Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Networking > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What command would you run from a windows command line to verify that a NIC can send and receive IPv4 packets?

A

ping 127.0.0.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

At what layer of the OSI model does the internet protocal work?

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is a valid IP address for an individual system expressed in dotted decimal notation.

A

215.233.32.91

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the range of decimal values in each of the four groups of an IPv4 address?

A

0 to 255

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal value 97?

A

0110001

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the MAC broadcast address?

A

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following statements about subnet masks is NOT true?

A

A “0” in the subnet masks indicates part of the network ID.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When viewed in binary, what value is always on the far left in the first octet of a Class A address?

A

0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If the first decimal value of an IP address is between 128 and 191, to what IP class does the network belong?

A

Class B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the maximum number of hosts you may have on a network if the first decimal value of the IP address is between 192 and 223 and the subnet mask is 24?

A

254

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following subnet masks is an example of classless subnetting?

A

/12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is not a designated private IP address?

A

153.6.2.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following automatically gives out IP information to computers that request it?

A

DHCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long is a subnet mask?

A

32 bits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What network protocol do Linux and Apple (Macintosh) systems most commonly use today?

A

TCP/IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The decimal value 151 converts to what binary value?

A

10010111

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Convert the binary value 11010101 to decimal.

A

213

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This is done by an ISP when it takes a block of addresses, subnets the block into multiple subnets, and then passes out the smaller individual subnets to customers.

A

CIDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the two names for dynamic IP addressing?

A

Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

This is done by an organization when it takes a block of addresses received from an ISP and breaks the single block of addresses into multiple subnetworks.

A

subnetting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

If your network subnet mask is/16, what is the maximum number of host IDs available for this network?

A

65,534

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At what layer of the OSI model does the Internet protocol (IP) work?

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is the formula you would use to arrive at the number of hosts on a subnet.

A

2(number of zeroes in the subnet mask)-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is an IP addressing notation that uses a slash and is named for the method of generating blocks of IP addresses?

A

CIDR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is the correct formula for calculating the number of new subnets?

A

2(number of network ID extension digits)-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What command can you use to test the NIC’s ability to send and receive packets?

A

ping 127.0.0.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which protocol uses datagrams as its Protocol Data Unit?

A

UDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following protocols are connection-oriented?

A

TCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following protocols uses TCP as its transport layer protocol?

A

HTTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

At which layer of the TCP/IP protocol stack do HTTP, FTP, and DNS reside?

A

Application layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following are NOT contained in a UDP header?

A

acknowledgement number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many layers does the OSI model contain?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Select the one function below that a NIC does NOT perform.

A

It routes data across the most efficient route on the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How long is a MAC address?

A

12 hexadecimal characters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A MAC address is composed of which two parts?

A

the organizationally unique identifier and the unique device ID of the NIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following is another name for a MAC address?

A

physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

NICs send and receive binary data as pulses of all of the following EXCEPT

A

gamma rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the length of the typical frame?

A

1500 bytes of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which statement best describes what happens to frames when the hub sends them to the NICs on the network?

A

The frames are received by every NIC, but only the NIC with the matching MAC address processes the frame.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where does the CRC come from in a network frame?

A

The sending NIC attaches it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which of the following is a broadcast MAC address?

A

FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Routers have which of the following capabilities?

A

They allow you to connect networks with different types of cabling or frames.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following statements best describes an IP address?

A

It is a unique dotted decimal number assigned to every network node.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

All of the following statements are true about the OSI model EXCEPT ____________.

A

Each protocol needs to understand all of the protocols handling all the other layers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which standards organization is named for the Greek word for “equal”?

A

ISO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which layer of the OSI model manages the connections between machines on the network?

A

Session

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

When it receives data from the upper layers, which layer of the OSI model assembles the data into smaller pieces called packets?

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Which layer of the OSI model uses routers and IP addresses to ensure that packets arrive at the correct system?

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which layer of the OSI model adds source and destination MAC addresses to frames?

A

Data Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In some networks data moves over radio waves, which fall into which layer of the OSI model?

A

Physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What layer of the OSI model refers to the code built into operating systems that enables network-aware applications?

A

Application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following best describes Logical Link Control (LLC)?

A

It is a sublayer of the Data Link layer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Anything that moves data from one system to another, such as cabling or radio waves, is part of this layer of the OSI model.

A

Layer 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which layer of the OSI model is the only layer divided into two sublayers?

A

Data Link

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of these statements best describes an Application Program Interface?

A

It is a set of commands, provided by the manufacturer of an operating system, which allows programmers to create applications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

For a network tech, one benefit of understanding the OSI seven-layer model and how traffic in an actual network works through the model is applying this knowledge to _______________ networks.

A

troubleshooting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What device do you need to split a large network into smaller ones?

A

router

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How does the receiving station on a network use the CRC to verify that it received accurate data?

A

It uses the same divisor as the sending station to find the same remainder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the Network layer unique identifier assigned to each device on a TCP/IP network?

A

IP address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Routers function at which layer of the OSI model?

A

Network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Routers function at which layer of the TCP/IP model?

A

Internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which TCP/IP model layer uses connection-oriented protocols?

A

Transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which layer of the TCP/IP model is mapped to the top three layers of the OSI model?

A

Layer 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which layer of the TCP/IP model performs IP addressing functions?

A

Layer 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many cable fibers are normally required by almost all network technologies that use fiber-optic cable?

A

Two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If the computers on the network connect via the same piece of cable, what topology is employed?

A

bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

With both bus and ring networks, where is the single point of failure that will bring down the entire network?

A

the cable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What kind of cable is described as a central conductor wire, surrounded by insulating materials, placed inside a braided metal shield?

A

coaxial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the most common use of coaxial cable in networking today?

A

connecting a cable modem to an Internet Service Provider (ISP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the only important measure of coax cabling?

A

Ohm rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the minimum category rating of UTP cabling you would need for a network that runs at 1000 Mbps?

A

CAT5e

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What distance can a signal travel on a fiber-optic cable?

A

tens of kilometers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What type of fiber-optic cable uses lasers to send signals?

A

single-mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which of the following cable types does NOT use copper wires?

A

fiber-optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What rating defines how much a cable resists the flow of electricity?

A

Ohm rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

UTP category ratings are based on what?

A

The highest frequency and bandwidth that the cable can handle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which kind of cable does not provide any protection against EMI?

A

UTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of UTP cabling?

A

It is not susceptible to electro-magnetic interference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which kind of cable works best for long-distance transmissions?

A

fiber-optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following describes the numeric designator on fiber-optic cables?

A

the size of the fiber and the size of the cladding measured in millionths of a meter (microns)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which kind of cabling would you select when you need to cover distances that span kilometers?

A

fiber-optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Most network technologies that use fiber-optics use which type of fiber-optic cables?

A

multimode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What organization provides a variety of industry-wide cabling standards, such as those for serial, parallel, and FireWire?

A

IEEE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Which IEEE subcommittee sets the standards for Wireless LAN networks?

A

802.11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What does the term “capacitance” refer to?

A

how long it takes a wire to get a full charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

In response to demand for the most common configuration of fiber-optic cable, manufacturers created this type of fiber-optic cabling.

A

duplex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Which statement is true about Category ratings for cables?

A

UTP has a category rating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

At which layer of the OSI model does network cabling belong?

A

Physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What term describes a practical application of a topology and other critical technologies that provide a method to get data from one computer to another on a network?

A

network technology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which connector is used for UTP cabling on a network?

A

RJ-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How many binary digits are in an IPv4 address?

A

32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?

A

255.255.255.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What is the de facto protocol suite of the Internet?

A

TCP/IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The addresses 127.0.0.1, 10.1.1.50, 172.16.200.1, and 192.168.35.44 are all examples of what?

A

special IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

On a TCP/IP network, what information within a packet does a router use to determine where an incoming packet should go?

A

destination IP addresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Routers using the OSPF protocol are organized into these groups.

A

Areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

C Which type of NAT is the most popular?

A

Overload NAT

PAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the term used for the passage of a packet through a router?

A

hop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Which of the following could be a valid Autonomous System Number (ASN)?

A

1.33457

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Which of the following protocols would you expect to find used as an interior gateway protocol within an Autonomous System?

A

OSPF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which of these routing protocols is the oldest?

A

RIP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the maximum number of hops allowed by RIP?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Which of the following is the distance vector routing protocol used on the Internet?

A

BGP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the protocol developed by Cisco for enterprise-wide routing environments?

A

EIGRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Which of the following attributes does not apply to those OSPF routing method?

A

It uses a link state algorithm

(It sends routing information at regular intervals even if there are no changes.

106
Q

In a NAT router, what is the name for an arbitrary number generated by the sending computer?

A

Ephemeral Port

source port

107
Q

What is the one protocol used on the Internet for communication between Autonomous Systems?

A

Border Gateway Protocol (BGP-4)

108
Q

What protocol (including version number) was adopted in 1994, and is now considered obsolete except for small, private WANs?

A

RIPv2

109
Q

Local connections do not use this, although every routing table has a column for it, and therefore, a value appears in this field for each route.

A

gateway

110
Q

Select the distance vector protocols from the following list. (Select all that apply.)

A

B, C, and D

111
Q

Select the link state dynamic routing protocol from the following list. (Select all that apply.)

A

IS-IS

112
Q

If your company has a single server on the private LAN that they want to make accessible from the Internet, which of the following would give the server the protection of NAT while allowing access to that server from the Internet?

A

port forwarding

113
Q

Which of the following would be a valid Area ID?

A

0.0.0.0

114
Q

Who assigns Area IDs?

A

Network administrators

115
Q

With this type of NAT, many computers can share a pool of routable IP addresses that number fewer than the computers.

A

Dynamic NAT

116
Q

When a NAT router uses this in conjunction with IP addresses, it helps to solve the two problems of security and limited IP addresses.

A

TCP/IP port numbers

117
Q

Some manufacturers, such as Cisco, use this term to refer to either overloaded NAT or port forwarding.

A

Port Address Translation (PAT)

118
Q

What is the name of the proprietary cable designed by Cisco for connecting to their routers?

A

Yost

119
Q

An administrator managing many routers should be using this type of tool in order to have an overall view of all the routers.

A

Network Management System (NMS)

120
Q

Which one of the following routing metrics determines the largest frame a particular technology can handle?

A

MTU

121
Q

Which one of the following routing protocols did not support Variable-Length Subnet Masking (VLSM)?

A

RIPv1

122
Q

Which one of the following NAT technologies uses port numbers to map traffic from specific machines on the network?

A

PAT

123
Q

Which of the following routing metrics, administratively assigned to links, affect which routes are chosen?

A

cost

124
Q

Which of the following routing metrics is the ability of a connection to handle more traffic than others?

A

bandwidth

125
Q

At what layer of the OSI model does the set of protocols indicated by the TCP part of TCP/IP work?

A

Transport

126
Q

What protocol, replaced in recent years by a more secure protocol, was for many years the primary protocol used to allow a user to log in remotely and execute text-based commands on a remote host?

A

Telnet

127
Q

A communication between computers that begins with an acknowledgement, followed by a message, and ends with a closing acknowledgement, is which type of communication?

A

connection-oriented

128
Q

Most computer connections use this Transport layer protocol.

A

TCP

129
Q

What function is being used if a packet is sent to port 80?

A

Web browsing

130
Q

What is the protocol of choice for very simple applications that never need more than a single packet?

A

ICMP

131
Q

What Transport layer protocol does Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) use?

A

UDP

132
Q

If you cannot receive e-mail, which of the following protocols should you suspect is not working properly?

A

POP3

133
Q

Which protocol enables routers to communicate with hosts to determine a group membership for multicast communications?

A

IGMP

134
Q

What name is given to the port numbers in the range of 0 to 1023?

A

well-known port numbers

135
Q

When a Web browser sends a message to a Web server, it generates this type of port number pseudo-randomly as the source port for the packet.

A

ephemeral port number

136
Q

This type of port has a number in the 1024 to 49151 range.

A

registered port

137
Q

This is another name for a session.

A

connection

138
Q

Which TCP port(s) does File Transfer Protocol (FTP) use?

A

20 and 21

139
Q

What protocol handles outgoing e-mail?

A

SMTP

140
Q

What file transfer protocol uses UDP port 69, and does not use user names and passwords?

A

TFTP

141
Q

This is the “show me the endpoint” command.

A

netstat

142
Q

What is the status of a port that is part of an active working endpoint pair?

A

established port

143
Q

What status indicates that a connection has made a graceful closure?

A

close_wait

144
Q

What status indicates that a connection has been lost to the other side, and has not yet closed?

A

time-wait

145
Q

What is the name for the number used by the operating system to track all running programs?

A

process ID (PID)

146
Q

Microsoft Internet Explorer and Mozilla Firefox are examples of this type of TCP/IP application.

A

Web client

147
Q

This Web server was originally created for the UNIX/Linux platforms, but now comes in a version for Windows.

A

Apache HTTP Server

148
Q

This is the underlying protocol on the World Wide Web.

A

HTTP

149
Q

This is the secure counterpart of HTTP.

A

HTTPS

150
Q

Almost every server application has a way for you to access and administer it using this older protocol.

A

Telnet

151
Q

This protocol is an alternative to POP3, with special enhancements.

A

IMAP4

152
Q

While there are many e-mail server programs, this one is the leader among those used on Linux and UNIX systems, controlling about 20 percent of all e-mail servers, and only running the SMTP protocol.

A

sendmail

153
Q

What is the term for the servers just below the DNS root servers?

A

top-level domain servers

154
Q

Which of the following statements is true about DNS root servers?

A

They have the complete definitive name resolution table.

155
Q

Which of the following is the record type for an authoritative DNS server?

A

SOA

156
Q

Which of the following is the latest version of Microsoft’s folder- and printer-sharing protocol?

A

CIFS

157
Q

What term best describes the way the DNS name space is organized?

A

hierarchical

158
Q

Which of the following characters is not permitted in a DNS domain or host name?

A

Spaces

159
Q

In the syntax for a domain name, what character or characters separates a domain name from its subdomains?

A

.

160
Q

Which is the correct sequence according to the DNS naming convention?

A

host.domain.root

161
Q

Including the separators, what is the maximum number of characters allowed by the DNS naming convention?

A

255

162
Q

How is the address 127.0.0.1 listed in the HOSTS file?

A

localhost

163
Q

What enables a DNS server to determine an FQDN by knowing the IP address?

A

ping

164
Q

Which of the following is not a top-level domain name?

A

.html

165
Q

What organization oversees the registration of domain names?

A

ICANN

166
Q

On an authoritative DNS server, what are the storage areas called that hold the IP addresses and names of systems for a particular domain or domains?

A

forward lookup zones

167
Q

Which of the following would confirm that you have a DNS problem?

A

Ping works with the IP address but not with the FQDN.

168
Q

What program, available with Windows (except 9x), Linux, and NetWare, provides all types of information from a DNS server and allows you to change how your system uses DNS?

A

nslookup

169
Q

What type of server resolves NetBIOS names to IP addresses?

A

WINS

170
Q

Which of the following is a situation in which a network with NetBIOS clients would not need to use WINS?

A

It can broadcast across its entire network.

171
Q

How do WINS servers learn the NetBIOS names of computers on the network?

A

The computers register their names with the WINS server.

172
Q

Which of the following is the most common WINS/NetBIOS problem?

A

Two systems share the same name.

173
Q

What command can you use to check the current NetBIOS name cache to see if it has provided inaccurate addresses to the WINS client?

A

nbtstat

174
Q

What command-line command allows you to see other NetBIOS systems?

A

net view

175
Q

What kind of DNS server has no responsibility for giving the names of its clients to other DNS servers?

A

cache-only server

176
Q

Which of the following is true of the names in a flat name space?

A

Each must be unique.

177
Q

Which statement is true about NetBIOS name broadcasts?

A

The host sends the message to all machines on the local network.

178
Q

Which type of forward lookup zone exists on a DNS server that acts as a backup?

A

secondary

179
Q

Which technology allows DNS servers to query DHCP servers for host IP addresses?

A

Dynamic DNS

180
Q

Which technology allows DNS clients to automatically update DNS servers?

A

Dynamic DNS

181
Q

Which type of DNS allows the zone information to be stored across multiple domain controllers?

A

Active Directory-integrated zones

182
Q

Which service would allow home or office networks that may change IP addresses to be contacted via domain names?

A

Dynamic DNS

183
Q

Which term means to scramble, to mix up, and to change data in such a way so that the wrong people cannot read it, but the right people can unscramble it?

A

Encryption

184
Q

Which term refers to the result of running cleartext through a cipher algorithm using a key?

A

Cipertext

185
Q

Which block cipher is used by most TCP/IP applications?

A

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

186
Q

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

A

Data Encryption Standard (DES)

187
Q

Which type of algorithm is used when two different keys are used in encryption?

A

Asymmetric-key

188
Q

Which term defines what an authenticated person can do with data?

A

Authorization

189
Q

Authorization

A

Algorithm

190
Q

Which layer of the OSI model is a common place for encryption using proprietary encryption devices?

A

Layer 7

191
Q

Which term describes a mathematical function that you run on a string of binary digits of any length that results in a value of some fixed length?

A

Hash

192
Q

Which cryptographic hash comes in several versions?

A

Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA)

193
Q

Which term refers to a standardized type of digital signature that includes the digital signature of a third party?

A

Certificate

194
Q

Which organization is the biggest player in the certificate authority market?

A

VeriSign

195
Q

Which authentication method is the most common authentication method for dial-up connections?

A

MS-CHAPv2

196
Q

Which standard offers authentication, authorization, and accounting?

A

Terminal Access Control Access Control System Plus (TACACS+)

197
Q

Which authentication protocol is used in a TCP/IP network where many clients all connect to a single authenticating server with no point-to-point involved?

A

Kerberos

198
Q

What is another name for a timestamped service ticket?

A

Token

199
Q

Which port does the Kerberos authentication protocol use?

A

88

200
Q

Which technology is not a true protocol in the classic sense?

A

802.1X

201
Q

Which of the following is an example of a network operating system in a classic client/server network?

A

Novell NetWare

202
Q

Computers that both serve and request data participate in which kind of network?

A

Peer-to-peer

203
Q

Which operating system was once a common example of an operating system designed for peer-to-peer networking?

A

Windows 98

204
Q

Peer-to-peer applications are often referred to simply as __________.

A

P2P

205
Q

Which application uses the BitTorrent standard?

A

Bit torrent limewire utorrent

206
Q

Which type of network is created when you use encrypted tunnels between a computer or a remote network and a private network through the Internet?

A

Virtual private network (VPN)

207
Q

What TCP/IP protocol layer supports PPTP and L2TP?

A

Link

208
Q

Which tools are tunneling protocols?

A

PPTP and L2TP

209
Q

What is the result of running “Create a New Connection” on the Windows client side of a PPTP VPN connection?

A

A virtual NIC is created.

210
Q

On the Windows client side of a PPTP VPN connection, where does a client get an IP address from after it creates a virtual NIC?

A

DHCP server

211
Q

Which protocol suite does L2TP use for all of its security needs?

A

IPsec

212
Q

A type of VPN connection, where a single computer logs into a remote network and becomes, for all intents and purposes, a member of that network, is commonly called a(n) __________ connection.

A

virtual

213
Q

Which protocol was a Cisco proprietary protocol that was replaced by L2TP?

A

L2F

214
Q

Cisco has made a big push for companies to adopt VPN hardware that enables VPNs using __________.

A

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

215
Q

What are the two most common types of SSL VPNs?

A

SSL portal VPNs and SSL tunnel VPNs

216
Q

A __________ VPN deals with a specific single connection between two machines using VPN software or hardware.

A

site-to-site

217
Q

In which type of VPN does the client browser run an active control, such as Java or Flash?

A

SSL tunnel

218
Q

To configure a switch, you will need a(n) __________.

A

IP address

219
Q

Which type of network is created when you segment a network using the switches you already own?

A

Virtual LAN

220
Q

VLANs require special __________ loaded with extra programming to create the virtual networks.

A

switches

221
Q

Which device takes a circuit and combines it with a few hundred other circuits into a single complex circuit on one wire?

A

Multiplexer

222
Q

Which technology is used by multiplexers to separate individual voice calls by keeping every call in its own unique frequency range?

A

Frequency division multiplexing (FDM)

223
Q

Which digital signal rate does a central office use to convert analog voice signals before multiplexing them into larger circuits?

A

DS0

224
Q

Which device converts an analog signal to digital and a digital signal to analog?

A

Modulator-demodulator

225
Q

How many copper wires are used by a T1 line?

A

two pair

226
Q

Which device connects to each end of a T1 connection?

A

CSU/DSU

227
Q

Which digital signal rate is used by a T1 line?

A

DS1

228
Q

Which digital signaling rate has a frame containing a framing bit and 24 channels where each channel holds a single 8-bit DS0 data sample?

A

DS1

229
Q

What is the data transfer speed for DS1?

A

1.544 Mbps

230
Q

How many channels are in a T1 bundle?

A

16

231
Q

What is the European counterpart to a T1 line?

A

1.544

232
Q

What is the approximate total bandwidth of an E3 line?

A

2.048

233
Q

What is the low end speed of the SONET Optical Carrier specification (OC-1)?

A

51.8 Mbps

234
Q

Which term refers to the first generation of packet-switching technology?

A

X.25

235
Q

Which term refers to a technology that serves as a replacement for Frame Relay and ATM switching?

A

Multi-Protocol Label Switching (MPLS)

236
Q

What is the range of transfer speed for ATM?

A

155.52 to 622.08 Mbps and beyond

237
Q

What is the size of an ATM fixed-length cell?

A

53 bytes

238
Q

Which test should a network administrator run on a CSU/DSU to test a WAN connection and verify the T-carrier connection from end to end?

A

BERT

239
Q

Which phone line has a baud rate of 2,400 and uses an RJ-11 connector?

A

PSTN

240
Q

Which device takes 8-bit-wide digital data, converts it into 1-bit-wide digital data, and then hands it to a modem for conversion to analog?

A

UART

241
Q

Which standard is the common wireless networking standard?

A

IEEE 802.11

242
Q

Which term represents the condition of whether a wireless device is connected?

A

Link state

243
Q

Which term represents a measurement of how well a wireless device is connecting to other devices?

A

Signal strength

244
Q

Which wireless network mode operates by allowing two or more PCs to communicate directly without cabling or any other intermediary hardware?

A

Ad hoc

245
Q

What type of unit is formed by two or more wireless nodes communicating in ad hoc mode?

A

Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS)

246
Q

What type of unit is formed by a single WAP servicing a given area?

A

Extended Service Set (ESS)

247
Q

What type of unit is formed by a single wireless access point servicing a given area that has been extended by adding more access points?

A

Basic Service Set (BSS)

248
Q

Which term defines the most basic infrastructure mode network – a BSS of one WAP and one or more wireless nodes?

A

Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID)

249
Q

What is used as the Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID) for a Basic Service Set (BSS)?

A

The MAC address of the WAP

250
Q

What do wireless nodes in an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS) use in place of the Basic Service Set Identifier (BSSID value in each frame?

A

The MAC address of the WAP

251
Q

Which term did Wi-Fi people create to use as another level of naming to describe a standard name applied to the BSS or IBSS to help the connection happen?

A

Service Set Identifier (SSID)

252
Q

Which spread-spectrum broadcasting method sends data out on different frequencies at the same time?

A

DSSS

253
Q

Which term describes a portion of the available spectrum available for Wi-Fi network communication?

A

Channel

254
Q

How many channels were defined by the 802.11 standard?

A

14

255
Q

Which of the channels defined by the 802.11 standard may be used by a WAP using the 2.4-GHz band in the United States?

A

1 through 11

256
Q

__________ broadcasts data in small, discrete chunks over the different frequencies available within a certain frequency range.

A

Spread-spectrum

257
Q

Which 802.11 collision avoidance method is currently implemented?

A

CSMA/CA

258
Q

What happens when frames are transmitted on the network from two different devices at the same time, corrupting each other’s signals?

A

A collision occurs.

259
Q

Which term describes the predetermined silence period that is added to the length of a packet to determine the waiting period for a network device after it has detected traffic on the media?

A

Interframe gap

260
Q

Which Wi-Fi standard offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps, a range of up to about 300 feet, operates in the 2.4 GHz frequency, and is backward-compatible with an earlier, popular Wi-Fi standard?

A

802.11g

Networking (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions