test 1 other important info Flashcards

1
Q

S3 is normal in

A

athletes, children, pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when is S3 heard + what does it mean

A

after S2
new blood is hitting the leftover blood when it enters the left ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

when is S4 heard + what does it mean

A

before S1
in aortic stenosis and hypertension pts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the orthostatic hypotension rule

A

30/20/10
HR +30
SBP -20
DBP -10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

high pulse pressure means (3)

A

hypertension
aging
stiff heart walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

low pulse pressure means (3)

A

heart failure
blood loss
dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

t/f: If the autonomic nervous system is impaired, the myocardial cells are unable to contract

A

cardiac cells can contract on their own

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

clinical signs are indicative of a patient who has chronic mitral valve insufficiency

A

shortness of breath
poor exercise tolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what part of the lung has the highest perfusion rate? why?

A

base
bc gravity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when does the S1 heart sound occur

A

when all the ventricles have completely filled with blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is S4 always pathological

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the difference between the pulse rate heard in the apical region and the pulse rate felt in a peripheral region may be due to….

A

arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

vesicular sounds description

A

longer inspiration
soft intensity
low pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

bronchovesicular sounds description

A

equal in/expiration
intermediate intensity
intermediate pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

bronchial sounds description

A

longer expiration
loud intensity
high pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

tracheal sounds description

A

equal duration
very loud intensity
high pitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

adventitious breath sounds

A

discontinuous crackles that are explosive and poppy on inspiration due to fluid accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stridor

A

adventitious breath sound
crowing sound on inspiration
typically in upper airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

S1 sound is ….

A

closing of mitral and tricuspid valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

S2 sound is …

A

closing of aortic and pulm valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

heart murmmers

A

abnormal heart sounds due to turbulent blood through incompetent valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what type of heart valve issue does opening snap occur

A

stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what type of heart valve issue does systolic click occur

A

prolapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pericardial friction rub sound

A

leathery to squeaky due to diastole disruption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what does ECG measure and what part of the heart does it look at the most
ejection fraction left ventricles
26
does CAD increase or decrease ejection fraction
decrease
27
how can CAD lead to more arrhythmias
Ca+ release when cells die
28
ST elevation indicates _________ while ST depression indicates __________
acute MI ischemia
29
when is it normal for T waves to be inverted
children Lead 3, V1, and aVR
30
do arrhythmias lead to increased or decreased cardiac output
decreased
31
what is responsible for slowing down the SA node
AV node
32
how can the renal system cause heart issues
raises BP retains Na+ and K+ Axotemia --> urea, creatinine elevation GFR decreases
33
HF with reduced ejection fraction
dilated cardiomyopathy
34
is dilated cardiomyopathy systolic or diastolic dysfunction
systolic
35
HF with preserved ejection fraction
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
36
is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy systolic or diastolic dysfunction
diastolic
37
is restrictive cardiomyopathy systolic or diastolic dysfunction
diastolic
38
what is restrictive cardiomyopathy
hypertrophic walls WITH dilation of atria/ventricle space
39
why does valve malfunction cause hypertrophy
the heart has to work harder to get blood to correct spots
40
what is the best position for PE pts for maximal perfusion
head of bed elevated prone or lateral lying
41
LHF results in what symptoms while RHF results in ________
LHF = pulmonary edema RHF = body/periphery edema
42
BNP
stretch enzyme lab result in late stage HF (dilated heart walls)
43
B1 blockers control 3 things
decreases contractile force decreases HR decreases SNS
44
nonselective beta blockers are contraindicated against what type of patients
LUNG patients bc B2 gets blocked
45
2 liver lab values
ALT AST
46
blood transfusion rule + what vital sign is key to checking while exercising pt
wait 30 mins per unit of blood transfused SpO2
47
cardiac glycosides can interfere with which other organ system
renal
48
why are sympathomimetics only short term in the hospital
increased risk of ventricular arrhythmias (bc afterload is so reduced) ischemia in peripheries (black toes/fingers)
49
which med of these 3 causes reflexive tachycardia: Beta blockers calcium channel blockers nitrates
nitrates
50
when is phosphodiastrase used
when pt is about to die + it is the last resort
51
what medication is specifically bad for HF patients? why?
Calcium channel blockers they are negative iontropes --> we need to INCREASE heart contractility in HF pts
52
what is the difference between beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
beta = decreases O2 demand Ca+ = increases O2 supply
53
Stable vs unstable angina
stable = relieved by rest, predictable, nitrates help it unstable = unpredictable, can happen at any time
54
-one
class 3 anti-arrhythmic: K+ channel blockers
55
2 major side effects of class 3 anti-arrhythmic
pulmonary fibrosis liver issues
56
what does digitalis depress?
AV node conduction
57
4 phases of acute care pts
1. cant walk or stand 2. cant walk but can stand 3. low endurance 4. going home soon
58
which of the 4 phases in acute care should a PT spend most their time with
2 bc we dont want them to lose ability to stand
59
critical illness polyneuropathy
- involves sensory and motor nerves - PT is the only effective treatment - MAIN CONTRIBUTOR TO PERSISTENT DISABILITY
60
critical illness myopathy
- weakness in limbs - associated with COMPLETE RECOVERY
61
critical illness polyneuropathy and myopathy
- acute and chronic denervation - primary muscle changes
62
What is the main contributor to persistent disability in acute care
critical illness polyneuropathy
63
D-dimer is for...
detecting proteins in blood for DVTs
64
what is used to detect WHERE the DVT is located
ultrasound
65
INR measures...
effectiveness of blood thinners
66
a high INR indicates...
thinner blood + higher prothrobin time (PT)
67
pulse pressure lower than 40 happen in pt with...(2)
arrhythmias dilated cardiomyopathy
68
cardiogenic shock
heart stops beating completely
69
pts take longer to be mobilized when taking fractionated or unfractionated anticoagulants?
UNFRACTIONATED bc it is not broken down yet
70
does jugular vein distention occur in Right or Left sided HF
right sided
71
in RHF, does pulse pressure go up or down?
down shawtyyyy
72
what should a PT be checking when exercising a patient with an ICD
keep HR 20 beats lower than the ICD's set threshold
73
what anti-arrhythmic reduces depolarization
class 1: Na+