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GI/Nutrition > Test 1 (Week 2) > Flashcards

Test 1 (Week 2) Flashcards

1
Q

How do you diagnose Entamoeba histolytica?

A

serology and/or trophozoites with RBCs in the cytoplasm or cysts with up to 4 nuclei in the stool

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2
Q

What are the side effects of the chronic use of antacids?

A

o Alkaluria–> kidney stones

o Na+ content can be high= fluid retention = Caution in CHF and hypertensive patients

o Drug interactions due to altered gastric and urinary pH

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3
Q

What’s the treatment for all tapeworms (cestodes)?

A

Niclosamide or Praziquantel

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4
Q

What is the most common cause of severe diarrhea in infants and young children?

A

rotavirus

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5
Q

What’s the MOA of cholera toxin?

A

ADP-ribosylates adenylate cyclase= increased cAMP = extreme water secretion (diarrhea)

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6
Q

egg with lateral spine protrusion

A

schistosoma mansoni

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7
Q

What’s the virulence factor of H pylori?

A

urease

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8
Q

Which vibrio species can cause a septicemia that has a 50% mortality rate?

A

vibrio vulnificus

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9
Q

Describe the morphology of vibrio cholerae

A

gram negative rod that is slightly curved (comma shaped)

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10
Q

What’s the most important regulator of gastric acid production?

A

histamine

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11
Q

What’s the treatment for enterobius vermicularis (pinworm)?

A

bendazoles and Pyrantel pamoate

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12
Q

How do you get a Taenia solium tapeworm?

A

ingestion of larvae in undercooked pork

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13
Q

What’s the treatment for EHEC?

A

fluid and electrolyte replacement; avoid antibiotics which will lyse cells and release shiga toxin

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14
Q

The LT (heat labile toxin) of enterotoxigenic e. coli triggers ____.

A

adenylyl cyclase

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15
Q

what kind of vaccines are available for rotavirus?

A

live attenuated vaccines

  • RotaTeq
  • Rotarix
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16
Q

see hematuria or squamous cell bladder cancer, think:

A

schistosoma haematobium

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17
Q

Diagnose this.

A

criptosporidium

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18
Q

How does rotavirus cause watery diarrhea?

A

villous destruction with atrophy leads to decreased absorption of Na+ and loss of K+

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19
Q

Infection with Necator americanus or Ancylostoma duodenale typically occurs through ____.

A

penetration of the skin on the soles of the feet

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20
Q

How does one acquire listeria monocytogenes?

A

ingestion of unpasteurized dairy products and cold deli meats

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21
Q

Responsible for over 90% of outbreaks of diarrheal illnesses on cruise ships

A

calicivirus

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22
Q

What’s another name for Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale?

A

hookworm

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23
Q

Which cestode (tapeworm) do you get from ingesting its larvae from raw freshwater fish?

A

diphyllobothrium latum

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24
Q

What’s the suffix for all histamine receptor (H2) antagonist ?

A

-tidine

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25
Q

How do you get infected with trichinella spiralis?

A

consumption of undercooked meat

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26
Q

What’s a common secondary problem of EHEC disease caused by shiga toxin?

A

hemolytic uremic syndrome

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27
Q

can produce soft tissue calcifications the size of rice grains (seen on xray)

A

taenia solium

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28
Q

Describe the morphology of campylobacter jejuni.

A

gram negative curved rod

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29
Q

What do PPI’s need for activation?

A

an acidic environment

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30
Q

What disease is caused by infection with echinococcus granulosus?

A

hydatid cysts in liver or lungs that will cause anaphylaxis if antigens released (have to inject the cyst with formalin, ethanol, or hypertonic saline to kill daughter cells before removal)

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31
Q

What are some more serious consequences of Trichuris trichina infection?

A

appendicitis and prolapsed rectum

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32
Q

What’s the MOA of PPI’s?

A

suicide inhibitor of H+/K+ ATPase

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33
Q

How does Clostridium perfringens cause gas gangrene?

A

α-Toxin (lecithinase) and µ-Toxin (hyaluronidase)

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34
Q

How do you make a diagnosis of trichinella spiralis?

A

muscle biopsy will reveal cysts with larvae/worm inside of it

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35
Q

How do you get a taenia solium tape worm?

A

ingestion of undercooked pork

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36
Q

what’s the treatment for rotavirus infection?

A

–Provide supportive therapy (oral or i.v. electrolytes) to prevent dehydration

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37
Q

What’s the treatment for Necator americanus or Ancylostoma duodenale?

A

bendazoles and pyrantel pamoate

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38
Q

What’s the treatment for wuchereria bancrofti ?

A

diethylcarbamazine

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39
Q

which types of e coli form pedestals?

A

EHEC – Enterohaemorrhagic E. coli EPEC – Enteropathogenic E. coli

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40
Q

What are the side effects of Misoprostol?

A

diarrhea. contraindicated in women of childbearing potential (abortifacient due to uterine contractions)

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41
Q

What’s the MOA of Bismuth ____ (fill in the blank with all the different combos that follow bismuth)?

A

increase mucosal secretion, coat ulcer, thus, cytoprotection; cause detachment of H. pylori from gastric epithelium and lysis of bacterium

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42
Q

Infection with trichinella spiralis can cause inflammation of striated muscle. How?

A

larvae enter bloodstream encyst in striated muscle cells

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43
Q

see microcytic anemia, think:

A

ancylostoma or necator

44
Q

what’s the most common calicivirus?

A

norovirus

45
Q

What disease does trichinella spiralis cause and what are the symptoms of this disease?

A

causes trichinosis. = fever, vomiting, nausea, periorbital edema, myalgias

46
Q

What are the side effects of H2 receptor antagonists?

A

diarrhea, dizziness, somnolence, headache (more common in elderly)

47
Q

What’s the mechanism of action of misoprostol?

A

a PGE1 analog. increases production and secretion of gastric mucous barrier, decreases acid production

48
Q

What’s the 3 drug cocktail given to wipe out H pylori infection?

A

1) PPI 2) amoxicillin 3) clarithromycin

49
Q

What’s the treatment for Giardia lamblia infection?

A

metronidazole

50
Q

Which PPI inhibits CYP2C19 the least?

A

pantoprazole

51
Q

What’s the treatment for listeria monocytogenes infection?

A

ampicillin

52
Q

What receptor does ACh bind to on a parietal cell?

A

M3 receptor

53
Q

How do you treat cryptosporidium?

A

nitazoxanide

54
Q

What’s the MOA of sucralfate?

A

coats ulcer, acid/pepsin barrier; binds preferentially to ulcer, no anti-acid effect; may stimulate prostaglandin E synthesis; activated by acid environment

55
Q

Make the diagnosis.

A

Entamoeba histolytica

56
Q

What deos infection with Giardia lamblia cause?

A

bloating, flatulence, foul-smelling, steatorrhea

often seen in campers/hikers

57
Q

What gram positive pathogen can cause severe food borne disease?

A

listeria monocytogenes

58
Q

What are the key virulence factors for EHEC (O157:H7)?

A

-type III secretion system (needle like structure, injected bacterial proteins into host cells) -shiga like toxin (binds 60s subunit and prevents protein synthesis)

59
Q

round body egg with no protrusions

A

schistosoma japonicum

60
Q

see liver (hydatid) cysts, think:

A

echinococcus granulosus

61
Q

The ST (heat stable toxin) of enterotoxigenic e. coli triggers ____.

A

guanylyl cyclase

62
Q

Where do carriers of salmonella typhi carry the organism?

A

in gall bladder

63
Q

this organism causes severe diarrhea in AIDS patients

A

cryptosporidium

64
Q

What are some side effects of PPIs?

A

-nausea, diarrhea, headache -“bacterial bloom” in stomach -increase osteoporosis and risk of fractures in older pts who have had long term therapy with PPIs

65
Q

Which adenovirus serotypes cause diarrhea in children under 2 years of age?

A

serotypes 40 and 41

66
Q

see perianal pruritius, think:

A

enterobius vermicularis

67
Q

What can chronic infection with Necator americanus or Ancylostoma duodenale cause?

A

iron deficiency anemia (they are blood suckers)

68
Q

see vitamin B12 deficiency, thinK:

A

diphyllobothrium latum

69
Q

Trichuris trichiura is also called _____.

A

whipworm

70
Q

How do you diagnose cryptosporidium?

A

oocysts on acid fast stain

71
Q

How is enterobius vermicularis (pinworm) diagnosed?

A

see eggs on scotch tape test

72
Q

What’s the treatment for Strongyloides stercoralis?

A

ivermectin and bendazoles

73
Q

What’s the treatment for Entamoeba histolytica infection?

A

metronidazole, iodoquinol, and paromycin

74
Q

What can long term infection with wuchereria bancrofti cause? How?

A

elephantiasis; worm blocks lymphatic vessels= fluid filled extremities

75
Q

Heavy worm burden with Ascaris lumbricoides can lead to what?

A

possible obstruction at ileocecal valve

76
Q

What can having a diphyllobothrium latum tapeworm result in?

A

megaloblastic anemia b/c it competes for B12 in your intestines

77
Q

What receptor does gastrin bind to on a parietal cell?

A

CCK2 receptor also binds to CCK2 receptor on ECL cells

78
Q

egg that has a terminal spine

A

schistosoma haematobium

79
Q

What are the side effects of sucralfate?

A

side effects: dry mouth, constipation, decreases bioavailability of tetracycline, pheny- toin, digoxin, cimetidine

80
Q

Which cytochrome do PPI’s inhibit?

A

CYP2C19 Omeprazole is the worst about doing this. He made a special point to never use omeprazole with CLOPIDOGREL b/c of this

81
Q

Why are PPIs such long acting drugs?

A

in order for the parietal cell to recover from the PPI and make more acid, it has to make all new H+/K+ ATPase enzymes and insert them into the membrane

82
Q

What causes gas gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

83
Q

What does infection with Entamoeba histolytica cause?

A

amebiasis- bloody diarrhea, and liver abscesses

84
Q

Is E. Coli lactose positive or negative?

A

positive turns pink on MacConkey agar

85
Q

What’s the treatment for echinococcus granulosus infection?

A

•Albendazole or Praziquantel

86
Q

Describe how enteroinvasive e. coli (shigella) invades epithelial cells?

A

invades M cells, transcytosis, then invades macrophages, then escapes and is phagocytized by epithelial cells

87
Q

What dermatologic feature is present in some cases of typhoid fever?

A

rose spots

88
Q

What’s the most common trigger for Gullan-Barre syndrome?

A

campylobacter jejuni infection

89
Q

What does ingestion of taenia solium eggs cause?

A

cysticercosis or neurocysticercosis

90
Q

Make the diagnosis.

A

giardia

91
Q

see portal hypertension, think:

A

schistosoma mansoni, schistosoma japonicum

92
Q

What’s the treatment for schistosomas?

A

praziquantel

93
Q

What’s the most effective antacid combo?

A

aluminum and magnesium mixes

94
Q

What’s the treatment for Ascaris lumbricoides?

A

bendazoles and pyrantel pamoate

95
Q

How is wuchereria bancrofti transmitted?

A

mosquito

96
Q

What’s the treatment for Taenia solium infection?

A
  • Albendazole
  • Praziquantel
97
Q

The only bacteria that form spores are _____.

A

gram positive rods

98
Q

What does infection with schistosoma mansoni and S. japonicum result in?

A

liver and spleen enlargment that can lead to portal hypertension

99
Q

see brain cysts, seizure, think:

A

taenia solium

100
Q

What can chronic infection with schistosoma haematobium lead to?

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder

101
Q

How do you treat infections with trichinella spiralis?

A

bendazoles

102
Q

What’s the suffix for all proton pump inhibitors?

A

-PRazole

the PR part is emphasized, b/c without it, you are looking at an anti-fungi drug, not a PPI

103
Q

How do you get infected with echinococcus granulosus?

A

ingestion of eggs from dog feces

104
Q

What disease is caused by enterotoxigenic e. coli (ETEC)?

A

traveler’s diarrhea (montezuma’s revenge)

105
Q

causes non malodorous “rice-water” diarrhea.

A

vibrio cholerae

GI/Nutrition (4 decks)

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