Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anesthesia > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

4 Phases

A

PA, Induction, Maintenance, Recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why do we use PA drugs?

A

Sedative/tranquilize, pre-emptive analgesia, Prevent bradycardia, decrease amount of gases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When do you give PA’s?

A

15-30 minutes prior to induction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

5 PA classifications

A

Anticholinergics, tranquilizers, alpha-2 agonists (sedatives), Opioids (narcotics), Neuroleptanalgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anticholinergic Drugs

A

Atropine, Glycopyrrolate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Autonomic Nervous System branches

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Epinephrine
(fight or flight) Increases HR, BP, RR
Bronchial dilation, decreases GI motility, Mydriasis, Increases blood glucose

A

Sympathetic NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vagus nerve

A

Runs to eyes, pharynx, larynx, trachea, lungs, heart, GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Parasympathetic NS

A

Acetylcholine

Routine body functions: decrease HR, BP, RR. Bronchial constriction, Increases GI motility, Miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Anticholinergics block:

A

Acetylcholine and the vagal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

SLURED <3

A 
Decrease salivery
Decrease Lacrimal
Contracts the urinary bladder
Causes bronchodilation
Causes mydriasis
Decreases digestion
Blocks bradycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Main reason for using an anticholinergic

A

Prevent Bradycardia, +/- dry secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tx of bradycardia and AV blocks

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Antidote for organophosphate (insecticide) poisoning

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Atropine duration

A

60-90 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Glycopyrrolate duration

A

4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tranquilizer groups

A

Phenothiazines, Benzodiazepines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why we use a Tranquilizer as a PA

A

Relaxation and calming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Do Tranq. have analgesia?

A

NO, but can improve analgesic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Phenothiazines

A

Acepromazine/Acetylpromazine (Promace®)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Diazepam (Valium®), Midazolam (Versed®), Zolezapam (in Telazol®)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acepromazine (Promace®)

A

Water soluble, YELLOW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ace duration

A

4-8-24hr up to 48hrs in geriatric, neonates or liver dz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Phenothiazines and Cats

A

Less pronounced effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Effects on Phenothiazines

A

Calming, Antiemetic, Antiarrhythmic, Antihistamine, Vasodilation, no significant respiratory or cardiac depression, Prolapse of the 3rd eyelid, penile prolapse, MAY lower seizure threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Main effect for Phenothiazine

A

Vasodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Max dose of Acepromazine

A

3mg (IM, SQ), NO reversal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Benzodiazepine Group

A

Diazapam (Valium®), Midazolam (Versed®), Zolazepam (In Telazol®)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Reversal agent for Benzodiazepine tranq.

A

Flumazenil (a specific antagonist for benzo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Effects of Benzodiazepines

A

Antianxiety and calming- can have excitment

31
Q

Alpha-2 agonists (Sedatives)

A

Xylazine (Rompun®), Medetomidine (Demitor®), Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor®)

32
Q

Reversal for Xylazine

A

Yohimbine

33
Q

Reversal for Medetomidine and Dexmedetomidine

A

Atipamezole

34
Q

Alpha-2 receptors produce

A

Analgesia, sedation, muscle relaxation

35
Q

Alpha-2 agonists Bind to

A

alpha-2 adrenoreceptors on sympathetic nerves within brain and spinal cord

36
Q

Effects of Alpha-2 agonists (sedatives)

A

sleepiness, muscle relaxation, short periods of analgesia, emetic

37
Q

Side effects of Alpha-2 agonists

A

Brady and arrhythmias, decreased CO, Hypotension, Respiratory depression

38
Q

Biggest side effect for Alpha-2 agonists

A

Peripheral vasoconstriction

39
Q

Xylazine (Rompun®) Solution

A

Small animals- 2%
Large- 10%
Avoid using in old and sick animals

40
Q

Medetomidine dosing

A

mcg per square meter of body surface

41
Q

Medetomidine and Dexmedetomidine reversal

A

Atipamezole

42
Q

Dexmedetomidine (Dexdomitor®)

A

Given before alpha-2 sedatives

43
Q

Opioids reversable?

A

Yes

44
Q

Opioids controlled?

A

Yes, all

45
Q

Opioids duration

A

12-24hrs

46
Q

3 types of opioid receptors in brain

A

Mu, Kappa, Sigma

47
Q

Agonists

A

Stimulate receptors

48
Q

Pure agonist

A

Full mu agonist

49
Q

Antagonists

A

Block receptors

50
Q

Pure agonist opioids

A

Morphine, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, methadone, fentanyl

Most effective for tx of severe pain

51
Q

Butorphanol opioid

A

Mixed agonist/antagonist

52
Q

Buprenorphine

A

Partial agonist

53
Q

Opioid reversal

A

Naloxone

54
Q

Opioid Respiratory Effects

A

Respiratory depression- Most common. ‘Using safe dosages, respiratory doesn’t have to be a problem’

55
Q

Opioid Thermo effect

A

Panting in some animals- brain mistakenly thinks animal is hot

56
Q

Dog/Cat opioid effects

A

Dog- Hypothermia

Cat- Hyperthermia

57
Q

Morphine (Duramorph®)

A

Pure agonist
produces analgesia with sedation
Emetic

58
Q

Morphine duration

A

4hrs in dogs

59
Q

Epidural morphine duration

A

12-24hrs

60
Q

Hydromorphone (Dilaudid®)

A

Pure agonist

5 times more analgesic potency than morphine

61
Q

Hydromorphone duration

A

4hrs

62
Q

Oxymorphone (Numorphan®)

A

Pure agonist

10 times more analgesic than morphine

63
Q

Fentanyl (Sublimaze®)

A

Pure agonist
100-150 times more analgesic potency
Most commonly used as CRI or Transdermal

64
Q

Fentanyl patch duration

A

takes 4-12hr in cats and 12-24 hrs in dogs to reach therapeutic blood levels
-Provides continuous steady analgesia for 3-5 days

65
Q

Butorphanol (Torbugesic®, Torbutrol®)

A

Mixed agonist/antagonist

Kappa agonist/Mu antagonist

66
Q

Butorphanol duration

A

1hr in dogs, 4hrs in cats

67
Q

Bupernorphine (Buprenex®)

A

Partial agonist, Partial Mu agonist

Mild to moderate pain

68
Q

Bupernorphine duration

A

6-8-12 hrs

69
Q

OTM

A

Oral transmucosal

Bupernophine cheek pouch in cats

70
Q

Opioid antagonist

A

Naloxane hydrocholride (Narcan®)

71
Q

Naloxane

A

blocks all 3 receptors

Also helpful in neonates after C-section, 1 drop under the tongue

72
Q

Elephant opioid

A

Etorphine (M99®) 3000-8000 times more potent

73
Q

Neuroleptanalgesia

A

Tranq/Sedative:
Ace/Butorphanol
Diazepam/Hydromorphone
Versed®/Fentanyl

Anesthesia (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions