Test 1 (Week 1) Flashcards
(224 cards)
1
Q
What stimulates release of GIP?
A
fatty acids, amino acids, oral glucose
2
Q
What stimulates release of GLP-1?
A
glucose, amino acids, small peptides, fatty acids
3
Q
What are the 4 basic layers of GI tract ‘tube’.
A
-Mucosa -Submucosa -Muscular -Adventitia
4
Q
What stimulates release of Gastrin?
A
stomach distention and protein digestion products (small peptides, amino acids)
5
Q
H pylori infection is associated with a ____ risk of GERD.
A
decreased
6
Q
What cell type lines the beginning of the stomach to the pectinate line in the rectum?
A
simple columnar epithelium
after pectinate line, it changes to stratified squamous epithelium
7
Q
What’s the function of the myenteric plexus?
A
controls gut motility (can have both stimulatory and inhibitory influences)
8
Q
What do mucous salivary secretions contain?
A
contains mucins (glycoproteins that are important for lubrication and protection of mucosal surfaces)
9
Q
What supplies parasympathetic innervation of the GI tract?
A
vagus and pelvic splanchnic
10
Q
What are the 2 components of the enteric nervous system?
A
-Meissner’s (submucosal) plexus -Auerbach’s (myenteric) plexus
11
Q
Describe the Gastroileal reflex.
A
gastric distention relaxes ileocecal sphincter and increases ileal motility
12
Q
What’s the treatment for bacterial pharyngitis?
A
often strep pyogenes as culprit; self resolves but treat to prevent complications (rheumatic fever) with penicillin, cephalosporins, or amoxicillin
13
Q
What is the #1 risk factor for leuko/erythro plakias and what can the develop in to?
A
tobacco use; squamous cell carcinoma
14
Q
What’s the mainstay therapy for GERD?
A
proton pump inhibitors
15
Q
What are the basic taste sensations?
A
sweet, sour, salty, bitter
16
Q
What are the 3 main branches of the celiac trunk?
A
left gastric, splenic, common hepatic
17
Q
Where is ghrelin released and what does it do?
A
produced by stomach; stimulates appetite, food intake, and fat deposition. Potent stimulator of growth hormone secretion
18
Q
What structures are contained within the hepatoduodenal ligament?
A
portal triad: proper hepatic artery, portal vein, common bile duct
19
Q
Indirect inguinal hernias exit ___ to the inferior epigastric vessels.
A
lateral
20
Q
What is the largest salivary gland?
A
parotid
21
Q
where do hepatic sinusoids drain to?
A
central vein
22
Q
Through which inguinal ring will indirect hernias pass through?
A
deep inguinal ring
23
Q
Which Parasympathetic ganglia stimulate the secretion from the parotid gland?
A
otic ganglion
24
Q
NSAID overuse is a common cause of gastric ulcers. What’s the mechanism by which this happens?
A
NSAIDs inhibit the production of prostaglandins in the gastric mucosa. Prostaglandins normally function to protect the gastric mucosa [via mucus production, bicarb secretion, and local vasodilation]
25
From what cells do gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) arise from?
interstitial cells of Cajal (pacemaker cells) GIST are most common mesenchymal tumors of the abdomen
26
What are the 3 common translocations seen in gastric lymphomas?
t(11;18) t(1;14) t(14;18)
27
At what vertebral level does the esophagus enter the abdomen?
T10
28
Most common salivary gland tumor
pleomorphic adenoma it's benign
29
which exocrine glands are called compound glands?
glands with branched ducts
30
What's the mechanism of action phenothiazines (all end with -azine) and benzamides (end in -amide)?
block D2 (dopamine) receptors; most also have anticholinergic effects
31
What is the muscle type found in the lower third of the esophagus?
smooth muscle
32
What are some common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?
-H. pylori infection -NSAIDs -Age -Smoking
33
What's the classic antihistaminergic used to treat motion sickness?
dimenhydrinate (dramamine)
34
What inhibits release of somatostatin?
vagal stimulation
35
What's the treatment for candidiasis infection?
-oral nystatin (swish and spit/swallow) -fluconazole -IV amphotericin B (extreme cases)
36
What is the endocrine portion of the pancreas?
islets of langerhans
37
What are the inhibitory neurotransmitters of the enteric nervous system?
VIP (vasoactive intestinal polypeptide) and NO
38
What stimulates release of somatostatin?
acid
39
What causes Budd-Chiari syndrome?
occlusion of IVC or hepatic vein that leads to back up of blood to central vein with centrilobar congestion
40
What causes annular pancreas?
the ventral bud of the pancreas splits and reforms around the duodenum (constricting it)
41
how many slow waves will the colon produce per minute?
3-12
42
Describe the enterogastric reflex.
duodenal stretch and chemoreceptors signal the stomach to optimize digestion and absorption
43
At what part of the esophagus do Zenker's diverticulum usually occur?
Killian triangle
44
What's the metastatic potential of Type III carcinoid tumors?
\>50%
45
GI smooth muscle functions as a \_\_\_\_\_\_.
syncytium; large areas of smooth muscle contract as a single unit
46
Approximately 95% of the bile salts secreted are reabsorbed in the \_\_\_\_\_.
terminal ileum
47
Which liver zone is closest to the portal triads?
zone 1
48
What's the mechanism by which viral gastroenteritis causes nausea and vomiting?
Viral infection and inflammation of gastric mucosa stimulate afferent nerve fibers in the stomach which are transmitted primarily via the vagus nerve, to the NTS resulting in nausea and vomiting Serotonin released by NTS neurons triggers dopamine release in the emetic center (via D2 receptors)
49
What med is given to treat carcinoid syndrome?
octreotide (a somatostatin analog)
50
slow undulating changes in resting membrane potential
slow waves
51
What cell type lines oral cavity to end of esophagus?
stratified squamous epithelium
52
What's the role of intrinsic factor secreted by parietal cells of the stomach?
helps in vitamin B12 absorption which is important for maturation of RBCs (deficiency of intrinsic factor= pernicious anemia)
53
What inhibits activation of the emesis center?
endocannabinoids
54
What is the lining epithelium of the esophagus?
stratified squamous
55
Describe the intrinsic defecation reflex.
It is mediated entirely by the ENS. Rectal distention initiates afferent signals that spread through the myenteric plexus to descending and sigmoid colon and rectum. This causes contractions that force feces towards the anus.
56
Acute onset vomiting (within first 24 hours after beginning chemotherapy) is mostly mediated by what neurotransmitter?
serotonin (acts to increase release of dopamine)
57
What causes eosinophilic esophagitis?
thought to represent an allergic process, triggered by antigens in foods
58
H. pylori is strongly associated with peptic ulcer disease. How does the organism survive in the deeper layers of gastric mucus?
produces urease which cleaves urea to ammonia--\> alkalinize their immediate environment
59
What is gastroschisis?
failure of body wall closure followed by gut herniation
60
What's the purpose of migrating motor complexes (MMC)?
Sweep HCl and undigested residues toward colon and maintains low bacterial counts in upper small intestine (minimizes bacterial overgrowth)
61
Which lingual papillae does not have taste buds?
filiform papillae
62
Where is somatostatin released from and what does it do?
D cells in pancreatic islets and GI mucosa; inhibits release of ALL gut hormones
63
Describe the gastrocolic reflex.
presence of food in the stomach initiates peristalsis and movement of feces into the rectum
64
What are the major salivary glands?
parotid, submandibular, and sublingual
65
Describe receptive relaxation.
relaxation of tonically contracted smooth muscle of orad stomach (fundus, upper part of body of stomach) carried out by NO and vasoactive intestinal polypeptide (VIP)
66
What are pyogenic granulomas composed of?
blood vessels and inflammation=granulation tissue
67
What causes Achalasia and what is it associated with?
failure of relaxation of lower esophageal sphincter (LES) due to loss of myenteric plexus; associated with increased risk of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma
68
What characterizes the defecation process in patients with spinal cord injuries?
Characterized by: prolonged colonic transit time and absence of high amplitude propagating contractions
69
When can you not use PT or PTT?
when the patient is on anticoagulants
or when patient has DIC or vitamin K deficiency
warfarin specifically extends PT
70
What are the excitatory neurotransmitters of the enteric nervous system?
ACh and substance P
71
What kind of ulcers are seen on endoscopy of patients with CMV esophagitis?
serpiginous ulcers
72
What meds are given to prevent chemo nausea/vomiting that work by substance P blockade?
Aprepitant
73
What enzyme breaks down triglycerides into 2-monoglyceride and free fatty acids?
pancreatic lipase
74
Which neurotransmitter activates the emesis center?
dopamine
75
blood supply of hindgut
IMA (comes off abdominal aorta at L3)
76
how many slow waves will the duodenum produce per minute?
12
77
blood supply of midgut
SMA (comes off abdominal aorta at L1)
78
What do acinar cells have that centroacinar cells don't?
secretory vesicles
79
The spleen is derived from \_\_\_\_.
mesenchymal tissue
80
What stimulates release of CCK?
fatty acids or monoglycerides, small peptides and amino acids
81
Where is GIP (glucose dependent insulinotropic peptide) released from and what does it do?
released from K cells in duodenum and jejunum; stimulates insulin release and inhibits gastric acid secretion
82
Delayed onset vomiting (begins more than 24 hours after starting chemotherapy) is mostly mediated by what neurotransmitter?
substance P
83
What causes Hirschsprungs Disease?
failure of neural crest cell migration; a section of the colon will lack ganglionic cells and will therefore be unable to relax. Normal colon proximal to the aganglionic segment will be dilated since feces can't pass this point
84
What meds are given to prevent chemo nausea/vomiting that work by serotonin blockade?
ondansetron and granisetron
85
In which part of the esophagus do squamous cell carcinomas most often arise? Adenocarcinomas?
squamous=middle third adenocarcinoma= lower third
86
What do serous salivary secretions contain?
watery secretion containing an alpha-amylase (ptyalin) that hydrolyzes starch
87
pain with swallowing
odynophagia
88
characterized by serpiginous ulcers especially in the distal esophagus
CMV esophagitis
89
What are the common causes of peptic ulcer disease?
-hypersecretion of HCl -helicobacter pylori infection -abuse of NSAIDs
90
What supplies sympathetic innervation of the GI tract?
thoracic and lumbar splanchnic
91
What genetic abnormality is present in a lot of gastric cancer cases?
E-cadherin (CHD1) gene mutation [p53 mutation is often present too, but who cares]
92
Where is the myenteric plexus located?
between longitudinal and circular smooth muscle layers
93
Where is alcohol absorbed?
stomach
94
What's the purpose of propulsive movements?
move feces to the rectum and stimulate the defecation reflex
95
What stimulates motilin release?
increased in fasting state; under neural control
96
What's the function of the submucosal plexus?
local control of: secretion, absorption, and contraction of muscular mucosa
97
What are the "Rules of 2" for Meckel's diverticulum?
2 inches long 2% of population 2 feet from ileocecal valve presents in first 2 years of life May have 2 epithelia (gastric/pancreatic)
98
In which quadrant does most of the jejunum lie?
left upper quadrant
99
What's different about the wall of the gall bladder when comparing it to the tube wall of the rest of the GI system?
it has no submucosa. so only 3 layers
100
What are the functions of a striated duct?
reabsorption of Na+ and secretion of K+ and HCO3-
101
Where is gastrin released from and what does it do?
released from G cells (anrum of stomach and duodenum); triggers release of gastric acid (HCl) from parietal cells of the stomach and also stimulates growth of gastric mucosa
102
Leukoplakia is precancerous \_\_\_% of the time.
25%
103
Where are the circumvallate papillae located?
In the anterior two third of dorsal surface of tongue in front of sulcus terminalis
104
how many slow waves will the ileum produce per minute?
8
105
In Barrett's esophagus, what type of epithelium replaces the normal epithelium of the esophagus?
simple columnar
106
The severity of pregnancy induced nausea seems to correlate with _____ levels.
serum HCG levels
107
which salivary gland tumor is strongly associated with smoking?
Warthin tumors
108
What is the exocrine portion of the pancreas?
composed of pancreatic acini
109
how many slow waves will the jejunum produce per minute?
10
110
What are the factors that inhibit saliva secretion?
sleep, fatigue, fear
111
What is the ventral mesentery derived from?
septum transversum
112
What causes pyloric stenosis and how does it present?
caused by hypertrophy of pyloric muscles of stomach presents with projectile, non-bilious vomiting in newborns after eating and can have palpable olive size mass at right costal margin in epigastric region
113
Gastrin and ACh stimulate histamine release from _____ cells.
enterochromaffin like cells
114
Through which inguinal ring will direct hernias pass through?
superficial inguinal ring
115
Pleomorphic adenomas are benign but they can develop into \_\_\_\_.
malignant mixed tumors
116
What is the single most important process in the small intestine that enables absorption?
establishment of a Sodium electrochemical gradient across the epithelial cell boundary of the lumen (apical membrane)
117
Presents with severe regurgitation and nonbilious projectile vomiting at 2-3 weeks old
hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
118
What injuries/diseases effect zone 3 of the liver?
toxins (alcohol, tylenol) and ischemic injury (b/c it's furthest from hepatic arteries)
119
Which Parasympathetic ganglia stimulate the secretion from the submandibular gland?
submandibular ganglion
120
What's the most important factor for increasing small intestine surface area?
microvilli
121
Where is cobalamin (B12) absorbed?
terminal ileum
122
What are some distinguishing features between jejunum and ileum?
Ileum has more arterial cascades, shorter vasa recta, fewer plica (foldings), and more mesenteric fat
123
Describe the enterogastric reflex.
acidic pH in stomach or duodenum decreases gastric production of HCl, gastric motility, and gastric emptying
124
What is the primary function of the small intestine?
digestion and nutrient absorption
125
What do chief cells secrete?
pepsinogen
126
In what patient population are pyogenic granulomas more common?
young people and pregnant women
127
What are the retroperitoneal structures?
SADPUCKER Suprarenal gland Aorta and IVC Duodenum (2nd-4th part) Pancreas (except tail) Ureters Colon (descending & ascending) Kidney Esophagus (thoracic portion) Rectum (partial)
128
What structures comprise the borders of Hasselbach triangle?
-inferior epigastric -rectus abdominus - inguinal ligament
129
What do Paneth cells secrete?
-TNF-alpha -lysozyme -defensin
130
What injuries/diseases effect zone 2 of the liver?
yellow fever necrosis
131
How do babies with annular pancreas present?
--Newborns are intolerant of feeding and have vomiting. --Can be bilious containing vomit if the obstruction is distal to the bile duct.
132
What inhibits release of gastrin?
acidification of antrum (pH \<1.5)
133
Describe the vagovagal reflex.
when food enters the stomach, stretch signals are sent via afferent fibers to the CNS. CNS then sends back an efferent signal to the stomach telling it to relax and accommodate the food. This is a big deal if vagal innervation is blocked. Your stomach intra gastric pressure would rise b/c you would never relax your stomach to accommodate the food you just ate
134
Describe pain reflexes.
lead to an overall inhibition of GI tract functioning
135
How do glucose and galactose enter an intestinal enterocyte?
secondary active transport via SGLT1; does not require energy, just a concentration gradient
136
Describe the 'Incretin effect'
Amplification of insulin secretion elicited by hormones secreted from the GI tract
137
What are some common GERD risk factors?
Smoking Alcohol Caffeine Fatty foods Chocolate
138
What are the 3 major functions of gastric acid?
1) bacteriostatic 2) converts pepsinogen to pepsin 3) initiates protein digestion (in concert w/ pepsin)
139
How does fructose enter an intestinal enterocyte?
facilitated diffusion via GLUT5; does not require energy, just a concentration gradient
140
Liver growth into the septum transversum separates the ventral mesentery into two parts:
lesser omentum and falciform ligament
141
Which salivary gland has purely serious secretion?
parotid
142
How does scopolamine work?
Potent anticholinergic medication, administered transdermally, generally used at times when patient knows they will be in situations likely to trigger nausea (such as when flying). use prophylactically
143
What's different about nausea and vomiting caused by motion sickness?
-Neurons transmit signals from the vestibular system to the NTS; these inputs depend much more on histaminergic (H1-receptors) and muscarinic (M1-receptors) transmission of signals than neurons from other areas. -Treatments are different
144
What's the mechanism by which gastric outlet obstruction causes nausea and vomiting?
Distension of the gastric antrum activates mechanoreceptors which trigger afferent nerve fibers that travel via the vagus nerve (mostly) and transmit the signal to the NTS
Serotonin released by NTS neurons triggers dopamine release in the emetic center (via D2 receptors)
145
"dry mouth"
xerostomia
146
What's the treatment for HSV infections?
self limited; acyclovir or valacyclovir reduces pain and morbidity
147
What are mucoepidermoid carcinomas composed of?
mucuous cells and epidermal cells mucoepidermoid. duh.
148
Peptic ulcer disease includes both gastric and duodenal ulcers. Which are much more likely to be associated with underlying malignancy?
gastric ulcers
149
Describe the defecation reflex at the spinal cord.
Rectal distention also initiates this reflex. Afferent signals go to sacral cord and then back to the descending and sigmoid colon, and rectum by way of parasympathetic fibers in pelvic nerves. It greatly intensifies the intrinsic reflex
150
What injuries/diseases affect zone 1 of the liver?
viral hepatitis injuries
151
Which portion of the small intestine is the major site of nutrient absorption?
jejunum
152
What's the hallmark of pancreatic acini?
centroacinar cells
153
What structures comprise the border of the femoral triangle?
-sartorius -inguinal ligament -adductor longus
154
What are the clinical features of Budd-Chiari syndrome?
-painful hepatomegaly -ascites -liver failure -varices
155
In Barrett's esophagus, the risk of dysplasia is proportional to the \_\_\_\_.
length of Barrett's \>3cm= ++++ risk
156
About 95% of secreted bile salts are reabsorbed and recycled via 4 mechanisms. Which one plays the biggest role?
carrier mediated active absorption in the terminal ileum
157
where is cholecystokinin (CCK) released from and what does it do?
released from I cells (duodenum and jejunum); potent stimulator of pancreatic enzyme secretion, inhibits gastric emptying, and empties gall bladder by causing gall bladder to contract and sphincter of Oddi to relax
158
Which salivary tumor is unique in that it can present bilaterally?
Warthin tumor
159
impaired motility of the stomach
gastroparesis thought to be due to damage/destruction of neurons of the myenteric plexus
160
Where is secretin released from and what does it do?
released from S cells in the mucosa of duodenum and jejunum; "nature's anti-acid"--\> inhibits gastric acid secretion and stimulates pancreatic bicarb secretion
161
In which developmental abnormality, omphalocele or gastroschisis, is the gut tissue covered by amnion?
omphalocele; amnion covers the umbilical cord into which the gut herniates
162
Direct inguinal hernias exit ____ to the inferior epigastric vessels.
medial
163
What do delta cells (5%) of islets of langerhans cells secrete?
somatostatin
164
What is omphalocele?
failure of the gut to return to the peritoneal cavity after umbilical herniation
165
What is seen radiographically with a patient who has annular pancreas?
"double bubble sign" --gaseous dilation of the stomach and proximal duodenum
166
What kind of ulcers are seen on endoscopy of patients with HSV esophagitis?
punched out ulcers
167
how many slow waves will the stomach produce per minute?
3
168
In what region of the gall bladder will you find mucous glands?
neck of the gall bladder
169
What do beta cells (70%) of islets of langerhans cells secrete?
insulin
170
Which protein has a long half life and is therefore best used to measure chronic liver disease?
albumin (made by liver)
171
Where is motilin released from and what does it do?
M cells in duodenum and jejunum; stimulates upper GI motility = produces migrating motor complexes (MMCs)
172
For salivary gland tumors, malignant potential is inversely proportional to \_\_\_\_.
gland size
parotid=likely benign
sublingual=likely malignant
173
What genetic (molecular) abnormalities are common in gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)?
gain of function mutations in KIT (75-80%) and PDGRA (8%)
174
describe the colonoileal reflex
filling of the colon inhibits the motility of the ileum
175
which clotting factor has the shortest half life and is therefore best used to measure acute liver injury?
factor 7
176
what determines the strength of GI smooth muscle contraction?
frequency of spike potentials
177
Where are Peyer's patches mainly found?
ileum
178
What does histamine do in the GI tract?
stimulates gastric acid secretion by acting on parietal cells of the stomach
179
What are the types of lingual papillae found in the adult tongue?
Filiform papillae, Fungiform papillae, Circumvallate papillae
180
In which quadrant does most of the ileum lie?
right lower quadrant
181
What are the two most important incretins?
GIP and GLP-1
182
Describe the cribriform pattern of adenoid cystic carcinomas.
a sheet of tumor cells that have small punched out, round spaces. these spaces are filled with basement membrane substance
183
Paneth cells are found in the small intestine. What role do they play?
Paneth cells provide defense to GI tract
184
What do Parietal cells secrete?
HCl and intrinsic factor
185
Which salivary gland contributes the most to saliva secretion?
submandibular
186
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome associated with?
pregnancy, hyper coagulability, polycythemia vera, liver cancer
187
What do alpha cells (20%) of islets of langerhans cells secrete?
glucagon
188
inflammation of the salivary gland
sialadentis
189
Where is glucagon like peptide 1 (GLP-1) released from and what does it do?
L cells of small intestine; increases insulin secretion during hyperglycemia, increases satiety, decreases food intake, and inhibits gastric emptying and secretion
190
true action potentials, ultimately leads to a muscle contraction
spike potentials
191
What's the most common congenital anomaly of the GI tract? What causes it?
Meckel's Diverticulum; caused by persistence of vitelline duct
192
What's the primary function of the large intestine?
absorb water and electrolytes
193
What's the treatment for gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST)? think about meds in particular
-complete surgical resection \*\*- if metastatic, use imatinib (tyrosine kinase inhibitor). will really work if KIT or PDGFRA are mutated however, secondary mutations can lead to resistance so you may need to add another tyrosine kinase inhibitor
194
Which type of bilirubin are we able to directly measure?
conjugated bilirubin
195
What's the purpose of haustral contractions?
mixing movements that facilitate fluid and electrolyte absorption (they accomplish minimal propulsion)
196
What are the pacemaker cells of GI smooth muscle?
interstitial cells of cajal
197
What are the side effects of dopamine receptor blocking agents used to treat nausea and vomiting?
-Can cause side effects related to dopamine blockade, including dystonia (acutely) and tardive dyskinesia (with chronic use). -Also cause drowsiness
198
When do migrating motor complexes (MMC) occur?
occur between meals ---- inter-digestive state
199
Erythroplakia is precancerous \_\_\_% of the time.
50%
200
There are many triggers for nausea and vomiting. Where will all the paths eventually converge?
All pathways converge in the nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS) which then connects to the emetic center in the medulla
201
HCl secretion by parietal cells of the stomach is stimulated by:
-gastrin -histamine -Parasympathetic stimulation
202
Oral squamous cell carcinomas are often secondary to smoking, tobacco, or alcohol. What is a newer association?
HPV infection (16&18)
203
What kind of onset is typical of esophageal squamous cell carcinoma?
esophageal SCC has an insidious gradual nature
204
which enzyme initiates a cascade that activates all pancreatic proteases in the lumen of the small intestine?
enterokinase
205
what's the usual presentation of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
-peptic ulcer disease (ulcers can be in unusual location like distal duodenum) -erosive esophagitis -diarrhea
206
What do all gastric lymphoma translocations result in?
activation of NF-kappaB --\> promotes B cell growth and survival
207
Which clotting factors are measured by prothrombin time (PT)?
factors 7,10,5,2,1
7 is extrinsic pathway. all others are part of common pathway
208
HCl secretion by parietal cells of the stomach is inhibited by:
-somatostatin -prostaglandins -gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
209
Bilirubin is a product of heme metabolism from old blood cells. What does the liver do with bilirubin?
conjugates bilirubin so that it will be water soluble and capable of being excreted by the body in stool or urine
210
What does the falciform ligament connect?
liver to anterior abdominal wall
211
What is the importance of the tonic activity of the lower esophageal sphincter?
prevent reflux of gastric contents in to the esophagus
212
most common malignant tumor of the salivary glands
mucoepidermoid carcinoma
213
What med can be given to treat hepatic encephalopathy (sometimes as a result of TIPS procedure)?
Lactulose. it's an osmotic laxative that converts ammonia into ammonium (can't go back into blood). Gases terrible gas and diarrhea.
214
What causes Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
a tumor that secretes gastrin and thereby causes acid hypersecretion
215
What stimulates release of secretin?
acid in duodenum and fatty acids in lumen of duodenum/jejunum
216
blood supply of forgut
celiac trunk (comes off abdominal aorta at T12-L1)
217
What are the cell types found in a taste bud?
3 types; Taste cell, supporting cell and basal cell
218
What are the two main signals that stimulate secretion of pepsinogen?
1) vagal stimulation (ACh) 2) indirect response to gastrin [first aid says local acid]
219
Adenoid cystic carcinomas are rare. Unlike other salivary gland tumors, they are often painful. Why?
the tumor spreads via the nerves (which is highly unique)
220
fancy medical name for canker sores
aphthous ulcers or aphthous stomatitis
221
Where will you find Brunner's glands and what are their functions?
found in submucosa of duodenum; secrete alkaline mucus that neutralizes the acid chyme coming from the stomach, protecting the duodenum
222
HSV infected tissues show what histologically?
eosinophilic Cowdry's type A viral inclusion bodies
223
Which liver zone is closest to the central vein?
zone 3
224
Where is the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ)?
area postrema in the floor of the 4th ventricle
