test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of Actus Reus?

A

The guilty act/conduct/state of affairs

Must be voluntary and can be an act, omission, or state of affairs.

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2
Q

What must voluntary acts be?
(Case example?)

A

Must be a voluntary, conscious action

Case: R v Larsonneur (1933) - D’s involuntary presence was sufficient for Actus Reus.

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3
Q

In what case did the court hold that the prosecution must prove Actus Reus beyond reasonable doubt?

A

R v Woolmington (1935)

Established the burden of proof on the prosecution.

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4
Q

Under what circumstances can a person be liable for omission?

Give two cases after explanation

A

Duty relationship exists, contractual duty, voluntary assumption of care, creation of dangerous situation, statutory duty

Examples include R v Gibbins & Proctor (1918) and R v Pittwood (1902).

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5
Q

What is the ‘But for’ test related to?

A

Factual causation

Case: R v White (1910) - Poisoning incident.

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6
Q

What defines legal causation?

A

Chain of causation

Case: R v Smith (1959) - Medical treatment must be palpably wrong to break the chain.

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7
Q

What is Direct Intent?

A

Purposely bringing about the result

Case: R v Mohan (1976) - The defendant acted with purpose.

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8
Q

What is Oblique Intent?

A

Foresight of virtual certainty

Case: R v Woollin (1999) - Death was a virtually certain consequence.

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9
Q

What constitutes Recklessness?

A

Awareness of risk but taking it anyway

Case: R v Cunningham (1957) - Example of subjective recklessness.

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10
Q

What is Transferred Malice?

A

Intent transfers from intended to actual victim

Case: R v Latimer (1886) - D aimed at one person but hit another.

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11
Q

What is the definition of Assault under the Criminal Justice Act 1988?

A

Causing victim to apprehend immediate unlawful personal violence

Case: R v Ireland (1997) - Silent telephone calls can constitute assault.

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12
Q

What is Battery?

A

Actual application of unlawful force, however slight

Case: Collins v Wilcock (1984) - Even minimal touching can be battery.

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13
Q

What is Assault Occasioning Actual Bodily Harm?

A

Assault/battery resulting in actual bodily harm

Case: R v Chan-Fook (1994) - Includes psychiatric injury.

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14
Q

What is the definition of Theft under the Theft Act 1968?

A

Dishonestly appropriates property belonging to another with the intention of permanently depriving the other of it

Key elements include appropriation, property, belonging to another, dishonesty, and intention to permanently deprive.

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15
Q

What is required for Robbery under the Theft Act 1968?

A

Theft + force/threat of force immediately before or at time of theft

Case: R v Dawson & James (1976) - Force must be intentional.

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16
Q

What defines Burglary under the Theft Act 1968?

A

Entry as trespasser with intent to steal/inflict GBH/cause criminal damage

Defined in s.9(1)(a) and s.9(1)(b) of the Act.

17
Q

What is the basic offense of Criminal Damage?

A

Destroying/damaging property without lawful excuse

Case: R v Whiteley (1991) - Temporary functional impairment is sufficient.

18
Q

What is required for Self-Defense?

A

Honest belief in need for defense and reasonable force

Case: R v Williams (1987) - Honest but mistaken belief is permissible.

19
Q

What are the requirements for Duress?

A

Threat of death/serious injury, threat to D or another, no reasonable alternative, not voluntarily exposing self to threat

Case: R v Hasan (2005) - Must have no realistic alternative.

20
Q

What is the definition of Murder?

A

Unlawful killing with malice aforethought

Case: R v Moloney (1985) - Intent includes foresight of virtual certainty.

21
Q

What constitutes Voluntary Manslaughter under Diminished Responsibility?

A

Abnormality of mental functioning from recognized medical condition, substantially impaired ability to understand, form rational judgment, or exercise self-control

Case: R v Byrne (1960) - Established abnormality of mind.

22
Q

What is required for Involuntary Manslaughter?

A

Unlawful act, dangerous (risk of some harm), causing death

Case: R v Church (1966) - Act must be objectively dangerous.

23
Q

What are the elements of Rape under the Sexual Offences Act 2003?

A

Intentional penetration, victim does not consent, D does not reasonably believe in consent

Case: R v Konzani (2005) - Non-disclosure of HIV status is relevant.

24
Q

What defines Consent under s.74 of the Sexual Offences Act?

A

Free agreement with

Important for determining validity of consent in sexual offenses.

25
Q

What does ‘D does not reasonably believe in consent’ refer to?

A

It refers to the lack of a reasonable belief by the defendant in the consent of the victim.

26
Q

What was the case R v Konzani (2005) about?

A

It involved an HIV positive defendant not disclosing his status to the victim.

27
Q

What does R v Dougal (2005) establish regarding consent?

A

It establishes that drunken consent can be valid consent.

28
Q

What are the elements of Sexual Assault under s.3 of the Sexual Offences Act 2003?

A
  • Intentional touching
  • Sexual nature
  • Victim does not consent
  • D does not reasonably believe in consent
29
Q

What did the case R v H (2005) clarify about touching?

A

It clarified that the touching must be sexual.

30
Q

How is consent defined under s.74?

A

Consent is defined as free agreement with capacity and freedom.

31
Q

What are the presumptions regarding consent under s.75?

A
  • Violence
  • Threat
  • Detention
  • Unconsciousness
  • Disability
32
Q

What was the significance of R v Bree (2007)?

A

It addressed voluntary intoxication and capacity to consent.

33
Q

What are the conclusive presumptions under s.76?

A
  • Deception as to nature/purpose of act
  • Impersonating known person
34
Q

What did the case R v Jheeta (2007) involve?

A

It involved deception about circumstances related to consent.