FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

how many drugs are given during ART?

A

3

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2
Q

What does ART stand for?

A

antiretroviral therapy

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3
Q

how many of each kind of drug are used for ART?

A

2 - NRTIs

1 - NNRTI or PI

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4
Q

where are HIV1 and HIV2 most prevalent geographically?

A

HIV1 - Worldwide

HIV2 - Western Africa

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5
Q

What is the common suffix for NRTIs?

A

bine, dine, sine

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6
Q

What NRTI cannot be given to pregnant women?

A

Tenofovir

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7
Q

Which NRTI is deadly and used only as the last resort now?

A

Didanosine

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8
Q

If an NRTI has been prescribed to a pregnant woman, which one is it?

A

Zidovudine

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9
Q

What is the function of NRTIs?

A

Inhibit HIV replication by suppressing the synthesis of viral DNA and inhibiting the reverse transcriptase
- AFFECTS MITOCHONDRIA

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10
Q

Can NRTIs be used against both HIV1 and HIV2?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Name 4 side effects of NRTIs.

A
  • neuropathy
  • pancreatitis
  • anemia
  • lactic acidosis
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12
Q

What kind of drug would you see ___vir___.

A

NNRTI

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13
Q

Which NNRTI is preferred for the first line of HIV treatment?

A

Efavirenez

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14
Q

What is NNRTI mechanism?

A

Bind to active center of reverse transcriptase and cause direct inhibition

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15
Q

Do NNRTIs have a large potential for drug-drug interactions?

A

YAAAA

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16
Q

What is the suffix of Protease Inhibitors (PIs)?

A

___navir

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17
Q

What do Protease inhibitors do?

A

Inhibit the enzyme PROTEASE from cutting proteins into smaller fragments so they can spread more quickly around the body

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18
Q

What are major side effects of PI drugs?

A
  • weight gain
  • ^ CVD
  • ^ cholesterol
  • hyperglycemia
  • bone deterioration
  • lipodystrophy
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19
Q

When on NNRTIs, women must be on _____.

A

2 forms of birth control

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20
Q

What is the destruction of RBC called?

A

Hemolysis

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21
Q

A mutation in the Fibrillin1 (FBN1) gene causes what?

A

Loss of connective tissue elasticity

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22
Q

What is thalassaemia?

A

Inherited blood condition that affects Hemoglobin

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23
Q

What is the hormone released by the kidney that stimulates blood cell production?

A

Erythropoeitin

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24
Q

Do RBCs have DNA?

A

No

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25
Q

What is an erythroblast?

A

Immature RBC

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26
Q

How long are RBC lifespans?

A

120 days

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27
Q

How can we determine whether it is underproduction or destruction anemia?

A

The level of Reticulocytes

  • if greater than 3%, we can assume destructive
  • b/c body is trying to compensate for lack of O2 in the body
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28
Q

What protein helps to store iron in the TISSUES?

A

Ferritin

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29
Q

What protein helps to bring iron back into the BLOOD?

A

Transferrin

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30
Q

Is the addition of more dietary iron sufficient to cure anemia?

A

No

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31
Q

What enhances absorption of iron?

A

Vitamin C

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32
Q

DNA is made up of 4 _____.

A

nitrogenous bases

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33
Q

What are the 2 types of nitrogenous bases and the 2 nitrogenous bases that are apart of that group?

A

purine: adenine, guanine
pyrimidine: cytosine, thymine

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34
Q

70% of CFTR gene mutations are located at ___?

A

delta F508

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35
Q

Whats the difference between heterozygous and homozygous chromosomes?

A

Heterozygous: the pair of chromosomes contains one dominant and one recessive gene for the same feature (blue and brown eye gene)
Homozygous: the pair of chromosomes contains the same gene for the same feature (blue and blue eye gene or brown and brown)

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36
Q

Females are 2X more likely to be affected than males with ____ ____ ____ disorders.

A

X linked dominant

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37
Q

The stats for autosomal recessive disorders for “unaffected, carriers, affected”…

A

unaffected: 25%
carrier: 50%
affected: 25%

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38
Q

X inked recessive are more likely to affect MALE or FEMALE?

A

MALE

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39
Q

What is the most common autosomal chromosomal anomaly?

A

Down syndrome

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40
Q

What causes down syndrome?

A

Error in cell division that causes an extra chromosome 21

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41
Q

Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation at what gene?

A

Delta F508

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42
Q

What is an allele?

A

A different variation of the same gene that yields a different phenotype
- brown eyes vs. blue eyes

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43
Q

What is the protein that is affected if there is a mutation in the delta F508? What does it do?

A

CFTR

- pumps chloride into secretions to promote water retention (thinning of mucus)

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44
Q

Is CF a recessive or dominant autosomal disorder?

A

RECESSIVE

45
Q

What are the areas of the body affected by CF?

A

Lung mucus, colon/bowel movements, pancreas

46
Q

What is hemoptysis?

A

Coughing up blood

47
Q

What are 2 signs that confirm a diagnosis of CF?

A
  • high levels of chloride in sweat

- IRT pancreatic enzymes in the blood (means the pancreas is damaged)

48
Q

What 4 vitamins aid in fat absorption?

A

Vitamin A,D,E,K

49
Q

If someone has penicillin allergy, what antibiotic would work for them?

A

Macrolide

50
Q

What is megaloblastic anemia?

A

MACROCYTIC

Deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate

51
Q

What is a reticulocyte and what are the normal levels?

A

An immature RBC

0.5% - 2.5%

52
Q

What is albumin and what is its function?

A
  • a protein made by the liver
  • to control fluid levels in the cells of the body
  • KEEPS FLUID FROM LEAVING BLOOD VESSELS FOR THE TISSUES…
53
Q

What blood cells make antibodies?

A

B cells

T cells

54
Q

What is creatinine clearance and what is the normal range?

A

The ability of the kidney to clear out waste

107-139mL/min

55
Q

What kind of bacteria causes poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

Group A Beta-hemolytic streptococci bacteria

56
Q

Transcription results in the formation of _____.

A

Messenger RNA

57
Q

What is mRNA?

A

Mirror copy of the DNA segment

58
Q

What is the suffix for a macrolide? Bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

__mycin

- bacteriostatic, but bacteriocidal at high concentration

59
Q

What are the 2 antiviral drugs for influenza?

What kind of drug are they?

A
  • oseltamivir (tamiflu) ORAL
  • zanamivir (relenza) INHALED
  • NEURAMINIDASE INHIBITORS
60
Q

What antiviral drug for influenza may cause bronchospasm and is risky for asthmatics?

A

Zanamivir

61
Q

What are the 3 drugs for herpesvirus?

A
  • acyclovir
  • valacyclovir
  • gancyclovir
62
Q

What type of herpes infection does famciclovir not work on?

A

chicken pox and cold sores

63
Q

What is the range of bioavailability for NRTIs?

A

23-93%

64
Q

Do not give protease inhibitors to someone if…

A
  • Diabetes
  • Liver damage
  • Weight conscious
  • osteoporosis
  • hemophilia
65
Q

What is the CCR5 inhibitor drug for HIV?

A

Maraviroc

66
Q

What is the fusion inhibitor drug for HIV?

A

Enfuvurtide

67
Q

What HIV drug gives you increased risk of pneumonia and does not change dose if you have renal/hepatic damage?

A

Enfuvurtide

68
Q

When WBC count falls below ___, HIV has turned into AIDS.

A

200

69
Q

What is the drug of choice for systemic mycosis?

A

Amphotenicin B

70
Q

Amphotenicin B can only be administered by ___.

A

IV

71
Q

Nystatin is a type of Amphotenicin B and is used for _____ and ____.

A

Oral thrush and vaginal candidiasis

72
Q

What is the protein in the fungal membrane?

A

Ergosterol

73
Q

What antibiotic for fungus is both fungistatic and fungicidal?

A

Amphotericin B

74
Q

What antifungal drug is nephrotoxic?

A

Amphotenicin B

75
Q

What antifungal drug is hepatotoxic?

A

Azoles

76
Q

What antifungal drug has the suffix ___fungin?

A

Echinocardin

77
Q

What antifungal drugs inhitbits the synthesis of chitin?

A

echinocardin

78
Q

What drug acts against dermatophytes?

A

Griseofluvin

79
Q

What antifungal drug inhibits mitosis by binding to microtubules?

A

Griseofluvin

80
Q

What percentage of HIV/AIDS patients use CAM therapies?

A

55%

81
Q

Are pyrimidine analogs harmful to liver or kidney?

A

BOTH

82
Q

What are the 3 chemotherapy drugs that are CCNS?

A
  • Alkylating agents
  • Platinum compounds
  • Antracyclines
83
Q

Alkaloids affect what phase of the cell cycle?

A

M phase

84
Q

Taxanes effect what phase of the cell cycle?

A

Late G2 and M phase

85
Q

What are 2 taxane symptoms?

A

Allergic reactions

Arrhythmia

86
Q

What is bleomycin toxic to?

A

LUNGS

87
Q

Antracyclines can cause what kind of damage?

A
  • HEART damage

- Lung damage

88
Q

Doxorubicin is part of what chemotherapy drug family?

A

Antracycline

89
Q

Paclitaxel is from what chemotherapy drug family?

A

Taxanes

90
Q

What is the suffix for platinum compound chemotherapy drugs?

A

___Platin

91
Q

What are the normal sodium blood levels?

A

135-145 mEq/L

92
Q

What are normal potassium blood levels?

A

3.5-5 mEq/L

93
Q

Diuretics help with…

A
  • hypertension
  • kidney disease
  • liver cirrhosis
  • heart failure
94
Q

What is the function of a diuretic?

A

Block the reabsorption of sodium and chloride

95
Q

What percent of sodium chloride is absorbed at the ascending loop of henle?

A

20%

96
Q

What are the 2 best diuretics?

A
  1. mannitol

2. furosemide

97
Q

What is the normal urine output?

A

800-2000mL

98
Q

What can you not take while on integrase inhibitors for HIV?

A

Antacids

99
Q

What is the suffix for integrase inhibitors?

A

___gravir

100
Q

What is the CCR5 chemokine inhibitor drug called?

A

Maraviroc

101
Q

When would you administer CC35 entry inihibitor chemokine drugs and fusion inhibitor drugs?

A

As a last resort, they are ADDED to therapy when patient is unwell

102
Q

What is the name of the fusion blocker that increases risk of pneumonia?

A

Enfuvurtide

103
Q

Can you give enfuvurtide (fusion blocker) to someone with renal or hepatic damage?

A

Yes, the does does not change in this case

104
Q

(Fungus) What are the class 1: polyene antibiotics?

A

Amphotenicin B

105
Q

(Fungus) What drug would be used for hair, skin, nail fungi?

A

griseofluvin (part of heterocyclic benzofuran)

106
Q

What are the chemotherapy drugs that are CCNS?

A

Alkylating agents
Platinum compounds
Antracyclines

107
Q

What are the chemotherapy drugs that are CCS?

A

Antimetabolites

Alkaloids

108
Q

What does CCNS mean?

A

Cell cycle non specific: the drug will attack the cell at any stage of mitosis