Test 1 Flashcards
(325 cards)
1
Q
What are bone cells embedded in?
A
an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals
2
Q
What is the primary constituent of ground substance?
A
glycosaminoglycans
3
Q
What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?
A
chondroiten sulfate, keratin sulfate and hyaluronic acid
4
Q
What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?
A
collagen type I
5
Q
What is the most frequently discribed deposit in bone?
A
hydroxyapatite
6
Q
Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?
A
sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium
7
Q
What is Wolffe’s Law as it pertains to bone?
A
living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response
8
Q
What are the 3 responses of bone that allow it to be described as living?
A
it has the ability heal; remodel understressors and age
9
Q
What is bone the embryological derivative of?
A
mesenchyme or cartilage
10
Q
What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?
A
intramembranous ossification
11
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?
A
2nd-3rd month in utero
12
Q
What is the name give to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?
A
endochondral ossification
13
Q
What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?
A
2nd-5th month in utero
14
Q
What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?
A
chondrocranium
15
Q
Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones
16
Q
Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?
A
clavicle
17
Q
What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
A
primary ossification center if it happens before birth, secondary ossification if it happens after birth
18
Q
What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?
A
subchondral bone
19
Q
What is the name of the outer fibrocellular covering the bone?
A
periosteum
20
Q
What is the name given to the fibrocellular lining of spongy bone?
A
endosteum
21
Q
What are six more commonly used classification of normal bone?
A
long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid
22
Q
What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?
A
heterotopic and accessory bone
23
Q
What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?
A
heterotopic bone
24
Q
What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?
A
accessory bone
25
What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?
the diaphysis (shaft) and typically 2 epiphyses (extremities)
26
What is the primary characteristic of short bones?
they are essentially cuboidal
27
What are examples of short bones?
most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus
28
What are examples of flat bones?
parietal bone and sternum
29
What are examples of pneumatic bone?
frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal
30
What bones contain paranasal sinuses?
frontal, ethmoid maxilla and sphenoid
31
What is the characteristic of a sesamoid bone?
bone develops w/in a tendon
32
What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?
patella and pisiform
33
What are examples of heterotopic bone?
calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart and ligaments
34
What are examples of accessory bone?
para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae
35
What are the 4 basic surface feature categories?
elevations, depressions, tunnels/passageways, facets
36
What are the types of osseous elevations?
linear, rounded and sharp
37
What are the types of osseous linear elevations?
line, ridge and crest
38
What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?
tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber/tuberosity, malleolus
39
What is the definition of an osseous malleolus?
hammerhead-like elevation o the surface of bone
40
What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?
spine and process
41
What is the definition of the osseous elevation called "spine"?
a thorn-like elevation from the surface of the bone
42
What is the definition of an osseous process?
a relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased growth
43
What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?
notch/incisure, groove, sulcus
44
What is the definition of an osseous sulcus?
a wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone
45
What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?
fovea and fossa
46
What is the definition of an osseous fovea?
a shallow depression of variable circumfrence on the surface of bone
47
What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?
ostium or orifice and hiatus
48
What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?
an irregular opening on the surface of bone
49
What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely enetrate bone?
foramen or canal
50
What is the definition of an osseous foramen?
an ostium passing completely though a thing region of bone
51
What is the definition of an osseous canal?
an ostium passing completely though a thick region of bone
52
What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?
meatus
53
What is the definition of an osseous fissure?
an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones
54
What are the categories of osseous facets?
flat facets or rounded facets
55
What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?
articular heads and articular condyles
56
Which classification of synarthrosis joint implies a bond condition?
syndesmosis
57
What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?
synchondrosis
58
What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?
symphysis
59
What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?
malocclusion
60
What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?
interosseous ligament
61
What are examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?
most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacro-iliac joints
62
What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
they are primarily cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template
63
What are examples of a temporary cartilage joint?
metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint, chondrocranium
64
What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?
costchondral joints or the first sternochondral joint
65
Which cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary?
(amphiarthrosis) symphysis
66
what type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage
67
What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?
limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification
68
What are the classic exaples of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?
symphysis menti
69
What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints
articular fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid
70
Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the...
capsular ligament
71
What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support capsular ligaments?
intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments
72
What are the characteristics of the type II articular receptors?
located in the deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor joint during normal range of motion
73
What are the characteristics of the Type I articular receptors?
located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint at rest
74
What are the characteristics of Type III articular receptors?
present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vetrebral column and monitor extreme joint motion
75
What is the function of type IV articular receptors?
Nociceptive, they monitor pain
76
Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?
Fibrous capsule, articular fat pads, or adventitia/blood vessels
77
Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?
accessory igaments in general, dense in the posteroir lonitudinal ligament of the spine
78
Type IV articular receptors would be absent in what parts of the synovial joint?
synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial menisci or intra-articular discs
79
What are the 3 modifications of articular synovial membrane?
1) synovial villi 2) articular fat pads or Haverian glands 3) synovial menisci and intra-articular disc
80
What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?
aid in spreading synovial fluid
81
Where are the articular fat pads located?
in the fibrous layer of synovial membrane; they are absent from articular cartilage, synovial menisci, intra-articular disc
82
Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?
lumbar zygapophyses
83
Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joint examples?
temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclaviular and radio-ulnar joint
84
Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?
femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses
85
What are the layers of the synovial membrane?
outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer AKA synovial lamina intima
86
What are the specific functions of Type A synovial cells?
are phagocytic
87
What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?
secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid
88
What is the soure of nutrition for articular cartilage?
blood vessels in the synovial membrane, sinuses of the bone marrow cavity and from synovial fluid itself
89
Which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?
type II
90
What are proteoglycans composed of?
a core protein and glycosaminoglycans
91
What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?
form a network for water retention
92
Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as...
deformation
93
What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?
cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property
94
What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscero-elastic properties?
cartilage can deform and returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property
95
Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?
weeping theory
96
Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?
boosted theory
97
Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low friction observed during movement?
boundary theory
98
What are the properties of synovial fluid?
yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty
99
Which substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
lubricin
100
Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?
hyaluronate
101
What is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis)?
within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus
102
What are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthrosis) based on type of movement?
nonaxial, uniaxial, biaxial, multiaxial synovial joints
103
What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?
plane (diarthrosis or arthroidal)
104
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?
hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)
105
What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be considered biaxial?
(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
106
What morphological classification of synovial joints would be considered multiaxial?
ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis, (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid), [all same type of joint]
107
What are examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?
median alanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint
108
What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?
temporomandibular and femur-tibia joint of knee
109
What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?
radiocarpal joint of wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the alanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column
110
What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?
carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of ankle and calcaneocuboid joint of foot
111
What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?
femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder
112
What is the number of vertbrae in the typical adolescent?
33 segments
113
What is the number of vertebrae in the typical adult?
26 segments
114
What constitutes the spine?
24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae
115
How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?
5 segments
116
How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?
4 segments
117
Which mammals don't have 7 cervical vertebrae?
2 toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, 3 toed sloth
118
Which mammals have less than 7 cervical vertebrae?
2 toed sloth and manatee
119
Which mammals have more than 7 cervical vertebrae?
ant bear, 3 toed sloth
120
What does the term "cervical" refer to?
region of the neck
121
What does the term "thoracic" refer to?
breast plate or chest; referred to the armor bearing region of the torso
122
What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?
dorsal segments; dorsals
123
What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?
12 segments
124
What does the term "lumbar" refer to?
loin; region between rib and hip
125
What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?
5 segments
126
What does the term "sacrum" refer to?
holy bone or holy region
127
What does the term "coccyx" refer to?
a cuckoo bird's bill or cuckoo bird's beak
128
What is the length of a typical male spinal column?
70 cm, 28 in
129
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
60 cm, 25 in
130
What is the length of a typical female spinal column?
60 cm, 25in
131
What is the length of the male cervical region?
12 cm, 5 inches
132
What is the length of the male thoracic region?
28 cm, 11 in
133
What is the length of the male sacrum?
12 cm, 5 in
134
Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?
58 cm, 23 in
135
What levels of the vertebral column specifically accomodate weight-bearing transfer?
S1-S3 at aricular surface
136
What organs are specifically associated with horizontal axis of the skull?
eye and vestibular apparatus of the inner ear
137
Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic state?
notochord
138
What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?
paraxial mesoderm
139
What embryonic structure give to the somites?
paraxial mesoderm
140
Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.
sclerotome, myotome and dermatome
141
What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?
membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous
142
Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?
perichordal blastema
143
The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?
neural processes and costal processes
144
What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?
intersegmental artery
145
What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?
intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)
146
The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?
perichordal disc
147
The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a lose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?
vertebral blastema
148
What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?
segmental artery
149
When will cartilage first form in the membraous vertebral blastema?
beginning in the 6th embryonic week
150
What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?
chondrification
151
What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?
centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center
152
How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?
six: 2 for centrum, 2 for neural arches, 2 for each transverse process
153
What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilagenous vertebra?
during the 7th embryonic week
154
What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?
primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth
155
What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers
156
What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
centrum centers and neural arch centers
157
What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?
tip of transverse process, tip of spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers
158
What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?
during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old
159
What is the general shape of the verberal body at each region of the spine?
cervical-rectangular; thoracic-triangular; lumbar-reniform
160
What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?
superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate
161
What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?
the basivertebral venous foramen
162
What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?
the lamina-pedicle junction
163
What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?
cervical-posterolateral; thoracic-posterior, slight lateral; lumbar-posterior
164
All lamina are oriented in what direction?
posterior and median
165
What ligament will attach to the lamina?
the ligamentum flavum
166
What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?
para-articular process
167
What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?
accessory bone
168
What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-Ray?
shingling
169
What is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?
cervical-articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis
170
What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch-spinous process on lateral X ray?
spinolaminar junction
171
What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?
the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process
172
What is the generic orientation of the transverve process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?
cervical-anterolateral; thoacic-posterolateral; lumbar-lateral
173
What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?
the transverse tubercled
174
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?
cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position
175
What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?
the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward
176
What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?
zygapophysis
177
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-xygapophysis?
superior articular process or superior articular apophysis
178
What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?
the inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis
179
What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular processs/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum
180
What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure
181
What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure
182
What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?
the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament
183
What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?
superior and inferior epiphyseal plate
184
What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process?
calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process and the horizontal plant
185
What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes as seen on X-Ray?
imbrication
186
What is the orientation of the spinous process at each region of the spine?
cervical (slight angle inferiorly), thoracic (noticeable angle inferiorly), lumbar (no inferior angle)
187
What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?
cervical (triangular), thoracic (oval), lumbar (triangular), sacrum (triangular)
188
At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?
L1
189
At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?
S2
190
Identify all segmental arteries.
vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posteroir intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral
191
What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?
vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery
192
What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?
deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercostal and subcostal artery
193
What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?
the lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral artery
194
What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?
iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral artery
195
What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?
iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral artery
196
What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?
C1-C6
197
What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?
C1-C6
198
What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?
C7-T1
199
What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?
T1, T2
200
What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?
T3-T11
201
What segmental levels are supplied by the subcostal artery?
T12
202
What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?
L1-L4
203
Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries asociated with it?
L5
204
What are the segmental arteries for L5?
iliolumbar, median (middle) sacral and lateral sacral artery
205
What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?
dorsospinal artery
206
Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?
spinal artery
207
Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?
osseous, anterior spinal canal, posteroir spinal canal artery
208
Which arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior spinal canal artery and plexus
209
What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentaum flavum?
posteroir spinal canal artery and plexus
210
What branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?
anterior radicular, posterior radicular, anterior medullary feeder and posteroir medullary feeder artery
211
Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and root?
anterior radicular artery
212
Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?
posteroir radicular artery
213
What is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries present in the adult?
9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries
214
What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?
anterior spinal artery
215
The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the vertebral artery
216
Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?
no
217
As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
anterior medullary feeder artery
218
The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?
the posterior inferior cerebellar artery
219
What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?
it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord
220
Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?
no
221
As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?
posterior medullary feeder arteries
222
What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?
right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries
223
What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?
a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries and 3 communicating arteries
224
What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?
intramedullary arteries
225
What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?
pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcual perforating arteries
226
What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?
ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries
227
What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?
anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders
228
What vessels drain the spinal cord?
pial veins
229
What pial veins drain into?
venous vasa corona
230
Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?
right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins
231
Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?
anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins
232
What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?
posteior radicular veins
233
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?
anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein
234
What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
235
What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?
intervertebral veins
236
What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?
they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins
237
Identify the neninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis)?
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
238
What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?
interstitial fluid
239
Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?
posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum
240
What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?
serous fluid
241
What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?
cerebrospinal fluid
242
What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?
dentate ligament
243
In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?
transverse
244
What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?
C3-T1 the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement
245
Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?
C6
246
In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2-T11?
midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane
247
What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) englargement?
L1-S3 spinal nerve
248
What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?
conus medullaris
249
What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?
Typically S4, S5 and Co1
250
In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?
L1
251
What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?
cauda equina
252
What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?
filum terminale internum
253
What is the location and name given to the area where are meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?
typically S2, dural cul de sac
254
Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?
proximal part of the filum terminale internum
255
What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?
it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4
256
What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminal externum appear to innervate?
lower limbs and the external anal sphincter
257
The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?
cruciate anastomosis
258
What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?
filum terminale externum
259
What is the namegiven to the caudal attachement of the meninges?
coccygeal medullary vestige
260
What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?
tethered cord syndrome
261
What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?
it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord
262
What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a throacic intervertebral foramen?
the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the bertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
ie: T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple
263
Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebral?
ant bear, three-toed sloth
264
Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?
two-toed sloth, manatee
265
Which vertebrae are typical cervicals?
C3-C6
266
Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?
C1, C2, C7
267
What is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?
rectangular
268
What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?
posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters
269
What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?
posterior or kyphotic
270
What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?
intervertebral disc height
271
What is the direction of the typical cervical curve?
anterior or lordotic
272
Which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?
C5/C6
273
What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?
it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body
274
What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior groove, posteroir groove, right and left uncinate processes
275
What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?
uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip
276
At what developmental age will the uncinate process first be observed?
3rd-4th fetal month
277
What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?
anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves
278
What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
279
What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)
280
What is teh joint classification for spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?
cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis
281
How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?
5
282
How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?
ten
283
What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?
joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint
284
What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?
it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion-extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spinal
285
What bones form the axial skeleton?
skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs
286
What is the name given to the adult skull minuts the mandible
cranium
287
What are the anems givne to the top of the adult skull?
calvaria or calva
288
What is the total number of bones foring the typical adult skull?
28 bones
289
What bones form the typical adult neurocranium?
8 bones
290
How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?
14 bones
291
What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column?
spine
292
What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?
24bones
293
How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?
1
294
What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?
manubrium sterni, corpus sterni and xyphoid process
295
How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?
24 ribs, 12 pairs
296
What modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?
meniscoidal folds
297
What is the joint classification for the typical cervical zygapophysis?
synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia) joint
298
What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?
semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus
299
What muscles will attach to the typical cervical articular processes?
longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators
300
What is the orientation of the typical cervical interior articular facet?
forward, lateral, downward (FoLD)
301
What is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet
backward, upward, medial (BUM)
302
Reent work suggests what angulation for typical cervical articular facets?
55-60 degrres
303
What is the classic angulation of a typical cervical articular facet?
40-45 degrees from the coronal plane
304
What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?
groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
305
What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?
vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers
306
What will cause remodeling of the anterior tubercle at C6?
common carotid artery
307
What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?
carotid tubercle
308
What is the orientation and angulation fo a typical cervical transverse process?
60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from horizontal plane)
309
What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?
sulcus for ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve
310
What produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anterolateral and inferior directions?
cervical spinal nerves as they are direected anterolaterally and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses
311
What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?
middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii
312
What muscles may attach to the posteroir tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?
splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intervransversarii
313
What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?
anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransversarii
314
What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?
longus colli muscle
315
What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?
posterolateral, 45 degrees
316
At what location on the vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach?
to the side and in the center of the vertebral body
317
What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?
ligamentum flavum
318
What joint classification will be associated with the ligamentum flavum and its attachment?
fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis
319
Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?
para-articular processes
320
Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will be associated with which classification of bone?
accessory bone
321
What is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical vervical vertebra?
hear shaped or triangular
322
Which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervicals?
transverse
323
What soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?
transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord
324
The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at...?
C6
325
The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?
C5/C6
