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N2720: Health and Healing > TEST 1: midterm > Flashcards

TEST 1: midterm Flashcards

1
Q

What is one function of COX 1?

A

Protect stomach mucosa from stomach acid

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2
Q

What is the main function of COX 2?

A

Inflammation

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3
Q

Are NSAIDs selective or non-selective? (To what?)

A

non-selective

inhibiting both COX 1+2

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4
Q

What is the function of prostaglandins?

A

Regulation of inflammation

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5
Q

What happens if you decrease the synthesis of prostaglandins?

A

an anti-inflammatory effect occurs

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6
Q

What is the source of pain for uterine contractions?

A

Prostaglandins

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7
Q

What does ADME stand for?

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

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8
Q

What organ is associated with excretion? Metabolism?

A

Excretion - Kidney

Metabolism - liver

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9
Q

What is the role of an agonist?

A

To mimic the antibody and activate the receptor

- sometime permanent

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10
Q

What is a competitive antagonist?

A

Blocks the receptor site

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11
Q

What is a non-competitive antagonist?

A

Binds to its own receptor site and deactivates R

- even with agonist binding, will not work

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12
Q

What is a chemical antagonist?

A

Binds to the agonist to not allow it to be able to bind to binding site

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13
Q

What is anaphylactic shock?

A

Extreme allergic rxns

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14
Q

Evidence of alterations within the body as perceived by the patient are called:

A

Symptoms

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15
Q

Clear evidence of alteration to the body that can be perceived by others, doctors, etc:

A

Signs

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16
Q

What is the term for diseases caused by medical treatment?

A

Iatrogenic

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17
Q

Which type of bacteria have THICK cell walls?

A

Gram POSITIVE bacteria

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18
Q

Why are gram negative bacteria harder to treat with antibiotics?

A

They have a second cell membrane

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19
Q

What is bioavailability? Which route of administration have 100% bioavailability?

A
  • the fraction of drug that reaches circulation unchanged

- Intravenous (IV)

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20
Q

What are the 3 semisynthetic PCNs?

A

Methicillin
Oxacillin
Nafcillin

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21
Q

Which type of penicillin cannot be taken orally?

A

Penicillin G

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22
Q

Why doesn’t penicillin attack our human cells?

A

Because they do not have cell walls, and penicillin attacks selectively cell walls which are located only on the bacteria

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23
Q

What are the 4 antibiotics that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall?

A
  • penicillins
  • vancomycins
  • cepholasporins
  • bactrams
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24
Q

Can B-lactamase inhibitors be used alone? What must you combine them with?

A
  • no

- antimicrobials

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25
Q

What are the narrow spectrum penicillins?

A

Penicillin G and Penicillin V

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26
Q

Name the 2 aminopenicillins.

A
  • ampicillin

- amoxicillin

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27
Q

Name the 2 first generation cephalosporins.

A

Cefazolin

Cephlexin

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28
Q

What cephalosporin has a severe effect with alcohol?

A

Second generation CEFOTETAN

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29
Q

Which generation cephalosporins are NOT effective against anaerobic bacteria?

A

1st, 3rd, 4th

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30
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin is effective against pneumococcus?

A

3rd

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31
Q

Which generations of cephalosporins are effective against pseudomonas?

A

3rd, 4th, 5th

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32
Q

What kind of infections are 1st, 2nd, and 3rd generation cephalosporins treat?

A

1st: skin
2nd: abdominal
3rd: lung

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33
Q

What would you give to someone who has acquired HCAP and why?

A

vancomycin + pip/tazo

- treating for MRSA and pseudomonas because they are in the hospital setting

34
Q

What is the suffix used for cephalosporins class MACROLIDES?

A

-omycin

35
Q

Macrolides cannot be administered with what, why?

A

Fruit juices

- acidity decreases the activity of these drugs

36
Q

What cephalosporin has an adverse effect of hearing loss?

A

Macrolides

37
Q

What is the suffix for tetracyclines?

A

-cycline

38
Q

What is the 1/2 life of tertracyclines, macrolides?

A

T: short
M: long

39
Q

What are the 6 classes of cephalosporins?

A
  • macrolides
  • tetracyclines
  • clindamycin
  • aminoglycosides
  • nitrofurantoin
  • fluoroquinolones
40
Q

State the characteristics of macrolides.

A

BACTERIOSTATIC

- inhibits protein synthesis

41
Q

Which one of the macrolides has Gram- activity?

A

Clarithromycin

42
Q

What kind of macrolide would you use for strep or staph?

A

Erythromycin

43
Q

State the characteristics of tetracyclines.

A

BACTERIOSTATIC

  • inhibits protein synthesis
  • works on most gram+ and common gram-
  • POOR activity with pseudomonas and c. diff.
  • binds to calcium
44
Q

What is the purpose of inflammation?

A

to protect and minimize injury

45
Q

What are the 3 goals of inflammation?

A
  • increase blood flow to site
  • increase healing cells at site
  • prepare for tissue repair
46
Q

Tissue damage causes release of _____ factors that trigger a local increase in ____ and _____.

A

chemotaxis
blood flow
permeability

47
Q

The term for crossing the intact vessel wall.

A

Diapedesis

48
Q

What enzyme is responsible for the conversion of the phospholipid membrane into arachidonic acid?

A
  • phospholipase A
49
Q

What are 3 harmful effects of inhibiting COX 1?

A
  • stomach problems, ulcers
  • GI bleeding, bleeding out
  • renal impairment
50
Q

Which COX can help protect against colon cancer?

A

COX 2

51
Q

Which spoken about drug is NOT an NSAID?

A

acetaminophen

52
Q

Name an NSAID with selective COX 2 inhibitors. What would this do to the body?

A

Celecoxib

  • reduce inflammation, pain, fever
  • promote blood clotting
  • protect against colon cancer
53
Q

Name 2 NSAIDs that are non selective and inhibit both COX 1 and COX 2. What effect do they have on the body?

A

Aspirin, ibuprofen, naproxen, ketorolac

  • inhibit production of gastric mucus (ulcers)
  • reduce inflammation, pain and fever
  • risk of GI bleeding
  • renal impairment
54
Q

What does antipyretic and salicylate mean?

A

antipyretic: To reduce fever
salicyclate: inhibit platelet aggregation (thinning blood)

55
Q

Why must a child never be given aspirin?

A

Linked with Reye’s syndrome

56
Q

What is Reye’s syndrome?

A

Swelling of the liver and brain

  • diarrhea
  • vomiting
  • seizures
  • irritable behaviour
  • lethargic (sluggish)
  • rapid breathing
57
Q

Does acetaminophen suppress platelet aggregation?

A

no

58
Q

Does acetaminophen decrease renal blood flow or cause impairment?

A

No

59
Q

Overdose of acetaminophen can cause severe ____ injury

A

Liver

60
Q

What is Steven Johnson’s syndrome?

A

Blotchy red rashes

61
Q

What are 2 levels that, if they are high, there is always inflammation?

A

ESR and CRP

62
Q

What has a greater anti-inflammatory effect than NSAIDs?

A

Glucocorticoids

63
Q

What are long term adverse effects of Glucocorticoids? (8)

A
  • glucose intolerance
  • osteoporosis
  • myopathy
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • cataracts/glaucoma
  • risk of ulceration with use of NSAIDs
  • cushing’s syndrome
64
Q

During long term therapy, the ant. pit. gland loses ability to manufacture _____, then the adrenal glands atrophy then lose ability to synthesize ____ and other glucocorticoids.

A
  • ACTH

- Cortisol

65
Q

What are characteristics of clindamycin class cephalopsporins?

A

BACTERIOSTATIC

  • does not cover C. Diff
  • hepatic and renal elimination (caution in those with impairment in both)
66
Q

Clindamycin class cephalosporins are good for treating: (3)

A
  • necrotizing pneumonia
  • diabetic feet
  • necrotizing fascitis
67
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of clindamycin?

A

Diarrhea

68
Q

What are characteristics of aminoglycoside class cephalosporin?

A

BACTERICIDAL

  • inhibits protein synthesis
  • only available as IV, cannot be absorbed though GI tract
  • pseudomonas
  • INACTIVE against most gram +
  • poor tissue penetration
  • excellent urine penetration
69
Q

What are characteristics of fluoroquinolone class cephalosporin?

A

BACTERICIDAL

- drug interactions with caffeine, warfarin, etc.

70
Q

Is vancomycin a beta lactam?

A

No

71
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics act against a _____ group of bacteria.

A

Large

72
Q

Narrow spectrum antibiotics act against a _____ group of bacteria.

A

Limited/smaller

73
Q

What is a disease that is type 4 hypersensitivity?

A

Multiple sclerosis

74
Q

What is a disease that is type 3 hypersensitivity?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

75
Q

What is the first response immunoglobulin?

A

IgM

76
Q

The most common immunoglobulin that can cross the placenta?

A

IgG

77
Q

What are all of the immunoglobulins?

A 
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgD
IgE
78
Q

Which immunoglobulin can be be secreted in the mucus and breast milk?

A

IgG

79
Q

Which immunoglobulin is involved in B cell activation?

A

IgD

80
Q

Which immunoglobulin is involved in allergies and histamine reactions?

A

IgE

81
Q

What is the first exposure to an allergen called?

A

Sensitization

82
Q

What do H1 receptors do when activated?

A

bronchi and smooth muscle contraction

N2720: Health and Healing (3 decks)

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