TEST 1 - Auditing Flashcards
Which of the following statements is correct concerning an auditor’s responsibilities regarding financial statements?
An auditor may draft an entity’s financial statements based on information from management’s accounting system.
Which of the following best describes what is meant by the term “generally accepted auditing standards”?
The Statements on Auditing Standards issued by the Auditing Standards Board.
The exercise of due professional care requires that an auditor
B. Critically review the judgment exercised at every level of supervision.
The exercise of due professional care requires that a critical review of the work completed and the judgments made be performed at every level of supervision.
Which of the following categories was included in the AICPA’s ten historical generally accepted auditing standards?
C. Standards of field work.
The AICPA’s prior generally accepted auditing standards (GAAS) included three categories: General Standards, Standards of Field Work, and the Standards of Reporting. The field work standards addressed how the audit was to be conducted and included planning, supervision, evidence, and understanding of the entity and its environment.
To exercise due professional care an auditor should
C. Critically review the judgment exercised by those assisting in the audit.
The auditor is required by GAAS to exercise due care in the performance of the audit and the preparation of the report. Due care encompasses the employment of reasonable care and diligence as well as critical review at every level of supervision of the work done and the judgment exercised by those assisting in the audit.
According to GAAS, which of the following terms identifies a requirement for audit evidence?
Appropriate.
GAAS requires the auditor to obtain “sufficient appropriate audit evidence…”
The GAAS requirement states that due care is to be exercised in the performance of an audit is ordinarily interpreted to require
Critical review of the judgment exercised at every level of supervision.
While due care imposes the general responsibility of following the applicable GAAS standards, the professional standards specifically address the need for critical review. Exercising due care is defined as requiring “critical review” of the work performed and the audit judgments made at every level of supervision.
An independent auditor must have which of the following?
Technical training that is adequate to meet the requirements of a professional.
GAAS requires auditors to have adequate technical training and proficiency in auditing.
In AICPA professional standards, the term professional requirements refers to:
Unconditional requirements (Yes) Presumptively mandatory requirements (Yes)
There are 2 categories of professional standards: (1) unconditional requirements; and (2) presumptively mandatory requirements.
In AICPA professional standards, the word should indicates an (a)
Presumptively mandatory requirement from which the CPA may depart in rare circumstances.
The word should indicates a presumptively mandatory requirement
Interpretive publications include all of the following, except for
Articles in the AICPA’s Journal of Accountancy.
Articles in the Journal of Accountancy have no authoritative status, and would be classified as other auditing publications.
Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?
An auditor considers materiality for planning purposes in terms of the largest aggregate level of misstatements that could be material to any one of the financial statements.
An auditor considers materiality for planning purposes in terms of the SMALLEST aggregate level of misstatements that could be material to any one of the financial statements.
Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the auditor’s preliminary judgment about materiality?
The entity’s annualized interim financial statements.
The auditor’s preliminary judgment about materiality is a judgment about the amount of a misstatement in the financial statements under audit, which would be considered material (one that could influence the decision of a reasonable person relying on the financial statements). It is appropriate and likely, therefore, for the auditor to consider the entity’s annualized interim financial statements in developing such a judgment.
Which of the following statements is correct concerning materiality in a financial statement audit?
Materiality levels are generally considered in terms of the smallest aggregate level of misstatement that could be considered material to any one of the financial statements.
The auditor is required to determine materiality for the financial statements as a whole. As a result, the auditor ordinarily considers materiality for planning purposes in terms of the smallest aggregate level of misstatements that could be considered material to any one of the financial statements.
An auditor finds several errors in the financial statements that the client prefers not to correct. The auditor determines that the errors are not material in the aggregate. Which of the following actions by the auditor is most appropriate?
Document the errors in the summary of uncorrected errors, and document the conclusion that the errors do not cause the financial statements to be misstated.
The auditor is allowed to “pass” on aggregated errors that are not material. This analysis and conclusion must be documented in the audit documentation.
Which of the following would an auditor most likely use in determining the auditor’s preliminary judgment about materiality?
The entity’s financial statements of the prior year.
Materiality refers to a cutoff amount for a misstatement over which the financial statements would be unfairly presented. In determining this amount, out of the choices given, the most likely source is the prior year financial statements. The statements would provide the auditor with the most information to use in setting materiality.
When planning a sample for a substantive test of details, an auditor should consider tolerable misstatement for the sample. This consideration should
Be related to preliminary judgments about materiality levels.
When planning a sample for a substantive test of details, the auditor’s consideration of tolerable misstatement for the sample would be related to the preliminary judgment of materiality.
The auditor determines the nature, timing, and extent of auditing procedures to be applied in order to obtain reasonable assurance of detecting material misstatements in the financial statements.
The preliminary judgment of materiality is the auditor’s first estimate of amounts that could be considered to be material.
When issuing an unqualified opinion, the auditor who evaluates the audit findings should be satisfied that the
Estimate of the total likely misstatement is less than a material amount.
In order to issue an unqualified opinion, the auditor must be confident that no material misstatements exist in the financial statements. While misstatements may exist, in total they must be believed to be less than a material amount.
In considering materiality for planning purposes, an auditor believes that misstatements aggregating $10,000 would have a material effect on an entity’s income statement, but that misstatements would have to aggregate $20,000 to materially affect the balance sheet.
Ordinarily, it would be appropriate to design auditing procedures that would be expected to detect misstatements that aggregate
$10,000
Materiality should be considered in terms of the smallest aggregate level of misstatements that could be considered material to any one of the financial statements. As $10,000 is material to the income statement and that amount is smaller than the $20,000 material to the balance sheet, the smaller amount would be used.
An auditor’s responsibility to express an opinion on the financial statements is
Explicitly represented in the responsibility paragraphs of the auditor’s standard report.
GAAS require an auditor to express an opinion on the financial statements. That responsibility is EXPLICITLY represented in the Auditor’s Responsibility paragraphs of the auditor’s standard report which states that the auditor’s responsibility is to express an opinion.
After field work audit procedures are completed, a partner of the CPA firm who has not been involved in the audit performs a second or wrap-up working paper review. This second review usually focuses on
The fair presentation of the financial statements in conformity with GAAP.
The review by a second partner is part of a firm’s quality control system. It is performed to ensure the fair presentation of the financial statements in conformity with GAAP. While this particular step was not specifically discussed in the Study Text, it is a common part of firm quality control systems and thus important to know (as evidenced by its past inclusion in the exam). If your knowledge of this area is a little hazy, consider looking it up in an auditing textbook for more detailed coverage.
GAAS require the auditor’s report to contain either an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements or an assertion to the effect that an opinion cannot be expressed. The objective of this requirement is to prevent
Misinterpretations regarding the degree of responsibility the auditor is assuming.
The objective of the requirement is to prevent misinterpretations regarding the degree of responsibility the auditor is assuming when his name is associated with financial statements.
The purpose of establishing quality control policies and procedures for deciding whether to accept or continue a client relationship is to
Minimize the likelihood of associating with clients whose management lacks integrity.
The AICPA’s Quality Control Standards identify 3 focal points in considering acceptance and continuance issues: (1) the integrity and reputation of management and other relevant persons associated with the entity; (2) whether the CPA has the competence and resources to perform the engagement; and (3) whether the CPA can comply with applicable legal and ethical requirements. Hence, a primary purpose of addressing the acceptance/continuance issues is to avoid association with clients whose management lacks integrity and clients who are otherwise regarded as too risky.