is a legal doctrine which states that, in many circumstances, an employer is responsible for the actions of employees performed within the course of their employment.

Warranty a written guarantee, issued to the purchaser of an article by its manufacturer, promising to repair or replace it if necessary within a specified period of time.
“the car comes with a three-year warranty”

Habeas Corpus
a writ requiring a person under arrest to be brought before a judge or into court, especially to secure the person’s release unless lawful grounds are shown for their detention.

22
Q

A Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) must contain which of the following sets of information about a hazardous chemical?
A. precautions for safe handling, emergency and first aid procedures,
phone number of a poison control center
B. Signs and Symptoms of exposure, known acute and chronic health hazards, recommended brands and sources.
C. Odor, signs and symptoms of exposure, emergency and first aid procedures
D. Whether gloves, eye protectors, or other protective clothing is required during use; whether the chemical is listed as a carcinogen (cancer causing agent); net weights of containers commonly available for
purchase

A

C. Odor, signs and symptoms of exposure, emergency and first aid procedures

23
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for handicapped parking spaces?
A. At least one accessible space per 25 spaces in the parking lot.
B. An access aisle at least 60 inches wide.
C. Location on the shortest accessible route of travel from the adjacent parking lot to an accessible building entrance.
D. Cross-hatching across the entire width of the space.

A

D. Cross-hatching across the entire width of the space.

24
Q
When a supervisor disciplines an employee for inappropriate attire based on a dress code that is supposed to apply to all staff, the supervisor is demonstrating
A. consistency
B. rigidity
C. the halo effect
D. management by objectives
A

A. consistency

KEY is “APPLY to ALL STAFF”

25
Q

What is an IDR?

A

An request to refute survey findings that have resulted in a statement of deficiencies. IDR = Informal Dispute Resolution

26
Q

A chemical restraint is defined as a psychoactive drug that….
A. produces adverse reactions and side effects requiring the attention of the interdisciplinary team.
B. is useful in managing agitation in persons with dementia.
C. may serve as an appropriate substitute for a physical restraint.
D. is impermissibly used for discipline or convenience and is not required to treat medical symptoms.

A

D. is impermissibly used for discipline or convenience and is not required to treat medical symptoms.

27
Q
Which of the following would be the best agency to assist the facility in developing is Fire Safety Plan?
A. OSHA
B. NFPA
C. the state survey agency
D The local fire department
A

D. The local Fire Dept.

Key is MAKING a Fire Safety Plan, local fire dept is best because they can come in and HELP you develop a PLAN.

NFPA sets guidelines for Building Construction
OSHA deals with work place safety guidelines
State survey agency deals with making sure your operating in the right CODE

28
Q
Who needs to complete the cause-of-death
section of the death certificate and sign the certificate?
A. the charge nurse
B. the medical director
C. the attending physician
D. the administrator
A

C. the attending physician

If the Medical Director is the Attending Physician than ok, but the Doctor that is in Charge of THAT Pt. care.

29
Q

The Life Safety Code permits skilled nursing facilities to have which one of the
following?
A. bedroom doors with ventilation louvers
B. non-fire-retardant Christmas trees as long as they are placed next to a fire extinguisher
C. handrails with a one-inch clearance from the wall
D. self-closing stairwell doors

A

D. self-closing stairwell doors

Can not have, Only some personal items from home are allowed to be NON-Fire-Retardant. (Pictures, ect)

Handrails but be at least 1.5 inches from the wall.

**19.2.2.2.6, initiation of a door-closing action on any level shall cause all doors at all levels in the stair enclosure to close.

30
Q

According to the federal certification standards, the responsibility for establishing and implementing policies regarding the management of the facility is assigned to the…
A. administrator
B. the administrator and one or more owners
C. the owners
D. the governing body

A

D Governing Body

31
Q
The term for inability to use a utensil due to loss of ability to coordinate learned movements is
A.  amnesia
B.  agnosia
C.  apraxia
D   aphasia
A

B. Apraxia

Amnesia = when you can not remember
Agnosia = inability to interpret sensations and hence to recognize things, typically as a result of brain damage
Apraxia = inability to perform particular purposive actions, as a result of brain damage.
Aphasia = loss of ability to understand or express speech, caused by brain damage
32
Q

Medicare is a…
A., federal welfare program for the poor
B.-federal welfare program for aged and disabled persons
C. social insurance program for the poor
persons
D. Social Insurance program for the aged and disabled persons.

A

D. Social Insurance program for the aged and disabled persons.

C is not correct because it is not “WALFARE”

33
Q

In a Sprinkled building, how much clearance is needed?

A

18 inches, so the water can cover all areas

34
Q

What is an incident? what is an Accident? and what should be reported?

A

ACCIDENT - The National Safety Council defines an accident as an undesired event that results in personal injury or property damage. - REPORT -

INCIDENT - An incident is an unplanned, undesired event that adversely affects completion of a task. -REPORT -

NEAR MISS - Near misses describe incidents where no property was damaged and no personal injury sustained, but where, given a slight shift in time or position, damage and/or injury easily could have occurred.

35
Q

. lf a facility has a current ratio of 1 .O0 or higher, which of the following statements is most likely to be true?
A. lt will have difficulty in paying its bills.
B. lt should consider raising its rates charged to private-pay residents.
C. lts current assets exceed its current liabilities.
D. lts revenues exceed its expenses.

A

C. Its Current Assets Exceed its Current Liabilities.

* The KEY is 1.0 OR Higher

Current ratio = Current Assets / Current Liabilities if you have a Ratio of 1.00 then your Assets = your Liabilities, and you should have enough $$$ to pay your bills. If it is MORE than 1.00 than you have more than what you OWE.

36
Q

A Stage lll pressure ulcer is characterized by…

A. dark red skin areas with blue discoloration in the center
B. damage to muscle and bone
C. break in skin down to and including underlying fat
tissues
D. blisters

A

C. break in skin down to and including underlying fat
tissues

Grade I: acute inflammatory response, often over a bony prominence; skin red, but unbroken
Grade II: extension of the acute inflammatory response through the dermis
to subcutaneous fat
Grade III: extension through fat to deep fascia, base of ulcer infected
Grade IV: deep ulceration reaching the bone (Kane et al., 2004, p. 236)

37
Q

Which of the following is part of the information on an OSCAR Report 4?
A. Deficiencies cited in past surveys
B. The facility’s ranking among all the state’s facilities in terms of percentage of residents who are physically restrained.
C. The facility’s medication error rate
D. The names of all persons and corporations who have any percentage of direct or indirect ownership in the facility

A

B- The facility’s ranking among all the state’s facilities in terms of percentage of residents who are physically restrained-

Report 3 contains the compliance history of the facility over the past 4 surveys. Use it to determine if
the facility has patterns of repeat deficiencies in particular tags or related tags. This report also lists the dates of any complaint investigations and Federal
monitoring surveys during the 4-year time period.

Report 4 contains information provided by the facility during the previous survey on the Resident Census (Form CMS-672). This report compares facility
population characteristics with State, CMS region, and national averages Online Survey, Certification and Reporting (OSCAR). OSCAR is the most comprehensive source of facility level information on the operations, patient census and regulatory compliance of nursing facilities. Data elements collected on CMS forms 1539, 671, 672, 673 and 2567 are included in the OSCAR data.

38
Q
A facility had $98,0O0 worth of food on hand as of June 30. lt had $1O7,OOO as of July 31. During the month of July, a total of-$165,O00 was spent on food purchases, and 100,000 meals were served. What was the food cost per meal?
A. $1.O7
B. $1.56
C. $1.65
D. $1.74
A

B. $1.56

What ever was SPENT in FOOD for that month - Inventory cost / Meals served.
107000-98000 = 9000
Cost that month in food 165000 - difference in start and end 9000

165000 - 9000 = 156000
156000 / 100000 = $1.56

39
Q

What is Sundowners syndrome? What is transfer trauma?

A

Sundowners Syndrome is a condition that effects people about 20% of people with Alzheimer’s and dementia. People with dementia who “sundown” get confused and agitated as the sun goes down – and sometimes through the night.

Transfer Trauma- name given to the adverse Physical and psychosocial effects resulting from a move to an unfamiliar environment

40
Q
Transferring of a journal entry to an account in a ledger is called
A. journalizing
B. reconciliation
C. posting
D. a trial balance
A

C. posting

41
Q

Who pays the tax under the Federal Unemployment Tax Act?
A. employee only
B. employer only (in all but a few states)
C. employer and employee equally, in all states
D. employer and employee, but at different rates

A

B. Employer only (in all but a few states)

42
Q
According to OSHA rules, all occupational injuries must be recorded if they result in any except which one of the following?
A. one or more days away from work
B. first aid
C. restricted work activity
D. transfer to another job
A

B. first aid

** Basic First AID*** Think Band-Aids , and small cuts and bruises.

43
Q

A project team in a nursing home that follows Total Quality Management (TQM) approaches would be most likely to have which of the following as members?
A. Nurses, a physician, and other professional caregivers.
B. The administrator, the personnel director, the financial director, and other top staff.
C. Department heads and a variety of consultants.
D. Representatives of affected departments, residents, and family members.

A

D. Representatives of affected departments, residents, and family members.

44
Q

what is multiple sclerosis?

A

a chronic, typically progressive disease involving damage to the sheaths of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, whose symptoms may include numbness, impairment of speech and of muscular coordination, blurred vision, and severe fatigue.

45
Q
The most common cause of fires in nursing homes is
A. build-up of laundry lint
B. kitchen grease spills
C. misuse of smoking materials
D. extension cords
A

C. misuse of smoking materials

46
Q
When assisting a stroke victim to put on a shirt, a nurse's aide encourages the resident to put on by himself the one sleeve he is capable of manipulating, and then offers only minimal assistance with the other Steve that the resident has difficulty with. ln this way, the aide is putting into practice the ideal of...
A. reality orientation
B. task segmentation
C. re-motivation
D. redirection
A

P.118

B. task segmentation

For residents with cognitive impairment: task segmentation and simplification; programs using long-term memory rather than short-term memory, length of activities based on attention span.

47
Q

What is Double entry accounting.?

A

What you do on one side of the Table you must also do the opposite on the Other side.
Ex: an increase in cash and an increase in notes payable

Double entry accounting is based on the fact that every financial transaction has equal and opposite effects in at least two different accounts. It is used to satisfy the equation Assets = Liabilities + Equity, whereby each entry is recorded so as to maintain the relationship.

48
Q

Which of the following things are lawful for supervisors to
communicate to employees during a union organizing drive?
A. Threats to discontinue benefits to or demote workers who support the union.
B. lnquiries of the employees on how they will vote in a union election.
C. Promises of a pay increase to employees if they do not support the union
D. lnformation on the union’s dues and strike record.

A

D. lnformation on the union’s dues and strike record

49
Q

OSHA requires all employers to report within_____ any job accident that results in the death of an employ or ______.
A. Five working days – the hospitalization of an employee
B. 24 hours – the hospitalization of an employee
C. 8 hours – the hospitalization of three or more employees
D. Five working days – the hospitalization of three or more employees.

A

C. 8 hours – the hospitalization of three or more employees

50
Q
Workers Compensation provides which one of the following?
A. full medical and hospital payments
B. partial medical and hospital payments
C. punitive damages
D. replacement of all lost wages
A

A. full medical and hospital payments

51
Q

All except which one of the following are possible advantages of leasing versus
purchasing a piece of equipment?
A. .Tax advantages.
B. Fixed monthly costs are lower than those required by loans.
C. Total cost is normally less.
D Debt is kept off the balance sheet.

A

C. Total cost is normally less.