test 101D Flashcards

1
Q

The germinal period ends approximately:
a. two days after conception.
b. two months after conception.
c. two weeks after conception.
d. twelve weeks after conception.

A

two weeks after conception.

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2
Q

The period of the fetus lasts:

a. during the last three months before the child’s birth.
b. from the midway point of prenatal development until birth.
c. from the second until the eighth week after conception.
d. from nine weeks after conception until birth.

A

d. from nine weeks after conception until birth.

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3
Q

The longest period of prenatal development is the:
a. period ofthe embryo.
b. period ofthe fetus.
c. first trimester.
d. germinal period.

A

b. period ofthe fetus

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4
Q

Full-term pregnancies last:
a. 34 weeks.
b. 36 weeks.
c. 38 weeks.
d. 40 weeks.

A

c. 38 weeks

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5
Q

The germinal stem cells first take on distinct characteristics and move toward particular locations
during:
a. implantation.
b. differentiation
c. assimilation.
d. fertilization.

A

differentiation

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6
Q

About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a protective circle or shell
that will become the:

a. placenta.
b. umbilical cord.
c. vernix.
d. infant.

A

a. placenta

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7
Q

By one week after conception, the multiplying cells have divided into outer cells enclosing a mass of
inner cells. The inner cells will become the:
a. embryo.
b. amnion.
c. placenta.
d. digestive system

A

a. embryo.

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8
Q

The placenta:

a. screens the embryo from all harmful substances.
b. provides the fetus with its first taste of breast milk.
c. surrounds and protects the developing organism.
d. mixes the blood supply of mother and fetus

A

c. surrounds and protects the developing organism.

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9
Q

During the germinal period, the first task ofthe outer cells is to:
a. divide as rapidly as possible.
b. differentiate into different types oftissue.
c. implant in the uterus.
d. find a permanent location in the ovaries.

A

c. implant in the uterus.

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10
Q

Which occurs about 7 days after conception?
a. deposit ofthe male’s sperm into the body ofthe female
b. nestling of the developing organism into the lining of the uterus
c. fertilization of the ovum by sperm
d. the placenta begins to function

A

c. fertilization ofthe ovum by sperm

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11
Q

Which ofthe following is a true statement?

a. All infants of HIV-positive women contract the HIV virus as well.
b. A teratogen is a substance or disease that, when present, always results in a birth defect.
c. Months 4, 5, and 6 are referred to as the second or middle trimester of pregnancy.
d. There is no real evidence that the fetus can hear anything.

A

. Months 4, 5, and 6 are referred to as the second or middle trimester of pregnancy.

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12
Q

The head begins to take shape in the_week after conception.
a. fourth
b. fifth
c. sixth
d. seventh

A

a. Fourth

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13
Q

Buds that will become arms and legs appear by the_week.
a. third
b. fourth
c. fifth
d. sixth

A

C. Fifth

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14
Q

Which ofthe following begins to develop last during prenatal development?
a. legs
b. hands
c. head
d. toes

A

d. toes

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15
Q

At eight weeks after conception, the embryo has not yet formed:
a. intestines.
b. lungs.
c. sex organs.
d. kidneys

A

c. sex organs

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16
Q

About eight weeks after eonception, the embryo:
a. weighs about 5 ounces (142 g).
b. has distinct fingers and toes.
c. has a visible tail.
d. is about 1/4 inch long (.64 cm).

A

b. has distinct fingers and toes.

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17
Q

The fetus begins to develop male sex organs if:
a. the Y chromosome sends a biochemical signal.
b. the master signal from the Y chromosome overrides the X signal.
c. the X chromosome sends a biochemical signal.
d. no biochemical signal is received.

A

a. the Y chromosome sends a biochemical signal.

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18
Q

The critical factor in attaining the age of viability is:
a. weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kg).
b. having adequate brain development.
c. having functioning digestive and respiratory systems.
d. surviving at least 28 weeks past conception.

A

b. having adequate brain development.

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19
Q

A birth weight of between 2 and 3 1/2 lbs. would be classified as:
a. low birth weight.
b. very low birth weight.
c. extremely low birth weight.
d. normal, though low

A

b. very low birth weight.

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20
Q

Which ofthese statements is a true one?
a. The development ofthe central nervous system is completed during the period ofthe embryo.
b. In the last months of prenatal life, the lungs begin to expand and contract and the valves ofthe
heart undergo final maturation.
c. A baby cannot be both preterm and small-for-date.
d. The cry ofthe newborn can earn a 3, the highest score for respiratory effort on the Apgar scale

A

In the last months of prenatal life, the lungs begin to expand and contract and the valves ofthe
heart undergo final maturation

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21
Q

The condition which causes part ofthe brain not to form is known as:
a. microcephaly.
b. anencephaly.
c. macrocephaly.
d. encephalitis

A

b. anencephaly.

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22
Q

Martha Ann was still-born. The doctors told her mother that the part ofthe brain above her eyebrowlevel had failed to form, prenatally. This sad problem was probably caused by:
a. a sexually transmitted disease.
b. toxoplasmosis. ,
c. a lack of folic acid in her mother’s diet.
d. household cleaning compounds.

A

c. a lack of folic acid in her mother’s diet

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23
Q

Research in genetic vulnerability to teratogens has found that:
a. fraternal twins are equally vulnerable.
b. female embryos are more vulnerable than males.
c. genetic vulnerability guarantees a birth defect ofsome sort.
d. the XY chromosome pattern is more susceptible to damage.

A

d. the XY chromosome pattern is more susceptible to damage.

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24
Q

Precise prediction ofinteraction between genes and teratogens is possible for:
a. male embryos but not female embryos.
b. all embryos.
c. monozygotic twins.
d. none ofthe above

A

d. none ofthe above

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25
Q

The agent responsible for deformed limbs in the newborns in the late 1950s was:
a. thalidomide.
b. tetracycline.
c. toxoplasmosis.
d. tobacco.

A

a. thalidomide.

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26
Q

Monique contracted rubella early in her pregnancy. Damage is most likely to affect the embryo’s:
a. eyes.
b. arms or legs.
c. breathing.
d. bloodstream

A

a. eyes.

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27
Q

If a pregnant woman is HIV-positive, the HIV virus:
a. will not be passed on to her newborn.
b. has about a 25 percent chance of being passed to the baby.
c. will always infect the fetus.
d. can be avoided through Cesarean section.

A

b. has about a 25 percent chance of being passed to the baby.

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28
Q

A cluster of birth defects, including abnormal facial characteristics, slow physical growth, and retarded
mental development is associated most closely with which ofthe following?
a. fetal alcohol syndrome
b. fetal alcohol effects
c. polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)
d. toxoplasmosis

A

a. fetal alcohol syndrome

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29
Q

A total Apgar score of 3 indicates that a newborn is:
a. of very low birth weight.
b. irritable and may be coughing and crying.
c. in excellent condition.
d. in critical condition.

A

d. in critical conditio

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30
Q

The Apgar is used one minute and five minutes after birth to:
a. measure sensory abilities.
b. measure the health ofthe new mother.
c. help the mother recover from childbirth.
d. determine whether the newborn needs immediate medical care.

A

d. determine whether the newborn needs immediate medical care.

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31
Q

The average newborn doubles her birth weight
a. two months.
b. four months.
c. six months.
d. the first year.

A

b. four months.

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32
Q

A well-nourished newborn gains weight:
a. continuously from birth onward.
b. to triple its birth weight by age 1 year.
e. mostly of bone and water.
d. to double its birth weight by age 1 year

A

b. to triple its birth weight by age 1 year

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33
Q

A typical child at 24 months weighs about;
a. 19 pounds.
b. 30 pounds.
c. 41 pounds.
d. 52 pounds.

A

b. 30 pounds.

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34
Q

Children reach halftheir adult height by age:
a. 2 years.
b. 3 years.
c. 4 years.
d. 6 years

A

a. 2 years.

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35
Q

By age 2, the typical child weighs about_and is about_inchestall.
a. 30; 35
b. 35; 40
c. 35; 45
d. 40; 40

A

a. 30; 35

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36
Q

A newborn’s brain weight is_that of an adult’s.
a. greater than
b. the same as
c. about one-half
d. about one-quarter

A

d. about one-quarter 75%

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37
Q

The cortex:
a. is the brain’s outer layer.
b. is also called the gray matter.
c. is the location of most feeling and sensing.
d. all ofthe above.

A

d. all ofthe above.

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38
Q

The nerve cells ofthe brain are called:
a. axons.
b. neurons.
c. dendrites.
d. the cortex

A

b. neurons.

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39
Q

Axons are to dendrites as:
a. sending is to receiving.
b. small is to large.
c. baby is to adult.
d. controllable is to automatic.

A

a. sending is to receiving

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40
Q

The part of a neuron which acts as a tiny antennae and conducts signals toward the axon ofthat cell is
called the:
a. dendrite.
b. myelin sheath.
c. axon terminal.
d. synapse, or synaptic cleft.

A

a. dendrite.

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41
Q

In the process of transient exuberance, great brain growth is seen, especially in the area ofthe:
a. axons.
b. nucleus.
c. dendrites.
d. axon terminals

A

c. dendrites.

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42
Q

From birth until age 2 years, the density of dendrites in the cortex increases:
a. twofold.
b. threefold.
c. fivefold.
d. tenfold.

A

c. fivefold.

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43
Q

The fine-tuning process ofthe human brain implies that:
a. infants should be constantly stimulated during infancy.
b. compared to other infant animals, the human brain is more mature.
c. language and emotion mature very slowly in the first two years of life.
d. stimulation helps neural connections develop.

A

d. stimulation helps neural connections develop.

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44
Q

After proliferation and neural pruning occurs, the type of brain experiences which occur are typically:
a. trifling, or insignificant.
b. those dealing with abstract, general, or universal statements or laws of behavior.
c. experience-expectant.
d. experience-dependent.

A

d. experience-dependent

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45
Q

Sensation is demonstrated when a person:
a. understands what someone is telling him.
b. is able to hear someone whispering.
c. solves a math problem correctly.
d. believes that two pizzas are the same size, regardless ofthe number ofslices.

A

b. is able to hear someone whispering.

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46
Q

A newborn:
a. is virtually deaf and blind.
b. has all the senses but is immature.
c. perceives the world as alarming and confusing.
d. has all the senses functioning as well as those of an adult

A

b. has all the senses but is immature.

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47
Q

The newborn’s perceived world is:
a. immature.
b. overwhelming, which is why he or she cries so much.
c. very similar to the perceived world of an adult.
d. blooming, buzzing confusion.

A

a. immature.

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48
Q

Binocular vision refers to the ability to:
a. focus on objects at a distance.
b. bring an object in and out of focus.
c. focus on an object with both eyes.
d. visually distinguish colors.

A

c. focus on an object with both eyes.

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49
Q

The average infant’s visual systems:
a. cannot tolerate much stimulation.
b. benefits from stimulation after 1 year of age.
c. benefits from stimulation in the early months of life.
d. cannot process events that are out ofthe ordinary.

A

c. benefits from stimulation in the early months of life.

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50
Q

The sense that is the least developed at birth is:
a. hearing.
b. vision.
c. taste.
d. smell.

A

b. vision.

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51
Q

The neonate’s vision:
a. is clearest when objects are 4 to 30 inches away.
b. is clearest when objects are about 10 feet away.
c. does not improve until age 1.
d. is the most developed ofthe senses.

A

a. is clearest when objects are 4 to 30 inches away.

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52
Q

A 1-month-old infant has all ofthe following except:
a. imperfect ability to scan objects.
b. a tendency to look at peripheral features.
c. binocular vision.
d. a wandering gaze

A

c. binocular vision.

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53
Q

Tom will find that his newborn son’s hearing is:
a. more sensitive than his vision.
b. sensitive only to sudden noises.
c. too immature to distinguish human voices.
d. more acute than that of adults.

A

a. more sensitive than his vision.

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54
Q

All reflexes;
a. are essential for life.
b. are involuntary.
c. disappear by 4 months.
d. all ofthe above are true.

A

b. are involuntary.

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55
Q

Which reflex ensures an adequate supply of oxygen?
a. Babinski
b. anoxia
c. breathing
d. respiratory

A

c. breathing

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56
Q

An involuntary response to a stimulus is known as a:
a. reflex.
b. perception.
c. habit.
d. marasmus.

A

a. reflex

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57
Q

A 3-day-old infant has sneezed. It is most likely that he:
a. has a cold.
b. smelled something he did not like.
c. did so as a reflex.
d. has asthma

A

c. did so as a reflex.

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58
Q

The average child can walk well unassisted at about:
a. 6 months.
b. 1 year.
c. 18 months.
d. 2 years.

A

b. 1 year.

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59
Q

Most infants are able to crawl on their bellies by age:
a. 4 to 6 months.
b. 6 to 8 months.
c. 8 to 10 months.
d. 10 to 12 months.

A

a. 4 to 6 months.

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60
Q

Sam is able to grab objects but he sometimes closes his hand too early or too late. Sam is probably
about:
a. 2 months old.
b. 4 months old.
c. 6 months old.
d. 8 months old.

A

b. 4 months old.

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61
Q

Babies learn to grab and hold onto objects by about:
a. 2 months.
b. 4 months.
c. 6 months.
d. 8 months

A

c. 6 months.

62
Q

A baby kicks its legs, smiles, and deliberately kicks its legs again. These actions are repeated for
several minutes. According to Piaget, this is an example of
a. repetitious behavior.
b. a primary circular reaction.
c. a secondary circular reaction.
d. accommodation.

A

b. a primary circular reaction.

63
Q

In Piaget’s terminology, sensorimotor stage two is known as:
a. the stage ofreflexes.
b. procedures for making interesting sights last.
c. the first acquired adaptations.
d. new adaptation and anticipation.

A

b. procedures for making interesting sights last.

64
Q

Piaget would say that the use of a reflex such as grasping provides:
a. an infant with a way to survive until thought can begin.
b. physical exercise as well as social contact.
c. information about the world that is used for learning.
d. little benefit to the infant.

A

c. information about the world that is used for learning.

65
Q

During sensorimotor stage two, an infant:
a. begins to understand object permanence.
b. learns to talk.
c. experiments with toys and animals.
d. begins to adapt reflexes to the environment.

A

d. begins to adapt reflexes to the environment. ( Acquired adaptation)

66
Q

A baby sticks out its tongue and another person laughs. The baby joins in the laughter and deliberately
sticks out its tongue again. Piaget would call this:
a. social circular reactions.
b. primary circular reactions.
c. secondary circular reactions.
d. rudimentary circular reactions

A

c. secondary circular reactions.

67
Q

Jean Piaget focused heavily on the child’s ability and use offeedback loops of activity. To which of
these does this most specifically refer?
a. assimilation
b. tertiary reactions
c. circular reactions
d. deferred reactions

A

c. circular reactions

68
Q

An example ofstage-three behavior is:
a. thumb-sucking and self-soothing.
b. searching for a teddy bear hidden under a blanket.
c. trying to dress like Mommy or Daddy.
d. making a noise, looking for a smile, and smiling back.

A

d. making a noise, looking for a smile, and smiling back.

Making interesting sight last

69
Q

Sensorimotor stage four is the stage of:
a. procedures for making interesting sights last.( 4)
b. new means through active experimentation. ( 5)
c. new means tlirough mental combinations.(6)
d. new adaptation and anticipation.

A

d. new adaptation and anticipation.

70
Q

A baby sees a white bakery bag for the first time and screams with joy. The baby is most likely in the
sensorimotor stage:
a. five.
b. four.
c. three.
d. two.

71
Q

Makesha is 8 months old. Research on object permanence would suggest that she:
a. will not yet search for hidden objects.
b. can find an object that has been transferred to a second hiding place.
c. has limited search abilities.
d. will acquire complete object permanence by 10 months

A

c. has limited search abilities.

72
Q

Stage five ofthe sensorimotor period is known as the stage of:
a. experimentation.
b. first adaptations.
c. new adaptation and anticipation.
d. mental combinations.

A

a. experimentation.

73
Q

Attempting to eat spaghetti by trying to put a piece in the ears as well as in the mouth is typical of
sensorimotor stage;
a. three.
b. four.
c. five.
d. six.

74
Q

Becka is trying to figure out a place to hide her doll. She considers putting it under the kitchen table,
but then realizes it would still be in sight. She decides to hide the doll in the closet instead. Becka is
using:
a. mental combinations.
b. trial and error.
c. object permanence.
d. invisible displacements

A

a. mental combinations.

75
Q

Fourteen-month-old Tony would most likely be in a sensorimotor stage that involves:
a. experimentation.
b. discovering his own body parts.
c. generating creative ideas.
d. learning to use words to explain his ideas.

A

a. experimentation

76
Q

Ifwe give a 6-month-old infant a furry toy dog and a rubber rattle, probably the baby will:
a. try to suck on both objects.
b. squeeze both the rattle and the dog.
c. shake the rattle and pat the dog.
d. shake both the dog and the rattle.

A

c. shake the rattle and pat the dog.

77
Q

3-month-old Rob might demonstrate that he has perceived the “graspability” of an object by:
a. crying when he sees the object.
b. following the object with his eyes.
c. reaching for the object.
d. looking at the object

A

c. reaching for the object.

78
Q

An infant’s reaction to the visual cliffis supposed to measure her:
a. locomotion.
b. perceptual constancy.
c. culture.
d. depth perception

A

d. depth perception

79
Q

Salma is a 10-month-old who is being tested on the visual cliff We would expect her to:
a. cry throughout the testing.
b. cross over the “visual cliff”
c. refuse to cross over the “visual cliff.”
d. slide down the slope.

A

c. refuse to cross over the “visual cliff.”

80
Q

An infant’s growing awareness of vertical depths and their dangers is mostly due to:
a. the experience ofwalking.
b. reaching the age of 12 months.
c. having previous experience with the visual cliff.
d. the mother’s reaction to those things

A

a. the experience ofwalking.

81
Q

If you teach a 3-month-old how to move a mobile over the crib, you would expect the baby to forget if
retested after:
a. one hour.
b. one day.
c. one week.
d. two weeks.

A

d. two weeks.

82
Q

New research on infant long-term memory has shown that infants can remember, ifthe researchers:
a. use situations that are different from real life.
b. do not let the baby move during the memory event.
c. use highly emotional events.
d. use special measures to aid memory retrieval.

A

d. use special measures to aid memory retrieval.

83
Q

Because of_, a lO-month-old may later pick up and try to use the scissors that his brother used to
cut paper.
a. cross-modal perception
b. overextensions
c. LAD
d. deferred imitation

A

d. deferred imitation

84
Q

Billy is 10 months old and has been watching his brother play with a toy piano. The next day Billy
crawls over to the piano, which his brother left on the floor, and:
a. does not recognize it.
b. recognizes it but does not know how to “play” it.
c. pushes the keys the way his brother did.
d. pushes it like a truck.

A

c. pushes the keys the way his brother did.

85
Q

Children all over the world usually:
a. follow the same timing in the development oflanguage.
b. understand sounds only from their native language.
c. fail to discriminate the sound ofthe human voice from other sounds.
d. follow the same sequence of language development

A

d. follow the same sequence of language development

86
Q

Newborns prefer:
a. speech over most other sounds.
b. animal sounds over speech.
c. normal speech over baby talk.
d. traffic noises more than music.

A

a. speech over most other sounds.

87
Q

The language-learning theory which focuses on communication as an explanation is the:
a. behaviorism model.
b. epigeneticists’ theory.
c. social-pragmatic theory.
d. emergentist coalition theory

A

c. social-pragmatic theory.

88
Q

Bill constantly talks to his 3-month-old infant. His friend Ted tells him that it is useless to do so,
because an infant cannot understand language. Social-pragmatists would:
a. agree with Ted, since cooing and babbling are reflexive.
b. suggest that Bill’s behavior indicates he needs therapy.
c. agree with Ted, since too much listening slows talking.
d. disagree with Ted, because Bill’s behavior teaches communication

A

d. disagree with Ted, because Bill’s behavior teaches communication

89
Q

According to Erikson, toddlers usually:
a. want to control their own bodies.
b. want to keep sucking on a pacifier.
c. stay very close to their mothers.
d. learn how to express their ideas through language

A

a. want to control their own bodies

90
Q

According to traditional behaviorism, personality is;
a. molded by parents.
b. due to nature.
c. in the unconscious mind.
d. unchangeable.

A

a. molded by parents.

91
Q

Who stated that parents determine whether a child “is to grow into a happy person, an anger-driven,
vindictive, over-bearing slave driver, or one whose every move in life is definitely controlled by fear”?
a. Erikson
b. Freud
c. Skinner
d. Watson

92
Q

The early behaviorist who strongly believed that a child’s personality is “created” or largely determined
by his or her parents was:
a. Erikson.
b. Freud.
c. Skinner.
d. Watson

93
Q

Research in temperament reveals that:
a. temperament remains consistent throughout life.
b. temperament evolves and changes over time.
c. rhythmicity and quality of mood are its most stable characteristics.
d. as the child goes through new stages, temperamental qualities become more stable

A

b. temperament evolves and changes over time.

94
Q

Threshold of responsiveness, approach-withdrawal, and intensity ofreaction, all ot which shape an
individual’s personality are part of what psychologists call:
a. personality.
b. mood.
c. temperament.
d. frame of mind

A

c. temperament.

95
Q

A match between a child’s temperament and the demands ofthe environment is called:
a. goodness of fit.
b. synchrony.
c. organismic specificity.
d. temperamental enhancement

A

a. goodness of fit.

96
Q

Typically, stranger wariness is first noticeable at:
a. 3 months and it fades by 9 months of age.
b. 4 months and it remains steady during the next year.
c. 9 months.
d. 9 months and it increases in intensity throughout the next two years

A

c. 9 months

97
Q

Tammi, age 4 months, and Dawn, age 13 months, are left with a baby-sitter. How will they react?
a. Tammi will be more upset than Dawn.
b. Dawn will probably show more distress than Tammi.
c. Both Tammi and Dawn will be similar in experiencing separation anxiety.
d. Neither is likely to show distress.

A

b. Dawn will probably show more distress than Tammi.

98
Q

Proximity-seeking behavior in a secure infant occurs when a baby:
a. clings to the mother.
b. refuses to be put down.
c. crawls behind the mother.
d. watches the mother respond to a stranger

A

c. crawls behind the mother

99
Q

Bob quietly watches his infant son, Hamilton, while he sleeps. Bob is engaging in:
a. contact-maintaining behavior.
b. social referencing.
c. synchrony.
d. goodness offit.

A

a. contact-maintaining behavior.

100
Q

“Proximity-seeking” and “contact-maintaining” behaviors are displays of:
a. love.
b. insecurity.
c. attachment.
d. friendliness.

A

c. attachment.

101
Q

Which ofthese is a sign ofsecure attachment?
a. refusing to let go ofthe caregiver’s arm
b. playing aimlessly with no contact with the caregiver
c. fear and anger
d. attempts to be close to the caregiver

A

d. attempts to be close to the caregiver

102
Q

Basically, the Strange Situation measures how a child:
a. responds to a stranger.
b. plays with a parent.
c. plays with toys he or she has never seen before.
d. responds to separations and reunions with a caregiver.

A

d. responds to separations and reunions with a caregiver.

103
Q

Four-month-old Janie begins to ery in her mother’s arms in the mall. Her mother tells her to hush, as
people are beginning to stare at them. Which type of attachment is Janie likely to have as a result ofthis
and other similar responses from her mother?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D

A

d. D ( Disorganized)

104
Q

One ofthe things a disturbed mother does not do to develop Type D attachment in their infant is:
a. display a frightened expression.
b. consistently hug the infant.
c. tease the infant.
d. withhold a toy.

A

b. consistently hug the infant

105
Q

Which ofthe following refers to the proeess of change within each individual and social group, with
each change connected to every other development in each individual and social group?
a. cohort
b. dynamic systems
c. life-span perspective
d. multicultural

A

b. dynamic systems

106
Q

In which ofthe following domains is development linear?
a. parent-child attachment
b. physical growth
c. intellectual growth
d. all ofthe above
e. none ofthe above

A

e. none ofthe above

107
Q

According to the view of development as a result of dynamic systems, which ofthe following could
influence a child’s physical development?
a. age
b. historical context
c. individual likes and dislikes
d. all ofthe above

A

d. all ofthe above

108
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a major contextual influence on development?
a. culture
b. history
c. social class
d. genetics

A

d. genetics

109
Q

Social constructions often vary by:
a. family.
b. cohort.
c. physical health status.
d. intelligence.

A

b. cohort.

110
Q

Many assumptions about how things “should be”, such as that the husband should be the major wage
earner in a married relationship, are:
a. social constructions.
b. cultural artifacts.
c. universally accepted.
d. objective reality.

A

a. social constructions.

111
Q

Which ofthe following is NOT an example of a cultural phenomenon?

a. Children in the United States begin formal school at age five.
b. Most television viewing done by American adults occurs in the evening.
c. American women tend to be shorter than American men.
d. In American families, babies usually sleep in a crib in a room separate from their parents.

A

c. American women tend to be shorter than American men

112
Q

Ethnic categories are intended to have their basis in all ofthe following EXCEPT:
a. sociology.
b. psychology.
c. biology.
d. history.

A

c. biology.

113
Q

Which ofthe following is a true statement about the concept ofrace?
a. In and of itself, it does not affect development.
b. It is not intended to categorize people biologically.
c. It includes a culture.
d. It is more important to development than ethnicity

A

a. In and of itself, it does not affect development.

114
Q

Naturalistic observation would probably be the best choice for a researcher interested in.
a. beliefs of parents about the drinking behavior of their children.
b. adolescents’ risky sexual behavior.
c. obtaining extensive information about a single adolescent s nutritional behavior.
d. the frequency of bullying during school recess periods

A

d. the frequency of bullying during school recess periods.

115
Q

On the playground, a father appears to be ignoring his crying 3-year-old. The ecological-systems
approach suggests that which ofthe following is influencing this interaction?
a. the father’s beliefs about his child’s behavior
b. society’s expectations about the roles offathers
c. the child’s level of emotional maturity
d. all ofthe above

A

d. all ofthe above

116
Q

Unlike Freud, Erikson’s psychosocial theory emphasizes:
a. the logic that underlies thought processes.
b. the inherent rewards and punishments ofliving.
c. active mental processes.
d. the social and cultural environment

A

d. the social and cultural environment

117
Q

Erikson believed that the main crisis during adolescence involved:
a. trying to find an intimate relationship.
b. establishing a sense ofself-control.
c. learning to trust others in the world.
d. trying to determine who one is.

A

d. trying to determine who one is

118
Q

In the industry vs. inferiority stage, children try to:
a. become accepted by important others.
b. figure out who they are.
c. master new skills.
d. become toilet trained.

A

c. master new skills.

119
Q

A 9-year-old girl learning to be competent at school would be in Erikson’s psychosocial stage of:
a. industry vs. inferiority.
b. identity vs. role confusion.
c. autonomy vs. shame and doubt.
d. integrity vs. despair.

A

a. industry vs. inferiority.

120
Q

The psychosocial stage in which people try to see their lives as a worthy and justifiable whole is:
a. identity vs. role confusion.
b. the formal operational stage.
c. integrity vs. despair.
d. the genital stage.

A

c. integrity vs. despair.

121
Q

Which ofthe following theories arose in direct opposition to psychoanalytic theory?
a. cognitive theory
b. behaviorism
c. sociocultural theory
d. ecological theory

A

b. behaviorism

122
Q

Behaviorism is also called:
a. motivational theory.
b. emotional theory.
c. learning theory.
d. analysis theory

123
Q

Diana, a toddler, is throwing a temper tantrum. Behaviorists would say Diana is doing this because she:
a. is a toddler, and toddlers are learning how to control their environment.
b. believes this will get her parents to give her what she wants.
c. is egocentric and cannot think about how other people will be upset by her behavior.
d. has gradually learned that this type of behavior gets rewarded.

A

d. has gradually learned that this type of behavior gets rewarded.

124
Q

In classical conditioning, an organism learns:
a. a reflex.
b. that reinforcement follows responses.
c. to associate a neutral stimulus with a meaningful one.
d. how to become self-sufficient.

A

c. to associate a neutral stimulus with a meaningful one.

125
Q

Which ofthe following could be an example of classical conditioning?
a. laughing at a funny movie
b. crying with the pain of a stubbed toe
c. feeling happy at the smell of baking cookies
d. wearing layers in the winter

A

c. feeling happy at the smell of baking cookies

126
Q

A dog learns to “shake paws” on command because it has been given dog biscuits for doing so. This is
an example of:
a. classical conditioning.
b. operant conditioning.
c. cognitive conditioning.
d. stimulus conditioning.

A

b. operant conditioning.

127
Q

Which ofthe following is the best example of operant conditioning?
a. playing a slot machine
b. crying when hurt
c. feeling tired after a long day
d. puckering up after tasting a dill pickle

A

a. playing a slot machine

128
Q

Social learning involves:
a. copying a model.
b. learning how to be polite.
c. following the rules.
d. understanding one’s own family.

A

a. copying a model.

129
Q

A child begins to think symbolically, including using language, in Piaget s-stage.
a. preoperational
b. sensorimotor
c. concrete operational
d. abstract intelligence

A

a. preoperational

130
Q

Olaf can reason consistently about real and tangible things. However, he cannot yet reason about
abstract ideas or situations. Olaf is probably in Piaget’s_stage.
a. rational logic
b. preoperational
c. formal operational
d. concrete operational

A

d. concrete operational

131
Q

Lev Vygotsky is best known for his contributions to_theory.
a. cognitive
b. sociocultural
c. psychoanalytic
d. behavioral

A

b. sociocultural

132
Q

According to the sociocultural theory, how do society and culture relate to development?
a. They are irrelevant.
b. They frame development but do not influence it.
c. They are external variables that impinge on the developing person.
d. They are integral to development.

133
Q

According to Vygotsky, novices learn from mentors through a process termed an apprenticeship in:
a. career selection.
b. learning.
c. thinking.
d. development.

A

c. thinking.

134
Q

ygotsky was particularly interested in the development of:
a. cognitive competencies.
b. family relationships.
c. genetic adaptations.
d. self-efficacy

135
Q

Mr. McGinty works with his child, Edward, to put together a new puzzle. Each time Edward tries the
puzzle, his father helps him less and less, and he requires less help from his father. This example best
supports the view of development put forth by:
a. Piaget.
b. Vygotsky.
c. Skinner.
d. Freud.

A

b. Vygotsky.

136
Q

Epigenetic theory holds that:

a. environmental influences are much more important than genetics.
b. individuals can change their genes by behaving in particular ways.
c. every aspect of development is set in advance by genes.
d. all traits are influenced by genes.

A

d. all traits are influenced by genes.

137
Q

Which ofthe following is an example ofthe influence of an epigenetic factor?

a. School-age children who were well-nourished in infancy are more intelligent.
b. Only individuals with a gene for schizophrenia and a traumatic early life event are likely to
develop schizophrenia.
c. Teenagers who spend time with delinquent peers demonstrate more delinquency.
d. People who live in smog-filled cities and smoke are more likely to develop lung cancer

A

b. Only individuals with a gene for schizophrenia and a traumatic early life event are likely to
develop schizophrenia.

138
Q

The theory that most strongly emphasizes nurture as important in development is:
a. Piaget’s cognitive theory.
b. Erikson’s psychosocial theory.
c. epigenetic theory.
d. behaviorism

A

d. behaviorism

139
Q

When psychologists say that a given trait is due more to nature than nurture, they mean that the trait:
a. is universal; that is, it is found in everyone.
b. is a result of experiences.
c. is mostly influenced by the traits inherited at the moment of conception.
d. cannot be influenced by the environment.

A

c. is mostly influenced by the traits inherited at the moment of conception

140
Q

The dominant-recessive pattern is:
a. monozygotic.
b. dizygotic.
c. additive.
d. nonadditive

A

d. nonadditive

141
Q

The difference between additive and nonadditive genetic patterns is whether:
a. they are present in twins.
b. the trait is observable.
c. all alleles contribute.
d. whether environment has an effect.

A

Imagine that eye color is determined by only one pair of genes and that brown eyes are dominant over
blue eyes. If you are blue-eyed and both your parents are brown-eyed, you know that:
a. you have at least one gene for brown eyes.
b. all your siblings will be brown-eyed.
c. both your parents are carriers for blue eyes.
d. you were adopted.

142
Q

Imagine that eye color is determined by only one pair of genes and that brown eyes are dominant over
blue eyes. If you are blue-eyed and both your parents are brown-eyed, you know that:
a. you have at least one gene for brown eyes.
b. all your siblings will be brown-eyed.
c. both your parents are carriers for blue eyes.
d. you were adopted.

A

b. all your siblings will be brown-eyed.
c. both your parents are carriers for blue eyes.

143
Q

You can be a carrier of a recessive gene as part of your:
a. genotype.
b. phenotype.
c. nurture.
d. genotype and phenotype

A

a. genotype. a. genotype.

144
Q

Color blindness is more common among males because;
a. most color blindness is inherited by a recessive gene on the X chromosome.
b. males have only one Y chromosome.
c. most color blindness is inherited by a recessive gene on the Y chromosome.
d. the gene for color blindness is a dominant gene

145
Q

Recessive X-linked genes are:
a. more likely to be expressed in a man’s phenotype.
b. more likely to be expressed in a woman’s phenotype.
c. carried on all chromosomes.
d. never expressed in a phenotype.

A

a. more likely to be expressed in a man’s phenotype.

146
Q

Boys can inherit an X-linked trait from their:
a. mother only.
b. father only.
c. mother or father.
d. father’s mother only.

A

a. Mother only

147
Q

The recessive gene for a certain learning disability is X-linked. This means that.
a. females are twice as likely as males to have this disability.
b. females will have this disability only ifthey inherit the gene from both parents.
c. males will have this disability only ifthey inherit the gene from both parents.
d. males can carry for the gene but will not have the disability

A

. females are twice as likely as males to have this disability.

148
Q

Which ofthe following is most associated with chromosomal abnormalities?
a. paternal age
b. maternal age
c. environmental agents
d. none ofthe above

149
Q

Which ofthe following statements helps to explain why many more people carry abnormal genes than
are affected by them?
a. Many genetic problems are recessive.
b. Good medical care prevents their expression.
c. Most genetic disorders are phenotypic.
d. Many genetic diseases are dominant.

A

a. Many genetic problems are recessive