Test 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is HIPPA?

A

Protects the privacy of patients.

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2
Q

What is FERPA?

A

Protects the privacy of student education records.

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3
Q

What is a RD?

A

Registered Diatician

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4
Q

What is a DPM?

A

Doctor of Pediatry

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5
Q

What is a DO?

A

Doctor of Osteopathy

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6
Q

What are some of the important components for an evaluation?

A

Location, quality/quantity, frequency, onset, duration, and what aggravates/alleviates.

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7
Q

What are some of the conditions an ATC should look for while taking a patients family history?

A

Diabetes, Heart Disease, Hypertension, kidney disease, cv disorders, allergies, asthma, mental illness, additions.

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8
Q

What does a BP cuff that is too small do to an individuals BP?

A

Raises their BP

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9
Q

What is considered normal for BP?

A

120/80

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10
Q

What is considered pre-hypertensive for BP?

A

120-139/80-89

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11
Q

Stage I Hypertension reading

A

140-189 / 90-99

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12
Q

Stage II Hypertensive ranges

A

> 160/>100

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13
Q

What is the reading for a patient in a hypertensive crisis?

A

> 180/>110

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14
Q

Bradycardia

A
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15
Q

Tachycardia

A

> 100 BPM

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16
Q

What is a sinus arrhythmia?

A

Occurs when a patients heart rate speeds up at the peak of inhalation, and slows to normal with expiration.

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17
Q

What is the best method for measuring core temperature?

A

Rectal Thermo

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18
Q

Which part of the stehoscope is used for listening to low-pitched sounds? High-pitched?

A

The bell is used for low, Diaphragm is used for high

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19
Q

What is an x-ray?

A

2D picture of a 3D body part; usually done from multiple angles.

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20
Q

What are the three common views for an x-ray?

A

anteroposterior (AP), posteroanterior (PA), Lateral View

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21
Q

Why would an ATC order an x-ray?

A

possible fracture, boney abnormality or deformity, tumor, arthritis, bone cancer, foreign object, infection, dental caries.

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22
Q

What is a Radionuclide Bone Scan?

A

Injection of radionuclide to assess bone abnormalities. Tracer emits gamma rays + is attracted to areas of increased metabolic activity.

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23
Q

What does a radionuclide bone scan identify?

A

stress fractures, bone infections, bone cancers, and arthritis.

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24
Q

What is a Fluoroscopy?

A

“Live” image to determine size, shape, and movement of tissue

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25
Q

What can a fluoroscopy be used for?

A

Look at blood flow, tumors, fractures, organs, foreign bodies, and some soft tissue injuries.

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26
Q

What is the purpose of a Computer Tomography Scan (CT)?

A

Gives us a better 3D image of the body, with the risk of more radiation exposure. Gives us a cross sections of organs, bone, soft tissue, and blood vessels.

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27
Q

What is a Positron Emission Tomography (PET)?

A

Imaging used to examine cell metabolism and biochemistry of tissue and organs. Glucose based radionuclide injection (or oral). This fluid will go to the areas of increased metabolic activity.

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28
Q

What can a PET scan identify?

A

Certain cancers, thyroid conditions, infections, and bleeding to evaluate kidney function.

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29
Q

What is an Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)?

A

Applies magnetic field to the body. Identifies tumors, musculoskeletal injuries, soft tissue conditions, fractures, and bleeding. Bone does not show up well with MRI.

30
Q

What is Diagnostic Ultrasound (sonography) used for?

A

identifies tumors, enlarged lymph nodes, heart abnormalities, soft tissue injuries, bleeding, and fetal development. Very popular for soft tissue injuries.

31
Q

What does OSHA stand for? What does the organization do?

A

Occupational Safety + Health Administration. They set standards to protect health care providers and their patients.

32
Q

What is Electromyography and Nerve Conduction involve and what used for?

A

It involves inserting a needle into a muscle and recording electrical activity. It records the strength of the reaction and the speed of the reaction. results are displayed on an oscilloscope, or as an audio signal.

They are used to determine the cause of muscular weakness and abnormal nerve conduction, which may be due to medical conditions such as muscular dystophy. myasthenia gravis, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

33
Q

What is electrocardiography and what is it used for?

A

It is done to determine whether the electrical activity of the heart is normal. charter on a graph as waveforms.

34
Q

What is a Holter Monitor?

A

It is worn by a patient to monitor the heart’s electrical activity, and works in the same manner as an ECG. Monitor is worn for 24 hours to 1 month, depending on the suspected condition.

35
Q

Cardiac Stress Test is used for….?

A

Used to look at the heart’s rhythm during exercise in a controlled environment. Used for patients who have several risk factors or are at medium risk of coronary heart disease.

36
Q

What is a Laparoscopy?

A

invasive procedure in which a small incision is made in the abdomen and a scope is inserted into the incision to view the inside of the abdomen. It allows the surgeon to see the internal structures of the abdomen and determine any abnormalities. It is used to diagnose conditions of the abdomen; to provide venue for surgical procedures for the gallbladder. appendix. uterus, and colon; and perform biopsies

37
Q

What does a Urinalysis test look for?

A

determines if pH, protein, glucose, ketone, bilirubin, hemoglobin, nitrite, leukocyte, urobilinogen, and specific gravity levels.

38
Q

What can a Urinalysis indicate?

A

UTI, diabetes, starvation, liver problems, inravascular hemolysis, bleeding in the renal system, and renal/glomerular damage.

39
Q

,What is a CBC (complete blood count)

A

A CBC presents a microscopic review of a blood sample. It is used to examine specific components of whole blood and expresses those components in designated units. i.e. high WBC counts can indicate an infection; low RBC counts and platelets can be caused by internal bleeding.

40
Q

Pulse Oximeter. What does it do?

A

noninvasive device that quickly measures the amount of oxygen in a person’s blood. Values below 95% saturation indicate hypoxia, levels below 85% indicate a critical condition

41
Q

What is the responsibility of the Food and Drug Administration?

A

FDA is an agency of the U.S. Department of health and human services. Its mission is to promote and protect the public health by helping safe and effective products reach the market in a timely way and monitoring products for continued safety after they are in use. FDA determines how drugs are marketed and sold in the US.

42
Q

What is the responsibility of the DEA? (drug enforcement administration)

A

Lies within the department of justice. Its function is to ensure compliance with the controlled substances act of 1970 and to implement the regulations found in Title 21. It registers health care practitioners who will be prescribing or dispensing controlled substances.

43
Q

Does the FDA oversee the marketing or sale of food supplements and herbal products?

A

no

44
Q

Define: Administration of drug

A

The direct application of a single dose of a drug.

45
Q

Define: Dispensing of a drug

A

The act of delivering a medication to an ultimate used pursuant to a medical order issued by a practitioner authorized to prescribe.

46
Q

What is Electromyography and Nerve Conduction involve and what used for?

A

It involves inserting a needle into a muscle and recording electrical activity. It records the strength of the reaction and the speed of the reaction. results are displayed on an oscilloscope, or as an audio signal.

They are used to determine the cause of muscular weakness and abnormal nerve conduction, which may be due to medical conditions such as muscular dystophy. myasthenia gravis, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

47
Q

What is electrocardiography and what is it used for?

A

It is done to determine whether the electrical activity of the heart is normal. charter on a graph as waveforms.

48
Q

What is a Holter Monitor?

A

It is worn by a patient to monitor the heart’s electrical activity, and works in the same manner as an ECG. Monitor is worn for 24 hours to 1 month, depending on the suspected condition.

49
Q

Cardiac Stress Test is used for….?

A

Used to look at the heart’s rhythm during exercise in a controlled environment. Used for patients who have several risk factors or are at medium risk of coronary heart disease.

50
Q

What is a Laparoscopy?

A

invasive procedure in which a small incision is made in the abdomen and a scope is inserted into the incision to view the inside of the abdomen. It allows the surgeon to see the internal structures of the abdomen and determine any abnormalities. It is used to diagnose conditions of the abdomen; to provide venue for surgical procedures for the gallbladder. appendix. uterus, and colon; and perform biopsies

51
Q

What does a Urinalysis test look for?

A

determines if pH, protein, glucose, ketone, bilirubin, hemoglobin, nitrite, leukocyte, urobilinogen, and specific gravity levels.

52
Q

What can a Urinalysis indicate?

A

UTI, diabetes, starvation, liver problems, inravascular hemolysis, bleeding in the renal system, and renal/glomerular damage.

53
Q

,What is a CBC (complete blood count)

A

A CBC presents a microscopic review of a blood sample. It is used to examine specific components of whole blood and expresses those components in designated units. i.e. high WBC counts can indicate an infection; low RBC counts and platelets can be caused by internal bleeding.

54
Q

Pulse Oximeter. What does it do?

A

noninvasive device that quickly measures the amount of oxygen in a person’s blood. Values below 95% saturation indicate hypoxia, levels below 85% indicate a critical condition

55
Q

What is the responsibility of the Food and Drug Administration?

A

FDA is an agency of the U.S. Department of health and human services. Its mission is to promote and protect the public health by helping safe and effective products reach the market in a timely way and monitoring products for continued safety after they are in use. FDA determines how drugs are marketed and sold in the US.

56
Q

What is the responsibility of the DEA? (drug enforcement administration)

A

Lies within the department of justice. Its function is to ensure compliance with the controlled substances act of 1970 and to implement the regulations found in Title 21. It registers health care practitioners who will be prescribing or dispensing controlled substances.

57
Q

Does the FDA oversee the marketing or sale of food supplements and herbal products?

A

no

58
Q

Define: Administration of drug

A

The direct application of a single dose of a drug.

59
Q

Define: Dispensing of a drug

A

The act of delivering a medication to an ultimate used pursuant to a medical order issued by a practitioner authorized to prescribe.

60
Q

Define: Pharmacology

A

Study of drugs and includes pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics.

61
Q

Define: pharmacokinetics

A

Describes how the body acts on the drug. This includes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of the drug from the body. How the body deals with the drug.

62
Q

Define: pharmakodynamics

A

Describes the actions of a drug on the body, including its mechanism of action and medicinal effect. What does the drug do to you?

63
Q

Define: Absorption

A

The process of getting the drug into the body through a variety of routes, including oral, rectal, etc.

64
Q

Define: Distribution

A

Process of moving the drug throughout the body.

65
Q

Define: Metabolism

A

Complex process by which a drug is changed into one or more chemical entities that differ from the parent drug.

66
Q

Define: Eliminatioin

A

Process of getting a drug out of the body

67
Q

Define: clearance

A

the measure of the body’s ability to eliminate a drug. Describes the volume of blood that is cleared of a drug over a given period of time.

68
Q

Define: Half-Life

A

The length of time that it takes for blood levels or tissue levels to decrease by one half.

69
Q

Why is a drug’s half-life important?

A

major factor in determining how often the drug will be given.

70
Q

Define: Agonist

A

drugs that exert their effect by attaching to the cellular receptors in the body, causing stimulation of the receptor

71
Q

Define Antagonist

A

Act by binding to cellular receptors, but they do not cause stimulation of the receptor.