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242 Dental > Test 1 and 2 Qs > Flashcards

Test 1 and 2 Qs Flashcards

1
Q

True or False
The side, not the tip, of the beaver-tail ultrasonic scaling insert is used for supragingival cleaning.

A

True

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2
Q

True of False
Technicians should always recap needles with both hands; for better control.

A

False

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3
Q

True or False
Record keeping establishes a baseline: measurement of pockets, furcation exposure, mobility of teeth are useful in client compliance and follow up visits.

A

True

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4
Q

True or False
Chewing on tennis balls can lead to abrasion.

A

True

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5
Q

True or False
Inflammation of the tongue is known as glossitis

A

True

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6
Q

True or False
Ameloblasts create enamel

A

True

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7
Q

True or False
When using hand scaling and curretting instruments, if the instrument does not fit the curvature of the tooth, you can use the opposite end for adaption.

A

True

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8
Q

True or False
Peg teeth are abnormally formed supernumerary teeth in dogs and cats.

A

True

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9
Q

True or False
For improved safety, the power/ultrasonic scaler should be held with a firm/tight grip.

A

False

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10
Q

True or False
Sterilization of dental instruments is not necessary since the mouth is not sterile.

A

False

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11
Q

True or False
Bulldogs, Pugs, and Boxers are examples of breeds with Normal Class III occlusion.

A

True

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12
Q

True or False
When scaling with a hand scaler, always pull in a coronal direction.

A

True

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13
Q

When probing the gingival sulcus of a dog, a depth of ______ is considered abnormal.

a. 3mm
b. 1mm
c. 5mm
d. 2mm

A

c. 5mm

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14
Q

Lingual is defined as towards the______
a. Apex
b. Tongue 
c. Cheek 
d. Lips 

A

B. Tongue

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15
Q

The surface of the tooth below the gum line is covered with:
a. Enamel
b. Alveolar mucosa
c. Cementum
d. Dentin 

A

c. Cementum

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16
Q

Which of the following correctly list the dental formula for the adult feline?
a. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, Pm 2/3. M 1/2)= 30
b. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, Pm 3/3, M 1/1)= 30
c. 2(I 3/2, C 1/1, Pm 3/3, M 1/1)= 30
d. 2(I 3/3, C 1/1, Pm 3/2, M 1/1)= 30

A

d.
2(I 3/3, C 1/1, Pm 3/2, M 1/1)= 30

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17
Q

The tip of the tooth is called
a. Apex
b. Coronal
c. Neck
d. Cusp

A

d. Cusp

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18
Q

Dentin is produced by
a. Neutroblasts
b. Odontoblasts
c. Dentinoblasts
d. Ameloblasts

A

b. Odontoblasts

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19
Q

The surface of the tooth that faces the cheek
a. Distal
b. Palatal
c. Lingual
d. Buccal

A

d. Buccal

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20
Q

Through what structure do nerves and vessels pass into the root canal?
a. Cementum
b. Pulp chamber
c. Apical foramen
d. Dentine

A

c. Apical foramen

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21
Q

With the ultrasonic scaler, two types of devices in the hand piece can pick up the sound wave and turn it into
a. Compressed air
b. Torque
c. Vibration
d. Energy

A

d. Energy

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22
Q

The dental formula for the adult dog is
a. 2( I3/3, C1/1, PM 4/3, M 2/3)=42
b. 2( I3/3, C1/1, PM 3/2, M 1/1)=32
c. 2( I3/3, C1/1, PM 4/4, M 2/3)=42
d. 2( I3/3, C1/1, PM 4/4, M 3/2)=42

A

c. 2( I3/3, C1/1, PM 4/4, M 2/3)=42

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23
Q

Diseased tissue forms what is called a ____________ , while healthy tissue surrounding the tooth is known as the _____________.
a. furcation, gingival sulcus
b. abscess, epithelium
c. gross disease, neck of the tooth
d. pocket, gingival sulcus

A

d. pocket, gingival sulcus

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24
Q

What word identifies the instrument used for examining the crown’s surface?
a. periodontal probe
b. universal currette
c. sickle scaler
d. explorer
e. shepherd’s hook

A

d. explorer

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25
Q

To protect the pulp chamber from thermal damage during ultrasonic scaling, one should:
a. spend no more than 2 seconds on a tooth
b. use constant irrigation
c. use slow rotational speed
d. use the tip of the instrument
e. change hand pieces frequently

A

b. use constant irrigation

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26
Q

In the kitten, the deciduous premolars erupt at what age?
a. 2-3 weeks
b. 4-5 months
c. 3-6 weeks
d. 4 weeks

A

c. 3-6 weeks

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27
Q

Apical means toward the
a. tongue
b. cheeks
c. crown
d. root tip

A

d. root tip

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28
Q

Which of the following is a proper directional term for describing the locoation of a tooth surface?
a. mesial - farthest from the middle
b. distal - farthest from the midline
c. mesial - nearest the front
d. distal - nearest the midline

A

b. distal - farthest from the midline

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29
Q

The cat has which of the following numbers of maxillary and mandibular premolars in one half of the mouth?
a. 3 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 2 and 2
d. 3 and 3

A

a. 3 and 2

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30
Q

Which teeth on each side of the mouth in the dog have 3 roots?
a. mandibular 4th premolars and 1st and 2nd molar
b. maxillary 3rd and 4th premolar and 1st molar
c. mandibular and maxillary 4th premolars and 1st and 2nd molar
d. maxillary 4th premolars and 1st and 2nd molar

A

d. maxillary 4th premolars and 1st and 2nd molar

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31
Q

Using the triadan system, the proper way of describing the dog’s 1st upper left permanent premolar is
a. 306
b. 105
c. 205
d. 502

A

c. 205

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32
Q

Dentin is covered by
a. enamel above gumline and bone below
b. pulp above gumline and cementum below
c. cementum below gumline and enamel above
d. bone and pulp

A

c. cementum below gumline and enamel above

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33
Q

The carnassial teeth in dogs are
a. 109, 209 & 309, 409
b. 104, 204 & 304, 404
c. 108, 208 & 309, 409
d. 108, 208 & 308, 408

A

c. 108, 208 & 309, 409

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34
Q

The location of the incisive papilla is best described as
a. at midline of palate, caudal to maxillary incisors
b. midline of mandible, caudal to mandibular incisors
c. under the lingual midline at the lingual frenulum
d. rostral to the maxillary incisors

A

a. at midline of palate, caudal to maxillary incisors

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35
Q

The four strucutres that make up the periodontium are:
a. dentin, odontoblasts, sulcus, alveolar mucosa
b. dentin, apical delta, enamel, pulp canal
c. sharpey’s fibers, odontoclasts, ameloblasts, apical foramen
d. gingival connective tissue, alveolar bone, periodontal ligament, cementum

A

d. gingival connective tissue, alveolar bone, periodontal ligament, cementum

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36
Q

The five benefits of powerscaling include
a. reducing tissue dinstention
b. reducing damage to root surface
c. all choices listed
d. reducing anesthesia time

A

c. all choices listed

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37
Q

Malocclusion in which one side of the mandible or maxilla is disproportionate to its other side
a. base-narrow mandibular canines
b. wry mouth
c. anterior crossbite
d. posterior crossbite

A

b. wry mouth

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38
Q

Malocclusion in which the upper fourth premolar lies palatal to the first molar
a. base-narrow mandibular canines
b. wry mouth
c. anterior crossbite
d. posterior crossbite

A

d. posterior crossbite

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39
Q

Malocclusion in which the canines erupt in an overly upright position or the mandible is narrowed
a. base-narrow mandibular canines
b. wry mouth
c. anterior crossbite
d. posterior crossbite

A

a. base-narrow mandibular canines

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40
Q

Malocclusion in which one or more of the upper incisor teeth are caudal to the lower incisors
a. base-narrow mandibular canines
b. wry mouth
c. anterior crossbite
d. posterior crossbite

A

c. anterior crossbite

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41
Q

Baby teeth are also called ________ or _______.

A

primary or deciduous

42
Q

The normal space between teeth is known as the____area, while gaps between teeth such as between the upper 3rd incisors and canine teeth is known as the ______________.

A

interproximal area

diastema

43
Q

The _________ is the area where two roots join the crown.

A

Furcation

44
Q

The condition knows as Class __ malocclusion that is caused by a short upper jaw and is known in AVDC terminology as ____ ___

A

Class III, mandibular mesiocclusion

45
Q

Pink/purple discoloration of a tooth indicate __ in the pulp canal.

A

blood/hemorrhage

46
Q

An abnormal opening between the oral and sinus cavities is called
____.

A

oronasal fistula

47
Q

Inflammation of the periodontal tissues including periodontal ligament and alveolar bone is known as: _________

A

Periodontitis

48
Q

What is the difference between tooth luxation and avulsion?

A

Luxation: partial displacement of a tooth
Avulsion: total displacement of a tooth

49
Q

Normal sulcus depths in cats is __________, while for dogs it is_______.

A

0-1mm, 1-3mm

50
Q

The non-AVDC term for underbite is ____

A

Prognathism

51
Q

With hand instruments a ___________ blade reflects light, whereas a __________ blade does not.

A

dull, sharp

52
Q

The difference between a gemini tooth and twinning or fused tooth is that in gemini the tooth appears as two teeth but has _________ root, while in twinning or fusion ______________ roots are fused togther.

A

gemini - one
twinning/fusion - two or more

53
Q

True or False
Halitosis is normal in dogs, therefore it is known as “doggy breath”.

A

False

54
Q

Stage 2 periodontal disease, or early periodontal disease, is still reversible.

A

False

55
Q

Biofilm is made up of normal healthy bacterial flora.

A

False

56
Q

Dead space is high in CO2 and low in O2.

A

True

57
Q

When intubating an animal, you want to use the smalles diameter ET tube possible for that patient to avoid tissue necrosis.

A

False

58
Q

The measuring landmarks for endotracheal intubation are from the incisors to the xipoid process.

A

False

59
Q

An increased respiratory rate could be a sign of an ineffective local/regional block or that the patient is experiencing pain.

A

True

60
Q

The removal of cementum is mandatory to reduce the amount of bacteria and debris subgingivally.

A

False

61
Q

Root planing is the chemical removal of plaque and calculus from the crown and root surfaces.

A

False

62
Q

The thin film covering the tooth that comprises bacteria, saliva, and food particles is:
a. Tartar
b. Erosion
c. Plaque
d. Calculus
e. Attrition

A

c. Plaque

63
Q

Topography is:
a. Caused by periodontal disease
b. The way the gingiva flows from tooth
to tooth
c. The inflamed appearance of the gums with periodontal disease
d. The way gingival mucosa bleeds when checking for pockets
e. Another word for halitosis

A

b. The way the gingiva flows from tooth
to tooth

64
Q

The following statements are all true except
a. The periodontal probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus parallel to the root of the tooth
b. Sulcus depth is measured using the shepherds hook
c. Sulcus depth is measured using a periodontal probe
d. A sulcus depth up to 1mm is normal in cats
e. A sulcus depth greater than 3 mm indicates periodontal disease

A

b. Sulcus depth is measured using the shepherds hook

65
Q

Chlorhexidine has the ability to adhere to the oral tissues and release its properties _______.
a. Slowly
b. Effectively
c. Rapidly
d. Orally

A

a. Slowly

66
Q

Single-rooted teeth in the dog are
a. Incisors, canines, second premolars, and maxillary third molar
b. Incisors, canines, first premolars, and maxillary third molar
c. Incisors, canines, second premolars, and mandibular third molar
d. Incisors, canines, first premolars, and mandibular third molar

A

d. Incisors, canines, first premolars, and mandibular third molar

67
Q

Which of these teeth have 3 roots?
a. Mandibular first molar
b. Maxillary fourth premolar
c. Maxillary canine
d. None of the above 
e. Mandibular first premolar

A

b. Maxillary fourth premolar

68
Q

_____________ is the less densely keratinized gingival tissue covering the bone.  
a. Gingival mucosa
b. None of the above
c. Attachment apparatus
d. Alveolar bone
e. Alveolar mucosa

A

e. Alveolar mucosa

69
Q

Which stage of dental disease has severe pocketing, bleeds easily on probing, with/without pus on probing, bone loss and mobility (ie. advanced breakdown of periodontal structures and greater than 50% attachment loss)?

A

Stage 4 (PD 4)

70
Q

When performing dental prophylaxis, minimal safety equipement includes
a. only gloves and a mask are needed
b. gloves, mask, safety glasses, shoe covers
c. gloves, mask, safety glasses
d. only gloves are needed

A

c. gloves, mask, safety glasses

71
Q

After completing the polishing and rinsing of the teeth, you should
a. use a dental explorer to check for subgingival pathologies
b. record all previous findings in the chart
c. turn off the anesthetic machine
d. dry the teeth and apply fluoride

A

d. dry the teeth and apply fluoride

72
Q

Stomatitis is
a. inflammation of the soft tissues in the mouth
b. bad breath
c. halitosis
d. inflammation of the tongue

A

a. inflammation of the soft tissues in the mouth

73
Q

The most common dental procedure performed in the horse is known as
a. curettage
b. floating
c. scaling
d. quidding

A

b. floating

74
Q

Malocclusion can lead to dental disease for a number of reasons including all but which of the following?
a. accelerated developement of periodontal disease resulting from lack of normal wear and the normal flushing of the teeth with saliva
b. presence of resorptive lesions leading to the destruction of teeth
c. soft tissue trauma from teeth that are abnormally positioned
d. abnormal wear of teeth resulting from malposition leading to fracture and pulp exposure

A

b. presence of resorptive lesions leading to the destruction of teeth

75
Q

The furcation is best described as
a. the space between the teeth
b. the area between the cementum and enamel
c. the space between two occlusal surfaces
d. the space between two roots where they meet the crown

A

d. the space between two roots where they meet the crown

76
Q

Oronasal fistula can often occur secondary to
a. abscess of the mandibular canine
b. retained decidous maxillary canine
c. abscess of maxillary canine tooth
d. abscess of the maxillary PM4

A

c. abscess of maxillary canine tooth

77
Q

Which of the following statements about toy breed dogs is true?
a. enamel hypoplasia is more common in toy breeds
b. malocclusions are more rare in toy breeds than in giant breeds
c. Chronic impaction of the incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in chronic osteomyelitis
d. prognathism is considered a genetic defect in brachycephalic breeds

A

c. Chronic impaction of the incisor teeth with hair and debris often results in chronic osteomyelitis

78
Q

A biospy report confirms that an oral mass is an acanthomatous epulis; what can be said about this type of growth?
a. it is a benign tumor
b. it is likely to metastisize
c. it is a malignant tumor
d. “It’s not a tumor!”

A

a. it is a benign tumor

79
Q

Which one of these is NOT a benefit of ultrasonic periodontal therapy?
a. improves cleanliness
b. cavitation disrupts bacterial cell wall
c. more efficient removal of cementum
d. improves wound healing

A

c. more efficient removal of cementum

80
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a parameter to help evaluate whether an anesthetic block is effective?
a. respiratory rate
b. saturation percentage of oxygen
c. heart rate
d. blood pressure

A

b. saturation percentage of oxygen

81
Q

For accurate reading; periodontal probes should be held
a. for adaptation
b. with a firm grasp
c. parallel to the long axis of the tooth
d. at an angle

A

c. parallel to the long axis of the tooth

82
Q

One benefit of air drying the teeth with compressed air
a. is that it can cause crepitus
b. is that it can enter the bloodstream and cause air embollism
c. is that it helps reattach weakened periodontium
d. is that it helps to detect remaining plaque and calculus by turning it chalky white

A

d. is that it helps to detect remaining plaque and calculus by turning it chalky white

83
Q

Disclosing solution is used to
a. detect malocclusion
b. detect plaque/calculus
c. reveal defects in the enamel
d. detect whether or not the tooth is vital

A

b. detect plaque/calculus

84
Q

With periodontal debridement, ultrasonic scalers provide
a. Flushing or removal of debris
b. Water lavage
c. Improved wound healing
d. Better visualization of the tissues
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

85
Q

Fluoride acts to accomplish all but which of the following?
a. strengthens periodontal ligament
b. strengthens enamel
c. desensitize teeth
d. provide antibactertial activity

A

a. strengthens periodontal ligament

86
Q

reasons of how/why animals would develop periodontal disease

A

no home care
trauma
heredity/breed
age
health
chewing behavior/bad toys
diet grooming habits
occlusion
frequency of professional dental care

87
Q

signs the animal might show if periodontal disease present

A

bad breath
chewing patterns
bleeding gums
sitting by food bowl
drooling poss. w/ blood in saliva
pawing at mouth

88
Q

The dental formula for the adult feline is:

A

2(3/3I, 1/1C, 3/2P, 1/1M) = 30

89
Q

In the Triadan system, which teeth are described as the “carnassial” teeth?

A

108, 208
309
409

90
Q

VOHC stands for

A

Veterinary Oral Health Council

91
Q

Two things that are important in preventing aspiration of fluid and debris in anesthetic dentistry are:

A

cuffed endotracheal tube
gravity

92
Q

Regarding ultrasonic scaling, four things that prevent thermal damage of the teeth are:

A

water
time
continuous movement
use side of instrument not tip

93
Q

When polishing, to polish below the gumline the technique used where we tilt the polishing cup and apply slight pressure is called ________ the cup.

A

Flaring

94
Q

What ultrasonic tips are used subgingivally for periodontal debridement?
a. Beaver, perio
b. Perio, beaver
c. Furcation, beaver
d. Perio, furcation

A

d. Perio, furcation

95
Q

_____ strokes are used in root planing to create a smooth surface.
a. Cross-hatch
b. Curetting
c. Scaling
d. Push-pull

A

a. Cross-hatch

96
Q

The minimum depth of periodontal pocket into which a perioceutic can be instilled is

A

4 mm

97
Q

One of the reasons researchers believe cats develop stomatitis is an_____ reaction to plaque and the surrounding tooth

A

immune, immune-mediated

98
Q

_____ of all molars and premolars may be necessary to treat stomatitis.

A

Extraction

99
Q

The most common form of feline stomatitis is _____

A

Lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis

100
Q

The suspected causes for stomatitis are

A

The suspected causes for stomatitis are
1. Caustic ingestions
2. Uremia
3. Viral exposure
4. Plant foreign bodies
5. Allergic responses
6. Immune mediated

242 Dental (2 decks)

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