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Med Surg > Test 1-Pulmonary Pathologies > Flashcards

Test 1-Pulmonary Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

Pathology Def:
An acute inflammation of the respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveolar sacs, and alveoli of the lungs. The inflammation may either be unilateral or bilateral and involve all or portions of the affected lung.

Etiology: May be caused by micro organisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungus, or protozoans. The disease also may arise secondary to other systemic diseases or induced by a variety of non-infectious agents such as chemicals and dust. Most microbial and non-infectious agents that cause this disease are either inhaled from the air or aspirated from the naso- and oropharynx.

S&S-Coughing, sputum production, stabbing chest pain, shaking chills, high or low grade fever.

A

Pneumonia

*primary tx- antibiotic therapy

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2
Q

Def: Normal respiratory rate, normal breathing

A

Eupnea

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3
Q

Def: Rapid, deep breathing

A

Hyperventilation

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4
Q

Def: Slow and shallow breathing

A

Hypoventilation

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5
Q

Def: Labored or difficult breathing

A

Dyspnea

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6
Q

Def.: Normal breathing in an upright position

A

Orthopnea

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7
Q

Def: Breathing stops completely for a brief period

A

Apnea

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8
Q

Def: Occurs in critical diseases such as CHF, brain injuries, or brain tumors, or even drug overdose. *Type of respiration with Cycles of alternating apnea and hyperventilation.
Often happens at the end of life.

A

Cheyne-stokes respirations

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9
Q

Def: Failure to resume breathing

A

Respiratory arrest

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10
Q

What three terms describe the intensity of a breath sound?

A

Vesicular, bronchial, and decreased

Ves- Inhalation produces a soft rustling sound; exhalation is normally silent

Bronchial-Louder, more hollow, and echoing sound

Decreased-Breath sounds are very quiet and barely audible

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11
Q

Def: Previously termed rails and rhonchi, Sound like the rustling of cellophane.
(CHF, pulmonary fibrosis, emphysema)

A

Crackles

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12
Q

Def: High-pitched, course, whistling sounds. Heard during inspiration and expiration indicating compressed or narrowed airway
(Bronchitis, asthma, pneumonia)

A

Wheezes

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13
Q

Def: Harsh, high pitched crowing sound indicating upper airway obstruction
(Tracheal stenosis, presence of foreign body)

A

Stridor

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14
Q

Def: Study of disease;
Study of basic structural and functional changes associated with disease, and includes the study of causes that lead to the structural and functional changes and the manifestations that result from them.

A

Pathology

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15
Q

Pathologies are also concerned with the sequence of events that lead from cause to structural and functional abnormalities and finally to manifestations; the sequence is referred to as ______ of disease.
_______(same as other blank) Is the development of unhealthy conditions or disease; it is the cellular events and reactions and other pathologic mechanisms that occur in the development of disease.

A

Pathogenesis

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16
Q

Def: The study of disease causes, but is used commonly to refer to the cause of a disease

A

Etiology

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17
Q

Def: The process of assigning a name to the patient’s condition

A

Diagnosis

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18
Q

Def: Diseases that last a short period of time, usually a few days to a few weeks. Usually has a rapid onset.

A

Acute

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19
Q

Def: Diseases that last a long time, often for a patient’s lifetime

A

Chronic

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20
Q

Def: When the signs and symptoms of the disease subsides for a period of time

A

Remission

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21
Q

Def: The period of time when the signs and symptoms recur in all their severity

A

Exacerbation

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22
Q

Def: The aftermath of a disease

A

Sequela

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23
Q

Def: Objective evidence of disease observed on physical examination, such as abnormal pulse, fever and pallor

A

Signs

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24
Q

Def: Indication of the disease perceived by the patient, such as pain, dizziness, and itching

A

Symptoms

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25
Q

Def: The perception and response of the person to not being well

A

Illness

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26
Q

Def: Used to describe a biomedical condition that is substantiated by objective data, such as elevated temperature or presence of infection

A

Disease

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27
Q

Def: changes in the structure of genes; occur when the normal sequence of DNA is disrupted

A

Mutations

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28
Q

Classifications of hereditary disease (3)

A

Chromosomal (Down’s syndrome)
Mutation (cystic fibrosis)
Polygenic (RA, gout)

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29
Q

Def: The invasion and multiplication of pathogenic microorganisms in the body

A

Infection

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30
Q

The leading cause of death in the US for persons under 40. It is the third leading cause of death following cardiovascular and cancer in those over 40.

A

Physical Trauma

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31
Q

Def: Bruise brain tissue and disrupt normal nerve function; may cause loss of consciousness, hemorrhage, and even death.

A

Cerebral contusions

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32
Q

_____ cause temporary neural dysfunction, but are not severe enough to cause a contusion.

A

Concussions

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33
Q

Def: New formation or growth

A

Neoplasia

*Tumors and neoplasms are generally used synonymously

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34
Q

Def: The spreading process of malignant tumors

A

Metastasis

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35
Q

Natural immunity: specific to a ____

_____ immunity: Body has developed the ability to defend itself against a specific agent.

A

Species

Acquired immunity
*we develop antibodies around 3-6 weeks of age

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36
Q

3 Classifications of immune system gone wrong:

1) ______: When the immune response is inappropriate
2) ______: When the immune response is misdirected
3) _____: When the immune response is inadequate

A

1) Allergy
2) Auto-immunity
3) Immunodeficiency

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37
Q

_____ is due to improper intake of foods and quantity as well as quality, malabsorption or poor utilization, increase need, impaired metabolism and food and drug interaction

A

Malnutrition

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38
Q

Def: Diseases that have no known cause

A

Idiopathic

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39
Q

Some diseases are ______; that is caused by treatment and its effect in patients. Seen in the treatment of some cancer patients where chemotherapy drugs may cause severe anemia.

A

Iatrogenic

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40
Q

In the process of inspiration the thorax ____ in size, the pressure _____ and air flows in from the atmosphere. The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles _____ and the thorax ____pulling the lungs with it. This is an ____ process whereas expiration is a ____ process caused by the elastic recoil of the lungs and thoracic muscles.

A

Thorax INCREASES in size

Pressure DECREASES

Contract

Thorax expands

Active (inspiration)

Passive (expiration)

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41
Q

The diaphragm ____ when it contracts during inspiration and moves ____ toward the ____ cavity. This makes the ____ cavity longer.

A

Flattens

Downward

Abdominal cavity

Chest cavity

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42
Q

Most important muscle of inspiration is the _____

A

Diaphragm

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43
Q

Expiratory muscles are the ____ intercostals and _____ muscles

A

Internal intercostals

Abdominal muscles

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44
Q

Def: The exchange of gases between the blood and alveolar air; occurs by diffusion

A

External respiration

45
Q

Blood flowing into the lung capillaries is ___ in oxygen. Because alveolar air is rich in oxygen, diffusion causes movement of oxygen from the alveoli to the ____ blood.

A

Low in O2

Capillary blood

46
Q

Normal pH is ___-___

pH represents hydrogen ion concentration in body fluid.

A

7.35-7.45

47
Q

pH greater than 7.45 is _____

A

Alkalosis

48
Q

pH less than 7.35 is considered ____

A

Acidosis

49
Q

DECREASED pH——>INCREASED hydrogen = ________

Respiratory rate and depth increases so that the lungs can increase the breakdown of carbonic acid to CO2 and H2O and can then exhale both the carbon dioxide and hydrogen. Decreasing hydrogen concentration thusly corrects the problem.

A

Acidosis

50
Q

INCREASED pH ——>DECREASED Hydrogen = ______

When the body pH is increased the body fluid becomes more alkaline (basic), respiratory rate and depth is decreased to retain carbon dioxide so more carbonic acid can be formed.

A

Alkalosis

51
Q

Pathology def: Excessive acidity of body fluids due to inadequate removal of carbon dioxide by the lungs. As the CO2 levels in the blood rise so does the amount of CO2 that combines with water to form carbonic acid. Consequently the pH of blood decreases.

Etiology: Occurs when there is a sudden impairment of ventilation resulting from an airway obstruction. This may be due to a foreign object blocking the air way or the effects in certain drugs, neuromuscular diseases, or cardiac arrest

A

Respiratory Acidosis

*chronic respiratory acidosis is caused by pulmonary diseases that change the characteristics of lung tissue, impairing the ability to release CO2. Ex. Emphysema, bronchitis, COPD

52
Q

Pathology def/etiology: Caused by acute or chronic hyperventilation. May result from hyperventilation induced by anxiety or psychological trauma, fever, pain, salicylate poisoning, excessive exercise, or excessive use of mechanical ventilators.

A

Respiratory Alkalosis

53
Q

Pathology def: A collapsed or airless condition of all or part of a lung that allows unoxygenated blood to pass unchanged through the area, and this produces hypoxia. This condition may be produced secondary to obstruction of the lung by foreign matter, mucous plugs or excessive secretion.

S&S: Dyspnea, cyanosis, tachycardia, anxiety

Tx: Frequent coughing and deep breathing are advised, postural drainage, chest percussion

A

Atelectasis

54
Q

Pathology def: Not a specific disease but a collection of disorders that decreases the ability of the lungs and bronchi to perform the function of ventilation. It is characterized by permanent changes in the structure of the lungs and bronchi.
Diseases that may lead to this include emphysema, Chronic bronchitis, chronic asthma, pulmonary tuberculosis.
*In all forms, narrowing of airways obstruct airflow to and from the lungs. The obstruction increases the resistance to airflow. The trapped air hinders gas exchange in causes distention of alveoli.

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

  • Problem of getting air out
  • Tx: Bronchodilators-Albuterol; Corticosteroids; SaO2 therapy
55
Q 
IRV-
ERV-
VC-
TV-
RV-
FRC-
A

Inspiratory reserve volume-Amount of air a person can inhale forcefully at the end of normal inhalation

Expiratory reserve volume-Amount of air a person can exhale forcefully at the end of normal exhalation

Vital capacity-Greatest volume of air that can be expelled from lungs after taking the deepest breath possible

Tidal volume-Amount of air that moves in or out of lungs during each respiratory cycle

Residual volume-Amount of air that remains in the lungs at the end of forced expiration

Functional residual capacity- Volume of air present in the lungs at the end of passive expiration

56
Q

Pathology def: Inflammation of the bronchial mucous membranes. Characterized by a hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial mucous glands, damage to bronchial cilia and narrowing of the bronchial airways.
Etiology: Associated with long-term heavy cigarette smoking

S&S: A chronic cough with sputum production is the classic symptom.

*A clinical diagnosis requires that a productive cough be present on most days for a minimum of three months in the year and at least two consecutive years

A

Chronic Bronchitis

57
Q

Pathology def: An inflammation of the trachea and bronchi that is self-limiting and short term with minimal pulmonary signs

Etiology: Chemical irritants, viral infections, measles, chickenpox, or whooping cough

S&S: Mild fever, malaise, back and muscle pain, sore throat, productive cough, followed by wheezing and possible laryngitis

A

Acute Bronchitis

58
Q

Def: Removal of a lung

A

Pneumonectomy

59
Q

Def: Removal of one lobe of the lung

A

Lobectomy

60
Q

Def: Removal of one or more lung segments

A

Segmental resection

61
Q

Def: Removal of pie shaped section from surface of lung

A

Wedge resection

62
Q

Def: Surgery performed to confirm a suspected diagnosis of lung or chest disease. The ribs are spread to get the best possible exposure of the lung and hemithorax. The pleura is entered and the lung is explored, a biopsy is usually done. A chest tube and closed drainage system is necessary bc the pleura space was entered.

A

Thorocotomy

63
Q

All patients who have re-sectional surgery of the lung will require drainage of pleural spaces by one or two ____ _____. The closed drainage system must remain ____ the level of the chest.

A

Chest tubes

Below level of chest

64
Q

Def: Localized in the substernal or chest region over involved lung fields that may include the anterior chest, side or back. The pain may radiate to neck, upper trapezius, costal margins, thoracic back, scapulae, or shoulder area

(Not a pathology)

A

Pulmonary pain pattern

65
Q

The organs of the respiratory system are designed to perform 2 basic functions:
1)
2)

The primary function of the respiratory system is to:

A

1) Serve as air distributors
2) Gas exchangers of the body

Primary function of the respiratory system is to supply oxygen to cells and remove carbon dioxide

66
Q

In addition to air distribution and gas exchange, the respiratory system also ___, _____, and ____ the air we breathe.

Respiration means -

A

Filters, warms, and humidifies

Respiration means exchange of gases between a living organism and its environment

67
Q

Breathing consists of 2 processes

1) Def: The movement of air from outside the body to alveolar of the lungs
2) Def: The process of oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide elimination between the body and outside environment

A

Ventilation

Respiration

68
Q

The two major sensors in the body that detect need to breathe are:

1) _____ ______: Located near the medulla. These respond to increases in carbon dioxide and decreases in pH in cerebrospinal fluid.
2) ____ ____: Located in the carotid body and aortic arch. These respond to low arterial blood oxygen, high carbon dioxide, low pH and are believed to function only in pathologic situations.

A

1) Central chemoreceptors

2) Peripheral sensors

69
Q

Hey bitch, understand basic concepts..

If pH DECREASES that means CO2 _______

Increase or Decreases?

A

INCREASES

70
Q

The alveoli produce _____ which keep the lungs from collapsing

A

Surfactant

71
Q

Right lung has how many lobes?

How many lobes does the left lung have?

A

R lung: 3 lobes- upper, middle, lower

L lung: 2 lobes- upper and lower

72
Q

The difference in ____ ____ causes the movement of air into and out of the lungs.
Air moves from areas of ____ pressure two areas of ___ pressure.

A

Air pressure

High to low

73
Q

Pathology def: Often develops in patients with a long history of chronic bronchitis when the alveolar walls have been destroyed with the permanent distention of the air spaces. The air passages are obstructed and difficult expiration results due to the destruction of the walls between the alveoli, partial airway collapse, and loss of elastic recoil.

S&S: There is a reduction in the lungs elasticity with an increased effort to exhale trapped air, causing dyspnea on exertion leading to dyspnea at rest. Patient is usually thin, NO cough present, tachypnea with expiration. The patient often leans forward with arms on knees to support shoulders and chest for breathing. The size and shape of the patient’s chest often changes and can be referred to as barrel chest with increased expiratory effort.

A

Emphysema

*Teach pursed lip breathing; progressive walking is the most common form of exercise, but exercise will not improve pulmonary function just enhances cardiovascular fitness

74
Q

Pursed lip breathing is helpful because it causes ____ to outflow and maintains _____ pressure which improves the mixing of ____ in the lungs.

A

Resistance

Intrabronchial

Gases

75
Q

Pathology def: Respiratory condition marked by recurrent attacks of labored breathing accompanied by wheezing. It is the consequence of spasms of the bronchial tubes or swelling of their mucous membranes. Hyperventilation eventually occurs as lungs attempt to respond to the increase the volume and pressure.

Tx: Aerosol or bronchodilators and nasal decongestants

A

Asthma

  • Prevention: avoid allergens and emotional distress
  • Use diaphragmatic breathing
76
Q

What are the two types of asthma?

1) _____ asthma: Bronchospasm is the result of an allergic response to environmental irritant. Most common in childhood.
2) ____ asthma: The patient suffers attack without allergic trigger. Most often begins in adulthood.

A

Extrinsic asthma

Intrinsic asthma

77
Q

Pathology def: An area of necrotize lung tissue containing purulent (pus) material. More frequent in the lower dependent portion of the lungs and in the right lung which has more vertical bronchus.

Etiology: Caused by infectious organisms frequently arise as complication of pneumonia. May be produced by a septic embolism being carried to the lung in pulmonary circulation. Neoplasms, trauma from foreign objects lodged in lung tissue, or bronchial stenosis also may cause this to form.

S&S: Produce a cough accompanied by bloody, purulent, foul smelling sputum and breath. Chest pain, sweating, chills, headache, fever, and dyspnea often are present.

A

Lung Abscess

*Tx: antibiotic therapy or surgical resection

78
Q

Pathology def: A slowly developing bacterial lung infection characterized by progressive necrosis of the lungs. The disease is transmitted in aerosol droplets exhaled by infected individuals by sneezing, coughing, speaking, singing, etc.

S&S: Pt. may be asymptomatic, advanced symptoms are wheezes, rales, and deviation of trachea

A

Tuberculosis

79
Q

Pathology def: usually seen in immuno-compromised hosts. It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than other form of this disease.

Early S&S: Pain and stiffness. The lower thoracic and lumbar spine or commonly involved.

A

Extra-Pulmonary Tuberculosis

*Vertebral TB sometimes referred to as Potts disease

80
Q

Pathology def: Unknown etiology, Characterized by excessive connective tissue deposition. The most common pulmonary manifestation of this disease is interstitial fibrosis.

S&S: Dyspnea on exertion, NONproductive cough. Pleural effusion may appear with orthopnea, edema, possible pneumothorax and congestive heart failure. Skin changes occur prior to visceral alterations.

A

Systemic sclerosis lung disease

Scleroderma

81
Q

Pathology def: Malignancy in the epithelium of the respiratory tract and may appear as various neoplasms that may be in the trachea, bronchi, or air sacs of the lungs.

A

Lung Cancer

82
Q

Four major types of lung cancer:

A

1) Small cell carcinoma
2) Squamous cell
3) Adenocarcinoma - most cases
4) Large cell carcinoma

83
Q

Where is the most frequent site of metastases from other types of cancer (besides lung cancer)?

A

Lungs

84
Q

Pathology def: A congenital disorder of the exocrine glands characterized by the production of copious amounts of abnormally thick secretions of mucus, especially in the lungs and pancreas. Disease inherited as a recessive trait meaning both parents must be carriers.

S&S: May appear soon after birth or take some time and developing. Sweat glands exhibit in increased salt concentration in the sweat. Mothers often report their babies taste salty.
Respiratory symptoms may include wheezy respirations, a productive cough, dyspnea, tachypnea stemming from accumulations of thick secretions in the bronchioles and alveoli of the lungs. Gastrointestinal symptoms may include intestinal obstruction, vomiting, electrolyte imbalance, and the inability to absorb fats. pancreatic insufficiency can result characterized by insufficient insulin production.

A

Cystic fibrosis (genetic disease of the lung)

85
Q

Def: permanent dilatation of bronchi due to destruction of the muscular and elastic properties of the lung. Airways full of purulent sputum. Usually associated with other underlying pulmonary diseases.
Clinical presentation: persistent production of large volumes of secretions, chronic productive cough, may have fever and finger nail clubbing

A

Bronchiectasis

86
Q

Def: A mass of undissolved matter in the pulmonary artery or one of its branches. It’s an obstruction due to a displaced thrombus, air bubble, a fat globule, a clump of bacteria, amniotic fluid, vegetations on heart valves. Once freed, the obstruction travels to the lungs, presenting with shortness of breath tachypnea, tachycardia, and chest pain.

At high risk are individuals immobilized with chronic diseases, those in body casts, persons with congestive heart failure or neoplasm’s, or postoperative patients. Also pregnant women, people with varicose veins, people with diabetes mellitus

A

Pulmonary embolism

87
Q

The most common cause of pulmonary embolism is ____ originating in the proximal deep venous system of the lower legs. The embolism causes an area of blockage, which results in localized _____ known as pulmonary infarction.

A

DVT

Ischemia

88
Q

What are the three major risk factors of DVT?

1)

2)

3)

A

1) Blood stasis- Slowing/pooling of blood
2) Endothelial injury- Injury of endothelium in a blood vessel
3) Hypercoagulable states

89
Q

Name some important preventative measures to prevent DVT:

A

1) Compression stockings, intermittent pneumatic compression pump
2) Exercise, early mobilization, ambulation, position changing
3) Elevating of the legs with caution to avoid severe flexion of the hips
4) IVC filter
5) Anticoagulants

**NO MASSAGE, NO RESTRICTIVE CLOTHING OR PROLONGED SITTING/STANDING

90
Q

What can a positive Homan’s sign indicate? What does the test consist of?

A

Could indicate patient has DVT.

Test consists of calf pain on slow dorsiflexion of the foot or gentle squeezing of the affected calf.

*A positive sign is not always indicative of a DVT though

91
Q

Pulmonary embolism can be fatal and is responsible for 10% to 20% of all hospital deaths. It is the leading cause of _____ related deaths.
_____ Can also result from embolization of a thrombus from the heart, aorta, or femoral artery.

What is the treatment of choice for acute DVT and PE?

A

Pregnancy related deaths

Gangrene

Heparin: it is given to reduce the chance of clot formations and to reduce further clot formation potential

92
Q

Pathology def: Hyper trophy and failure of the right ventricle of the heart, due to pulmonary embolism. This can be either acute or chronic. It is an emergency situation arising from the sudden dilation of the right ventricle as a result of the PE.

Some specific disorders that may lead to this include COPD, chronic bronchitis, pulmonary hypertension, and emboli.

A

Cor Pulmonale

93
Q

Pathology def: Inflammation of the visceral (inner) and parietal (outer) pleural membranes that envelop each lung.

There is primary and secondary.

S&S: chest pain (sudden, can be vague or intense stabbing sensations), cough, dyspnea (shortness of breath), fever and chills, tachypnea

A

Pleurisy

94
Q

_____ Pleurisy: Caused by infection of the pleura by a bacteria or virus

_____ Pleurisy: May be due to pneumonia, tuberculosis, pulmonary infarction, neoplasm, chest trauma, RA, and systematic lupus erythematosus.

A

Primary Pleurisy

Secondary Pleurisy

95
Q

Pathology def: A collection of air in the pleural cavity, typically resulting in the complete or partial collapse of the lung (atelectasis). One or both lungs can be affected. The condition can be spontaneous or secondary.

A

Pneumothorax

96
Q

_____ pneumothorax: Caused by rupturing of small blebs along the surface of the lungs.

____ pneumothorax: Caused due to other lung diseases such as Asthma, emphysema, lung abscess, or lung cancer; or possibly due to chest trauma, perforated esophagus, or mechanical ventilators.

[Spontaneous or Secondary?]

A

Spontaneous

Secondary

97
Q

In treating pneumothorax, bedrest, monitoring a vital signs, insertion of chest tube for drainage and to allow expansion of the collapsed lung or surgery.
_____ a surgical opening in chest cavity to explore or repair the state of origin of pneumothorax.

A

Thoracotomy

98
Q

Def: Insufficient blood 02

A

Hypoxia

99
Q

Def: Excessive blood CO2

A

Hypercapnia

*caused by HYPOventilation, lung dz/COPD

100
Q

What happens with a restrictive lung pathology?

What is the most common restrictive lung disease?

A

The lungs aren’t expanding like they’re supposed to.

Pulmonary fibrosis

101
Q

Pathology def: May be caused by radiation therapy, inhalation of noxious gases, O2 toxicity, asbestos exposure or idiopathic.
(a restrictive lung disease)

S&S: Rapid shallow breathing; limited chest expansion, digital clubbing, cyanosis, dyspnea, nonproductive cough. Life expectancy from time of diagnosis is approximately three years.

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

102
Q

Acute or chronic pulmonary pathologies?

  • PE
  • Pneumonia
  • ARDS (Acute respiratory distress syndrome)
  • Pleural Effusion
A

Acute Pulmonary Pathologies

103
Q

Def: Severe form of respiratory failure with significant impact on the morbidity and mortality of critical care patients. May be secondary to mechanical ventilation, pneumonia, lung contusion, near drowning, SEPSIS, inhalation injury, severe trauma

Considered a collection of symptoms rather than a disease.

A

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)

104
Q

Def: Excessive collection of fluid within the plural space typically associated with heart, renal or liver failure, bacterial pneumonia or malnutrition.

S&S: Dyspnea, decreased chest expansion, diminished breath sounds

A

Pleural effusion

105
Q

Def: Recurrent episodes of apnea during sleep lasting between 10 sec to > 1 minute

S&S: snoring and daytime somnolence (sleepiness)

Tx: weight loss, smoking cessation, CPAP (continuous positive airway pressure)

A

Obstructive Sleep Apnea

106
Q

Exercise (physical therapy management)

  • Mode: Sustained aerobic exercise (walking, cycling)
  • Intensity: monitor HR, RPE
  • Duration *how long?
  • Frequency
  • Exercise Progression what is important to remember?
  • Activity Pacing: Break down component parts and intersperse rest periods (take a deep breath, on exhalation walk up 2 steps)
A

20-30 minutes recommended

First increase # of continuous minutes and decreasing rest breaks, then increase intensity.

107
Q

What tool is used for ventilatory muscle training?
*Provides resistance to the inspiratory face, the expiratory phase, or both phases of ventilation to increase strength and endurance of these muscles

A

Spirometers

108
Q

Postural drainage, percussion, vibration, cough Contraindications:

A

ICP> 20 mm Hg

Active hemorrhage

PE

Rib fx, surgical wound

Recent spinal surgery

109
Q

Diaphragmatic breathing ____ your breathing rate and _____ oxygen demand.

A

Slows

Decreases

Med Surg (6 decks)

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