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anp > TEST 1 MCQ : Intro-Tissue > Flashcards

TEST 1 MCQ : Intro-Tissue Flashcards

1
Q

Which term describes the process of examining cells or tissues to determine if they are abnormal or cancerous?

A. Immunohistochemistry
B. Flow cytometry
C. Histopathology
D. Cytology

A

C. Histopathology

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2
Q

Which branch of anatomy studies the structure of cells?

A. Gross anatomy
B. Surface anatomy
C. Cytology
D. Histology

A

C. Cytology

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3
Q

The study of the head and neck is an example of:

A. Systemic anatomy
B. Surface anatomy
C. Microscopic anatomy
D. Regional anatomy

A

D. Regional anatomy

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4
Q

What is the correct sequence of organisation levels from smallest to largest in the human body?

A. Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms
B. Organs, tissues, cells, organisms, organ systems
C. Cells, organs, tissues, organisms, organ systems
D. Tissues, organs, cells, organisms, organ systems

A

A. Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms

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5
Q

An example of an organ system in the human body is:

A. The respiratory system
B. The nervous system
C. The skeletal system
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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6
Q

The liver is primarily located in which abdominal region?

A. Right hypochondriac region
B. Epigastric region
C. Left lumbar region
D. Right hypogastric region

A

A. Right hypochondriac region

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7
Q

Which organ is located in the left hypochondrium region of the abdomen?

A. Spleen
B. Gallbladder
C. Appendix
D. Cecum

A

A. Spleen

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8
Q

In which abdominal region will you palpate for gastritis?

A. Epigastric region
B. Hypochondriac region
C. Umbilical region
D. Lumbar region

A

A. Epigastric region

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9
Q

Which of the following statement about the anatomical position is correct?

A. The body is lying face down with arms extended overhead
B. The body is lying face up with arms at the sides and palms facing backward
C. The body is standing upright with arms at the sides and palms facing forward
D. The body is sitting with legs crossed and arms crossed over the chest

A

C. The body is standing upright with arms at the sides and palms facing forward

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10
Q

If a patient is lying on their back with their face up, which position are they in?

A. Supine
B. Prone
C. Lateral
D. Trendelenburg

A

Supine

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11
Q

Which term describes a position closer to the midline of the body?

A. Lateral
B. Medial
C. Distal
D. Proximal

A

B. Medial

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12
Q

Which terms refers to a position closer to the surface of the body?

A. Deep
B. Inferior
C. Superficial
D. Superior

A

C. Superficial

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13
Q

Which directional term means “toward the head”?

A. Inferior
B. Caudal
C. Superior
D. Dorsal

A

C. Superior

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14
Q

If a structure is located on the back side of the body, it is referred to as:

A. Anterior
B. Ventral
C. Posterior
D. Medial

A

C. Posterior

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15
Q

The stomach is —- to the diaphragm

A. Superior
B. Inferior
C. Anterior
D. Posterior

A

B. Inferior

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16
Q

The fingers are — to the elbow

A. Proximal
B. Medial
C. Distal
D. Lateral

A

C. Distal

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17
Q

Which plane would best separate the cranial cavity from the thoracic cavity?

A. Transverse plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. Oblique plane

A

A. Transverse plane

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18
Q

An MRI scan shows the brain divided into anterior and posterior sections. Which plane was used to take this image?

A. Sagittal plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Transverse plane
D. Midsagittal plane

A

B. Coronal plane

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19
Q

A cross-sectional image of the leg, showing the muscles, bones, and blood vessels in a slice from top to bottom, is taken in which plane?

A. Transverse plane
B. Coronal plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. Oblique plane

A

A. Transverse plane

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20
Q

Which of the following is a primary mechanism by which homeostasis is maintained?

A. Positive feedback
B. Negative feedback
C. Hormonal imbalance
D. Neural desynchronisation

A

B. Negative feedback

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21
Q

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the pathway of a homeostatic control mechanism?

A. Effector–Control centre–Receptor
B. Receptor–Effector–Control centre
C. Control centre–Receptor–Effector
D. Receptor–Control centre–Effector

A

D. Receptor–Control centre–Effector

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22
Q

During thermoregulation, sweat glands act as:

A) Receptors
B) Control centre
C) Effectors
D) Stimuli

A

C) Effectors

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23
Q

Which of the following processes is an example of positive feedback?

A) Blood pressure regulation
B) Thermoregulation
C) Blood clotting
D) Blood sugar regulation

A

C) Blood clotting

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24
Q

Which of the following subatomic particles carries a positive charge?

a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutrons
d) Both a) and b)

A

a) protons

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25
Q

The mass number of an atom is equal to:

a) Number of protons
b) Number of neutrons
c) Number of protons + number of electrons
d) Number of protons + number of neutrons

A

d) Number of protons + number of neutrons

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26
Q

Which of the following Is a molecule of compound?

a) Oxygen (O2)
b) Hydrogen (H2)
c) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
d) Nitrogen (N2)

A

c) Carbon dioxide (CO2)

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27
Q

What are isotopes?

a) Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons
b) Atoms with the same number of protons and neutrons
c) Atoms with different numbers of protons and neutrons
d) Atoms with the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons

A

a) Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons

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28
Q

which of the following elements is considered inert?

a) oxygen
b) neon
c) hydrogen
d) sodium

A

b) neon

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29
Q

what type of ion is formed when an atom loses electrons?

a) Anion
b) Cation
c) Covalent ion
d) Ionic compound

A

b) Cation

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30
Q

What happens to electrons in an ionic bond?

a) they are shared equally between atoms
b) they are shared unequally between atoms
c) they are transferred from one atom to another

A

c) they are transferred from one atom to another

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31
Q

Which polysaccharide is primarily found in plants and serves as a structural component of cell walls?

a) glycogen
b) starch
c) cellulose
d) sucrose

A

c) cellulose

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32
Q

What is the main disaccharide formed by the combination of fructose and glucose?

a) sucrose
b) maltose
c) lactose
d) starch

A

a) sucrose

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33
Q

What are the building blocks of proteins?

a) nucleotides
b) monosaccharides
c) amino acids
d) fatty acids

A

c) amino acids

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34
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of proteins as mentioned in the information?

a) support
b) transport
c) energy storage
d) defense

A

c) energy storage

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35
Q

Which type of fat is typically solid at room temperature and is associated with increased risk of heart disease?

a) saturated fat
b) unsaturated fat
c) trans fat
d) monounsaturated fat

A

a) saturated fat

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36
Q

What are the primary elements found in lipids?

a) Carbon, Hydrogen, Oxygen
b) C, H. Nitrogen
c) C, N, O
d) H, O, Phosphorus

A

a) C, H, O

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37
Q

What is the function of DNA in living organisms?

A) It serves as the primary source of energy
B) It stores and transmits genetic information
C) It aids in protein synthesis
D) It regulates metabolic processes

A

b) it stores and transmits genetic information

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38
Q

What is the sugar component in RNA?

A) Ribose
B) Glucose
C) Deoxyribose
D) Sucrose

A

A) Ribose

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39
Q

What does ATP stand for?

a) Adenosine Triphosphonate
b) Adenosine Triglyceride
c) Adenosine Triphosphate
d) Adenosine Thiamine Phosphate

A

c) Adenosine Triphosphate

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40
Q

Which bond in ATP is broken to release energy?

a) Adenine-ribose bond
b) Ribose-phosphate bond
c) Phosphate-phosphate bond
d) Phosphate-adenine bond

A

c) Phosphate-phosphate bond

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41
Q

Main component of cell membrane is:

a) Phospholipid
b) Cholesterol
c) Glycoproteins
d) All of the above

A

a) Phospholipid

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42
Q

Which best describes the structure of a cell membrane?

a. bilayer of phospholipids
b. bilayer of protein layer

A

a. bilayer of phospholipids

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43
Q

Arrangement of phospholipid as a bilayer is because of the

a) Hydrophobic nature of the phospholipid’s heads
b) Hydrophobic nature of the phospholipid’s tails
c) Hydrophilic nature of the phospholipid’s tails

A

b) Hydrophobic nature of the phospholipid’s tails

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44
Q

Cell membrane transport where the solutes move from high to low concentration directly
across the plasma membrane is called

a) Simple diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Active channel transport
d) osmosis

A

a) Simple diffusion

45
Q

Cell membrane transport where the solutes move from high to low concentration directly
via channels is called

a) Simple diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Active channel transport
d) osmosis

A

b) Facilitated diffusion

46
Q

Facilitated diffusion across a membrane requires ______ and moves solutes ________ its
concentration gradient.

a. transport channels, up (against)
b. transport channels, down
c. energy, up
d. energy, down

A

b. transport channels, down

47
Q

The Potassium concentration in a cell is 20 times more than the concentration in the
surrounding fluid. How potassium escapes out of the cell?

a. passive transport
b. receptor-mediated endocytosis
c. active transport
d. facilitated diffusion

A

d. facilitated diffusion

48
Q

After the great escape, now the potassium concentration in the cell same as the
surrounding fluid. How potassium is brought into the cell back?

a. passive transport
b. receptor-mediated endocytosis
c. active channel transport
d. facilitated diffusion

A

c. active channel transport

49
Q

Cell membrane transport where the solutes move from low to high concentration via
channels using energy is called

a) Simple diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Active channel transport
d) osmosis

A

c) Active channel transport

50
Q

Cell membrane transport where the water move from high to low concentration across the
plasma membrane where the solutes cannot cross is called

a) Simple diffusion
b) Facilitated diffusion
c) Active channel transport
d) osmosis

A

d) osmosis

51
Q

Cell placed in _______ solution swells

a) Isotonic
b) Hypertonic
c) Hypotonic
d) Hypnotonic

A

c) Hypotonic

52
Q

Cell placed in _______ solution shrinks

a) Isotonic
b) Hypertonic
c) Hypotonic
d) Hypnotonic

A

b) Hypertonic

53
Q

Cell placed in _______ solution remains the same size

a) Isotonic
b) Hypertonic
c) Hypotonic
d) Hypnotonic

A

a) Isotonic

54
Q

Movement of solid substances from outside the cell to inside the cell is called

a) Phagocytosis
b) Pinocytosis
c) Exocytosis
d) Channel transport

A

a) Phagocytosis

55
Q

Movement of substances from inside the cell to outside the cell is called

a) Phagocytosis
b) Pinocytosis
c) Exocytosis
d) Channel transport

A

c) Exocytosis

56
Q

Movement of liquid substances from outside the cell to inside the cell is called

a) Phagocytosis
b) Pinocytosis
c) Exocytosis
d) Channel transport

A

b) Pinocytosis

57
Q

ribosome

A

protein synthesis

58
Q

mitochondria

A

dna

59
Q

Golgi

A

packing

60
Q

centrioles

A

division

61
Q

lyosome

A

phagocytosis

62
Q

microvilli

A

absorption

63
Q

cilia

A

movement

64
Q

absorption of digested food in intestine is executed by the presence of

a) microvilli
b) nucleus
c) mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus

A

a) microvilli

65
Q

in sweat glands, the cells are likely to have

a) microvilli
b) nucleus
c) mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus

A

d) Golgi apparatus

65
Q

A cell that has 46 chromosomes undergoes mitosis. Which of the following is
true?

A. two daughter cells will be created, each have 46chromosomes
B. two daughter cells will be created, each have 23 chromosomes
C. four daughter cells will be created, each having 23 chromosomes
D. two daughter cells will be created, each having 20chromosomes

A

A. two daughter cells will be created, each have 46chromosomes

65
Q

Microscopic examination of the injured skin cells shows the following
stages of cell division EXCEPT

A. anaphase
B. Prophase
C. Meiosis
D. Cytokinesis

A

c. meiosis

66
Q

Epithelial tissue has all the characteristics except

a) Cells tightly bound
b) No blood supply
c) One surface exposed to the environment
d) No basement membrane

A

d) No basement membrane

67
Q

Glandular tissue that delivers its secretion via ducts are called as

a) Endocrine
b) Exocrine
c) none
d) Both

A

b) exocrine

68
Q

Which of the following is an example of merocrine secretion

a) Salivary glands
b) Mammary glands
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Pituitary gland

A

a) Salivary glands

69
Q

Which of the following is an example of apocrine secretion

a) Sweat glands
b) Mammary glands
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Pituitary gland

A

b) Mammary glands

70
Q

Which of the following is an example of holocrine secretion

a) Sweat glands
b) Mammary glands
c) Sebaceous glands
d) Pituitary gland

A

c) Sebaceous glands

71
Q

Epithelial tissue covers

a) Skin
b) Blood vessels
c) Vagina
d) All of the above

A

d) all of the above

72
Q

Epithelium which allows diffusion of nutrients across is:

a) Simple squamous
b) Simple cuboidal
c) Simple columnar
d) Pseudostratified epithelium

A

a) Simple squamous

73
Q

Epithelium which helps in secretion and absorption is:

a) Simple squamous
b) Transitional
c) Simple columnar
d) Pseudostratified epithelium

A

c) Simple columnar

74
Q

Epithelium which has single layer; but looks like multiple layer

a) Simple squamous
b) Transitional
c) Simple columnar
d) Pseudostratified epithelium

A

d) Pseudostratified epithelium

75
Q

Epithelium which has multiple layer and helps in protection

a) Stratified squamous
b) Transitional
c) Simple columnar
d) Pseudostratified epithelium

A

a) Stratified squamous

76
Q

Epithelium which has multiple layer and allows stretching

a) Stratified squamous
b) Transitional
c) Simple columnar
d) Pseudostratified epithelium

A

b) Transitional

77
Q

Find the mismatch

a. Simple squamous epithelium – alveoli
b. Simple columnar epithelium - intestine
c. Simple cuboidal epithelium – glomeruli
d. Stratified squamous epithelium - mouth

A

c. Simple cuboidal epithelium – glomeruli

78
Q

Find the correct match

a. Simple squamous epithelium – absorption
b. Simple columnar epithelium - diffusion
c. Simple cuboidal epithelium – protection
d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium - secretion

A

d. Pseudostratified columnar epithelium - secretion

79
Q

In connective tissue, this cell is most commonly found

a) Fibroblasts
b) Mast cells
c) Fat cells
d) Macrophages

A

a) Fibroblasts

80
Q

In connective tissue, this cell produces histamine

a) Fibroblasts
b) Mast cells
c) Fat cells
d) Macrophages

A

b) Mast cells

81
Q

In connective tissue, this cell is an energy reserve

a) Fibroblasts
b) Mast cells
c) Fat cells
d) Macrophages

A

c) Fat cells

82
Q

In connective tissue, this cell helps in phagocytosis

a) Fibroblasts
b) Mast cells
c) Fat cells
d) Macrophages

A

d) Macrophages

83
Q

_________ protein fibre is strong and unbranched

a) Collagen
b) Elastic
c) Reticular
d) All of the above

A

a) Collagen

84
Q

_________ protein fibre is stretchable and branched

a) Collagen
b) Elastic
c) Reticular
d) All of the above

A

b) Elastic

85
Q

_________ protein fibre is interwoven and helps in anchoring.

a) Collagen
b) Elastic
c) Reticular
d) All of the above

A

c) Reticular

86
Q

Which of the following is not a function of connective tissue cells

A. Fibroblast secreting ground substances
B. Mast cells producing histamine
C. Fat cells functions as energy reserve
D. Macrophage gives rise to protein fibres

A

D. Macrophage gives rise to protein fibres

87
Q

Loose connective tissue which has more fat cells

a) Loose areolar tissue
b) Adipose tissue
c) Tendons
d) Ligament

A

b) Adipose tissue

88
Q

Dense connective tissue which connects muscle to bone is

a) Loose areolar tissue
b) Adipose tissue
c) Tendons
d) Ligaments

A

c) Tendons

89
Q

Dense connective tissue which connects bone to bone is

a) Loose areolar tissue
b) Adipose tissue
c) Tendons
d) Ligaments

A

d) Ligaments

90
Q

Which among the following is a fluid connective tissue

a) Blood
b) Lymph
c) All of the above

A

c) All of the above

91
Q

Which cartilage among the following has more ground substances

a) Hyaline
b) Elastic
c) Fibro
d) Endo

A

a) Hyaline

92
Q

Which cartilage among the following has more elastic fibres

a) Hyaline
b) Elastic
c) Fibro
d) Endo

A

b) Elastic

93
Q

Which cartilage among the following has more collagen fibres

a) Hyaline
b) Elastic
c) Fibro
d) Endo

A

c) Fibro

94
Q

Which of the following has hyaline cartilage?

a) Synovial joints
b) Epiglottis
c) Vertebral discs
d) Nasal cartilage

A

a) Synovial joints

95
Q

Which of the following has elastic cartilage?

a) Synovial joints
b) Epiglottis
c) Vertebral discs
d) pubic cartilage

A

b) Epiglottis

96
Q

Which of the following has fibrocartilage?

a) Synovial joints
b) Epiglottis
c) Vertebral discs
d) Nasal cartilage

A

c) Vertebral discs

97
Q

Which of the following muscle cell has intercalated disc?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle

A

c) Cardiac muscle

98
Q

Which of the following muscle cell is branched?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle

A

c) Cardiac muscle

99
Q

Which of the following muscle cell has tapered ends?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle

A

b) Smooth muscle

100
Q

Which of the following muscle cell is multinucleated?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle

A

a) Skeletal muscle

101
Q

Which of the following muscle cell is not striated ?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle

A

b) Smooth muscle

102
Q

Which of the following muscle cell is under voluntary control?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle

A

a) Skeletal muscle

103
Q

Which of the following muscle cell can divide?

a) Skeletal muscle
b) Smooth muscle
c) Cardiac muscle

A

b) Smooth muscle

104
Q

Which of the following is an example of smooth muscle?

a) Biceps
b) Heart
c) Iris

A

c) Iris

105
Q

Which of the following is an example of skeletal muscle?

a) Biceps
b) Heart
c) Iris

A

a) Biceps

106
Q

Which of the following is an example of cardiac muscle?

a) Biceps
b) Heart
c) Iris

A

b) Heart

anp (5 decks)

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