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Spinal Anatomy Quizzie Questions > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are bone cells embedded in?

A

an amorphous matrix consisting of ground substance, protein fibers and various minerals

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2
Q

What is the primary constituent of ground substance?

A

glycosaminoglycans

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3
Q

What types of glycosaminoglycans predominate in bone?

A

chondroiten sulfate, keratin sulfate and hyaluronic acid

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4
Q

What is the principle type of protein fiber in bone?

A

collagen type I

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5
Q

What is the most frequently discribed deposit in bone?

A

hydroxyapatite

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6
Q

Bone is also the repository for what additional ions?

A

sodium, magnesium, fluoride, lead, strontium and radium

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7
Q

What is Wolffe’s Law as it pertains to bone?

A

living tissue will respond to stressors; bone is formed or absorbed in response

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8
Q

What are the 3 responses of bone that allow it to be described as living?

A

it has the ability heal; remodel understressors and age

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9
Q

What is bone the embryological derivative of?

A

mesenchyme or cartilage

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10
Q

What is the name given to the pattern of ossification in mesenchyme?

A

intramembranous ossification

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11
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of intramembranous ossification?

A

2nd-3rd month in utero

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12
Q

What is the name give to the pattern of ossification in cartilage?

A

endochondral ossification

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13
Q

What is the timing for the appearance of ossification in cartilage?

A

2nd-5th month in utero

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14
Q

What part of the skull is derived from endochondral ossification?

A

chondrocranium

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15
Q

Which skull bones are ossified by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

mandible, sphenoid, temporal and occipital bones

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16
Q

Which bone of the appendicular skeleton is formed by both endochondral and intramembranous ossification?

A

clavicle

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17
Q

What are the names given to the centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary ossification center if it happens before birth, secondary ossification if it happens after birth

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18
Q

What is the name given to the bone below an articulating surface?

A

subchondral bone

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19
Q

What is the name of the outer fibrocellular covering the bone?

A

periosteum

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20
Q

What is the name given to the fibrocellular lining of spongy bone?

A

endosteum

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21
Q

What are six more commonly used classification of normal bone?

A

long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, paranasal sinus or pneumatic bones and sesamoid

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22
Q

What are the classifications given to abnormal bone stressed in Spinal II?

A

heterotopic and accessory bone

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23
Q

What is the name given to bone formed in a non-bone location?

A

heterotopic bone

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24
Q

What is the name given to bone formed from existing bone?

A

accessory bone

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25
Q

What are the names given to the parts of a long bone?

A

the diaphysis (shaft) and typically 2 epiphyses (extremities)

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26
Q

What is the primary characteristic of short bones?

A

they are essentially cuboidal

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27
Q

What are examples of short bones?

A

most of the bones of the carpus and tarsus

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28
Q

What are examples of flat bones?

A

parietal bone and sternum

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29
Q

What are examples of pneumatic bone?

A

frontal, ethmoid, maxilla, sphenoid and temporal

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30
Q

What bones contain paranasal sinuses?

A

frontal, ethmoid maxilla and sphenoid

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31
Q

What is the characteristic of a sesamoid bone?

A

bone develops w/in a tendon

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32
Q

What are consistent examples of sesamoid bones?

A

patella and pisiform

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33
Q

What are examples of heterotopic bone?

A

calcific deposits in the pineal gland, heart and ligaments

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34
Q

What are examples of accessory bone?

A

para-articular processes and bony spurs of vertebrae

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35
Q

What are the 4 basic surface feature categories?

A

elevations, depressions, tunnels/passageways, facets

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36
Q

What are the types of osseous elevations?

A

linear, rounded and sharp

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37
Q

What are the types of osseous linear elevations?

A

line, ridge and crest

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38
Q

What are the types of rounded osseous elevations?

A

tubercle, protuberance, trochanter, tuber/tuberosity, malleolus

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39
Q

What is the definition of an osseous malleolus?

A

hammerhead-like elevation o the surface of bone

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40
Q

What are the categories of sharp osseous elevations?

A

spine and process

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41
Q

What is the definition of the osseous elevation called “spine”?

A

a thorn-like elevation from the surface of the bone

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42
Q

What is the definition of an osseous process?

A

a relatively sharp bony projection from the surface of bone with an increased growth

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43
Q

What are the categories of osseous linear depressions?

A

notch/incisure, groove, sulcus

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44
Q

What is the definition of an osseous sulcus?

A

a wide groove of variable length and depth on the surface of bone

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45
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous depressions?

A

fovea and fossa

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46
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fovea?

A

a shallow depression of variable circumfrence on the surface of bone

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47
Q

What are the names given to openings on the surface of bone?

A

ostium or orifice and hiatus

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48
Q

What is the definition of an osseous hiatus?

A

an irregular opening on the surface of bone

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49
Q

What are the names given to osseous ostia which completely enetrate bone?

A

foramen or canal

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50
Q

What is the definition of an osseous foramen?

A

an ostium passing completely though a thing region of bone

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51
Q

What is the definition of an osseous canal?

A

an ostium passing completely though a thick region of bone

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52
Q

What is the name given to an ostium which does not completely penetrate through a region of bone but appears as a blind-ended passageway?

A

meatus

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53
Q

What is the definition of an osseous fissure?

A

an irregular slit-like or crack-like appearance between the surfaces of adjacent bones

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54
Q

What are the categories of osseous facets?

A

flat facets or rounded facets

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55
Q

What are the categories of rounded osseous facets?

A

articular heads and articular condyles

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56
Q

Which classification of synarthrosis joint implies a bond condition?

A

syndesmosis

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57
Q

What is the classification of a joint held together with cartilage?

A

synchondrosis

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58
Q

What is the classification of a joint formed by a growth condition?

A

symphysis

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59
Q

What is the condition in which teeth are abnormally aligned during closure of the mouth?

A

malocclusion

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60
Q

What fibrous connective tissue classically fills the joint space of a syndesmosis?

A

interosseous ligament

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61
Q

What are examples of the typical syndesmosis from the vertebral column?

A

most of the ligamentous joints of the vertebral column and ligamentous sacro-iliac joints

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62
Q

What are the characteristics of the (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

they are primarily cartilage joints, temporary in longevity, composed of hyaline cartilage and form between ossification centers within a cartilage template

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63
Q

What are examples of a temporary cartilage joint?

A

metaphysis, neuro-central joint, neural arch joint, chondrocranium

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64
Q

What are examples of a permanent (amphiarthrosis) synchondrosis?

A

costchondral joints or the first sternochondral joint

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65
Q

Which cartilage joint classification would be considered secondary?

A

(amphiarthrosis) symphysis

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66
Q

what type of cartilage is characteristic of the (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

fibrocartilage or fibrous cartilage

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67
Q

What are the characteristics of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis?

A

limited motion, median plane location, support ligaments both anterior and posterior to the joint, more permanent in longevity than synchondrosis and they occur between bones developing by endochondral ossification

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68
Q

What are the classic exaples of a (amphiarthrosis) symphysis is temporary?

A

symphysis menti

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69
Q

What are the four consistent features of synovial (diarthrosis) joints

A

articular fibrous capsule, synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial fluid

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70
Q

Thickening of the fibrous capsule connective tissue will form the…

A

capsular ligament

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71
Q

What generic accessory ligaments may accompany and support capsular ligaments?

A

intracapsular and extracapsular ligaments

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72
Q

What are the characteristics of the type II articular receptors?

A

located in the deeper strata of the fibrous capsule, resemble Pacinian corpuscles, most numerous in the cervical spine and monitor joint during normal range of motion

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73
Q

What are the characteristics of the Type I articular receptors?

A

located in the superficial layer of the fibrous capsule, resemble Ruffini endings, most numerous in cervical zygapophyses and they monitor the joint at rest

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74
Q

What are the characteristics of Type III articular receptors?

A

present in collateral and intrinsic ligaments, resemble Golgi tendon organs, not initially observed along the vetrebral column and monitor extreme joint motion

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75
Q

What is the function of type IV articular receptors?

A

Nociceptive, they monitor pain

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76
Q

Type IVa articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

Fibrous capsule, articular fat pads, or adventitia/blood vessels

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77
Q

Type IVb articular receptors would be present in what locations?

A

accessory igaments in general, dense in the posteroir lonitudinal ligament of the spine

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78
Q

Type IV articular receptors would be absent in what parts of the synovial joint?

A

synovial membrane, articular cartilage and synovial menisci or intra-articular discs

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79
Q

What are the 3 modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

1) synovial villi 2) articular fat pads or Haverian glands 3) synovial menisci and intra-articular disc

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80
Q

What is the generic function of modifications of articular synovial membrane?

A

aid in spreading synovial fluid

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81
Q

Where are the articular fat pads located?

A

in the fibrous layer of synovial membrane; they are absent from articular cartilage, synovial menisci, intra-articular disc

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82
Q

Articular fat pads are most numerous in what location along the vertebral column?

A

lumbar zygapophyses

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83
Q

Intra-articular discs are a feature of what joint examples?

A

temporomandibular, sternoclavicular, acromioclaviular and radio-ulnar joint

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84
Q

Synovial menisci are a feature of what joint examples?

A

femur-tibia articulation, cervical zygapophyses and lumbar zygapophyses

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85
Q

What are the layers of the synovial membrane?

A

outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer AKA synovial lamina intima

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86
Q

What are the specific functions of Type A synovial cells?

A

are phagocytic

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87
Q

What is the specific function of type B synovial cells?

A

secrete proteinaceous substances and hyaluronic acid

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88
Q

What is the soure of nutrition for articular cartilage?

A

blood vessels in the synovial membrane, sinuses of the bone marrow cavity and from synovial fluid itself

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89
Q

Which collagen fiber type predominates in articular cartilage?

A

type II

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90
Q

What are proteoglycans composed of?

A

a core protein and glycosaminoglycans

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91
Q

What is the primary function of bound glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage?

A

form a network for water retention

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92
Q

Cartilage is able to change shape due to compression, a characteristic known as…

A

deformation

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93
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume rapidly, a time independent property

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94
Q

What is implied when cartilage is said to have viscero-elastic properties?

A

cartilage can deform and returns to original volume slowly, a time dependent property

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95
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies a loss of fluid from the cartilage into the joint space during compression results in increased viscosity of the synovial fluid?

A

weeping theory

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96
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies water loss from the synovial fluid increases viscosity of the remaining synovial fluid?

A

boosted theory

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97
Q

Which theory of joint lubrication implies an adsorption of lubricant onto cartilage surfaces is responsible for the low friction observed during movement?

A

boundary theory

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98
Q

What are the properties of synovial fluid?

A

yellow-white, viscous, slightly alkaline and tastes salty

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99
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid has been proposed to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

lubricin

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100
Q

Which substance in synovial fluid was first thought to be responsible for its viscosity and lubricating behavior?

A

hyaluronate

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101
Q

What is a simple synovial joint (diarthrosis)?

A

within the simple joint or the compound joint, the articulating surfaces are separated by an articular disc (intra-articular disc) or meniscus

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102
Q

What are the classifications of synovial joints (diarthrosis) based on type of movement?

A

nonaxial, uniaxial, biaxial, multiaxial synovial joints

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103
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints is classified as nonaxial?

A

plane (diarthrosis or arthroidal)

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104
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be classified as uniaxial?

A

hinge (diarthrosis ginglymus) and pivot (diarthrosis trochoid)

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105
Q

What morphological classifications of synovial joints would be considered biaxial?

A

(diarthrosis) bicondylar, (diarthrosis) condylar, (diarthrosis) ellipsoidal and saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

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106
Q

What morphological classification of synovial joints would be considered multiaxial?

A

ball and socket (diarthrosis enarthrosis, (diarthrosis spheroidal), (diarthrosis cotyloid), [all same type of joint]

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107
Q

What are examples of synovial pivot (diarthrosis trochoid) joints?

A

median alanto-axial joint and proximal radio-ulnar joint

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108
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis condylar or diarthrosis bicondylar joints?

A

temporomandibular and femur-tibia joint of knee

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109
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis ellipsoidal joints?

A

radiocarpal joint of wrist, metacarpo-phalangeal joints of the hand, metatarsal-phalangeal joints of the foot and the alanto-occipital joint of the vertebral column

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110
Q

What are examples of synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar) joints?

A

carpometacarpal joint of the thumb, talocrural joint of ankle and calcaneocuboid joint of foot

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111
Q

What are examples of diarthrosis cotyloid joints?

A

femur-acetabulum of the innominate articulation at the hip and the humerus glenoid cavity of the scapula articulation at the shoulder

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112
Q

What is the number of vertbrae in the typical adolescent?

A

33 segments

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113
Q

What is the number of vertebrae in the typical adult?

A

26 segments

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114
Q

What constitutes the spine?

A

24 presacral segments; the cervical, thoracic and lumbar vertebrae

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115
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical sacrum?

A

5 segments

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116
Q

How many segments unite to form the typical coccyx?

A

4 segments

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117
Q

Which mammals don’t have 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

2 toed sloth, manatee, ant bear, 3 toed sloth

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118
Q

Which mammals have less than 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

2 toed sloth and manatee

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119
Q

Which mammals have more than 7 cervical vertebrae?

A

ant bear, 3 toed sloth

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120
Q

What does the term “cervical” refer to?

A

region of the neck

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121
Q

What does the term “thoracic” refer to?

A

breast plate or chest; referred to the armor bearing region of the torso

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122
Q

What other term is often used to identify the vertebral segments of the chest?

A

dorsal segments; dorsals

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123
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the dorsal or thoracic region?

A

12 segments

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124
Q

What does the term “lumbar” refer to?

A

loin; region between rib and hip

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125
Q

What is the typical number of segments in the lumbar region?

A

5 segments

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126
Q

What does the term “sacrum” refer to?

A

holy bone or holy region

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127
Q

What does the term “coccyx” refer to?

A

a cuckoo bird’s bill or cuckoo bird’s beak

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128
Q

What is the length of a typical male spinal column?

A

70 cm, 28 in

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129
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

60 cm, 25 in

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130
Q

What is the length of a typical female spinal column?

A

60 cm, 25in

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131
Q

What is the length of the male cervical region?

A

12 cm, 5 inches

132
Q

What is the length of the male thoracic region?

A

28 cm, 11 in

133
Q

What is the length of the male sacrum?

A

12 cm, 5 in

134
Q

Based on the numbers for individual regions of the vertebral column, what is the length of the male spine?

A

58 cm, 23 in

135
Q

What levels of the vertebral column specifically accomodate weight-bearing transfer?

A

S1-S3 at aricular surface

136
Q

What organs are specifically associated with horizontal axis of the skull?

A

eye and vestibular apparatus of the inner ear

137
Q

Invagination of ectoderm along the primitive streak gives rise to what embryonic state?

A

notochord

138
Q

What is the name given to the mesoderm that will give rise to the vertebral column?

A

paraxial mesoderm

139
Q

What embryonic structure give to the somites?

A

paraxial mesoderm

140
Q

Name the areas of cellular differentiation formed within the somite.

A

sclerotome, myotome and dermatome

141
Q

What are the names of the successive vertebral columns formed during development?

A

membranous, cartilaginous, skeletal or osseous

142
Q

Migration of a somite pair to surround the notochord forms what developmental feature?

A

perichordal blastema

143
Q

The perichordal blastema gives rise to what processes?

A

neural processes and costal processes

144
Q

What is the name of the artery located between adjacent perichordal blastemae?

A

intersegmental artery

145
Q

What forms between the sclerotomites of a perichordal blastema?

A

intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner)

146
Q

The intrasclerotomal fissure (fissure of von Ebner) gives rise to what developmental feature?

A

perichordal disc

147
Q

The union of a dense caudal sclerotomite and a lose cranial sclerotomite from adjacent perichordal blastemae gives rise to what feature?

A

vertebral blastema

148
Q

What vessel will be identified adjacent to the vertebral blastema?

A

segmental artery

149
Q

When will cartilage first form in the membraous vertebral blastema?

A

beginning in the 6th embryonic week

150
Q

What is the name given to the replacement of mesoderm by cartilage?

A

chondrification

151
Q

What are the names given to the centers of chondrification within the vertebral blastema?

A

centrum center, neural arch center, transverse process center

152
Q

How many centers of chondrification typically appear in the vertebral blastema?

A

six: 2 for centrum, 2 for neural arches, 2 for each transverse process

153
Q

What is the earliest time that centers of ossification appear in the cartilagenous vertebra?

A

during the 7th embryonic week

154
Q

What is the name given to centers of ossification based on time of appearance?

A

primary centers appear in utero, secondary centers appear after birth

155
Q

What is the ratio of primary to secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

3 primary centers: 5 secondary centers

156
Q

What are the names of the primary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

centrum centers and neural arch centers

157
Q

What are the names/locations of the five secondary centers of ossification for a typical vertebra?

A

tip of transverse process, tip of spinous process, epiphyseal plate centers

158
Q

What is the range of appearance for secondary centers of ossification of a typical vertebra?

A

during puberty, typically ages 11-16 years old

159
Q

What is the general shape of the verberal body at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-rectangular; thoracic-triangular; lumbar-reniform

160
Q

What is the name given to the compact bone at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

superior epiphyseal plate, inferior epiphyseal plate

161
Q

What large opening is usually observed at the back of the vertebral body?

A

the basivertebral venous foramen

162
Q

What is the name given to the intermediate part of the vertebral arch where the transverse process and articular processes attach?

A

the lamina-pedicle junction

163
Q

What is the generic orientation of the pedicle at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-posterolateral; thoracic-posterior, slight lateral; lumbar-posterior

164
Q

All lamina are oriented in what direction?

A

posterior and median

165
Q

What ligament will attach to the lamina?

A

the ligamentum flavum

166
Q

What is the name given to abnormal bone at the attachment site of the ligamentum flavum?

A

para-articular process

167
Q

What classification of bone will para-articular processes represent?

A

accessory bone

168
Q

What is the name given to the overlap of laminae seen on X-Ray?

A

shingling

169
Q

What is the name given to the lamina-pedicle junction at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-articular pillar; thoracic and lumbar-pars interarticularis

170
Q

What is the name given to the junction of the vertebral arch-spinous process on lateral X ray?

A

spinolaminar junction

171
Q

What names may be given to each apophysis of the spine?

A

the transverse apophysis or transverse process; articular apophysis or articular process; spinous apophysis or spinous process

172
Q

What is the generic orientation of the transverve process or transverse apophysis at each region of the spine?

A

cervical-anterolateral; thoacic-posterolateral; lumbar-lateral

173
Q

What is the name given to the rounded elevation at the end of the transverse apophysis or transverse process?

A

the transverse tubercled

174
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the cervical region?

A

cervical spinal nerves are pulled forward to form the cervical and brachial nerve plexuses thus remodeling the transverse process to accommodate their new position

175
Q

What will cause the transverse process/transverse apophysis to alter its initial direction in the thoracic region?

A

the growth of the lungs remodel the shape of the ribs which in turn push the transverse processes backward

176
Q

What is the name given to the joint formed between articular facets of a vertebral couple?

A

zygapophysis

177
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the pre-xygapophysis?

A

superior articular process or superior articular apophysis

178
Q

What is the name given to the part of the vertebra forming the post-zygapophysis?

A

the inferior articular process or inferior articular apophysis

179
Q

What will form the posterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the inferior articular process/post-zygapophysis, the superior articular processs/pre-zygapophysis, the capsular ligament, and the ligamentum flavum

180
Q

What will form the superior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

inferior vertebral notch or inferior vertebral incisure

181
Q

What will form the inferior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

superior vertebral notch or superior vertebral incisure

182
Q

What will form the anterior boundary of a typical intervertebral foramen?

A

the vertebral body of the segment above, the vertebral body of the segment below, the intervertebral disc, and the posterior longitudinal ligament

183
Q

What is the name given to the cartilage found at the superior and inferior surface of a developing vertebral body?

A

superior and inferior epiphyseal plate

184
Q

What is the method of calculating the angle of the spinous process?

A

calculate the angle formed between the undersurface of the spinous process and the horizontal plant

185
Q

What is the name given to the normal overlap of spinous processes as seen on X-Ray?

A

imbrication

186
Q

What is the orientation of the spinous process at each region of the spine?

A

cervical (slight angle inferiorly), thoracic (noticeable angle inferiorly), lumbar (no inferior angle)

187
Q

What is the typical shape/outline of the vertebral foramen at each region of the spinal column/vertebral column?

A

cervical (triangular), thoracic (oval), lumbar (triangular), sacrum (triangular)

188
Q

At what vertebral level will the spinal cord typically terminate?

A

L1

189
Q

At what vertebral level will the dural sac typically terminate?

A

S2

190
Q

Identify all segmental arteries.

A

vertebral, ascending cervical, deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posteroir intercostal, subcostal, lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral

191
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the cervical spine?

A

vertebral artery, ascending cervical artery and deep cervical artery

192
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the thoracic spine?

A

deep cervical, superior (highest) intercostal, posterior intercostal and subcostal artery

193
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the lumbar spine?

A

the lumbar, iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral artery

194
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the fifth lumbar vertebra?

A

iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral artery

195
Q

What are the segmental arteries of the sacrum?

A

iliolumbar, lateral sacral and median (middle) sacral artery

196
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the vertebral artery?

A

C1-C6

197
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the ascending cervical artery?

A

C1-C6

198
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the deep cervical artery?

A

C7-T1

199
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the superior (highest) intercostal artery?

A

T1, T2

200
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the posterior intercostal artery?

A

T3-T11

201
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the subcostal artery?

A

T12

202
Q

What segmental levels are supplied by the lumbar arteries?

A

L1-L4

203
Q

Which vertebra has the greatest number of segmental arteries asociated with it?

A

L5

204
Q

What are the segmental arteries for L5?

A

iliolumbar, median (middle) sacral and lateral sacral artery

205
Q

What branch of the segmental artery supplies the vertebra and the paravertebral region?

A

dorsospinal artery

206
Q

Which branch of the dorsospinal artery will penetrate the meninges to enter subarachnoid space?

A

spinal artery

207
Q

Which branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the epidural space?

A

osseous, anterior spinal canal, posteroir spinal canal artery

208
Q

Which arteries are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior spinal canal artery and plexus

209
Q

What arteries are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentaum flavum?

A

posteroir spinal canal artery and plexus

210
Q

What branches of the spinal artery supply the contents of the subarachnoid space?

A

anterior radicular, posterior radicular, anterior medullary feeder and posteroir medullary feeder artery

211
Q

Which vessel will supply the ventral/anterior nerve rootlet and root?

A

anterior radicular artery

212
Q

Which vessel will supply the dorsal/posterior nerve rootlets, nerve root and nerve root ganglion?

A

posteroir radicular artery

213
Q

What is the location and number of medullary feeder arteries present in the adult?

A

9 anterior and 12 posterior medullary feeder arteries

214
Q

What is the name given to the artery that lies in front of the spinal cord along its length?

A

anterior spinal artery

215
Q

The anterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the vertebral artery

216
Q

Is the anterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

217
Q

As the anterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

anterior medullary feeder artery

218
Q

The posterior spinal artery is a branch of which artery?

A

the posterior inferior cerebellar artery

219
Q

What is the position of the posterior spinal artery relative to the spinal cord?

A

it lies in the posterolateral sulcus along the spinal cord

220
Q

Is the posterior spinal artery a single, continuous artery along the spinal cord?

A

no

221
Q

As the posterior spinal artery continues along the spinal cord, which arteries unite along its length to give the appearance of a single continuous vessel?

A

posterior medullary feeder arteries

222
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona above C3?

A

right and left anterior spinal arteries, right and left posterior spinal arteries, and 4 communicating arteries

223
Q

What forms the arterial vasa corona below C6?

A

a median anterior spinal artery, right and left posterior spinal arteries and 3 communicating arteries

224
Q

What is the generic name given to arteries that penetrate the spinal cord?

A

intramedullary arteries

225
Q

What are the intramedullary branches of the arterial vasa corona?

A

pial perforating arteries, central/ventral/sulcual perforating arteries

226
Q

What arterial vasa corona branches supply gray matter and most of the spinal cord?

A

ventral/central/sulcal perforating arteries

227
Q

What is the primary artery supplementing the arterial vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary feeders and posterior medullary feeders

228
Q

What vessels drain the spinal cord?

A

pial veins

229
Q

What pial veins drain into?

A

venous vasa corona

230
Q

Which vessels form the venous vasa corona?

A

right and left anterior longitudinal veins, right and left posterior longitudinal veins, and 4 communicating veins

231
Q

Which vessels will drain the venous vasa corona?

A

anterior medullary veins, posterior medullary veins

232
Q

What vessel will drain the dorsal/posterior nerve root ganglion?

A

posteior radicular veins

233
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the posterior longitudinal ligament?

A

anterior internal vertebral venous plexus, basivertebral vein

234
Q

What veins are observed in the epidural space near the ligamentum flavum?

A

posterior internal vertebral venous plexus

235
Q

What venous vessels are identified in the intervertebral foramen?

A

intervertebral veins

236
Q

What is the unique feature of veins along the spinal canal?

A

they lack the bicuspid valve of typical veins

237
Q

Identify the neninges of the spinal cord (spinal medulla or medulla spinalis)?

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater

238
Q

What is the name given to the fluid within the epidural space?

A

interstitial fluid

239
Q

Which of the contents of the epidural space will be found near the lamina?

A

posterior spinal canal artery and plexus
posterior internal vertebral venous plexus
ligamentum flavum

240
Q

What is the name given to the fluid present within the subdural space?

A

serous fluid

241
Q

What is the name given to the fluid with the subarachnoid space?

A

cerebrospinal fluid

242
Q

What is the name given to the lateral extension of pia mater along the spinal cord?

A

dentate ligament

243
Q

In horizontal view, what direction of the spinal cord tends to be largest?

A

transverse

244
Q

What are the spinal cord enlargement locations and the name given to each?

A

C3-T1 the cervical enlargement; T9-T12, the lumbar (lumbosacral) enlargement

245
Q

Where is the greatest transverse diameter of the spinal cord?

A

C6

246
Q

In which plane (or direction) will the diameter of the spinal decrease from C2-T11?

A

midsagittal or anterior-posterior plane

247
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the lumbar (lumbosacral) englargement?

A

L1-S3 spinal nerve

248
Q

What is the caudal end of the spinal cord called?

A

conus medullaris

249
Q

What spinal nerves originate from the conus medullaris?

A

Typically S4, S5 and Co1

250
Q

In which vertebral foramen will the conus medullaris typically be observed?

A

L1

251
Q

What is the name given to the nerve roots below L1?

A

cauda equina

252
Q

What is the continuation of pia mater below the conus medullaris called?

A

filum terminale internum

253
Q

What is the location and name given to the area where are meninges first converge at the caudal part of the vertebral column?

A

typically S2, dural cul de sac

254
Q

Neural tissue has been identified in what part of the filum terminale?

A

proximal part of the filum terminale internum

255
Q

What is the fate of the neural tissue identified along the filum terminale internum?

A

it joins peripheral nerve roots of spinal nerves as high as L3 and as low as S4

256
Q

What does the neural tissue associated with the filum terminal externum appear to innervate?

A

lower limbs and the external anal sphincter

257
Q

The last arterial vasa corona creates what feature on angiogram?

A

cruciate anastomosis

258
Q

What is the name given to the condensation of meninges below S2?

A

filum terminale externum

259
Q

What is the namegiven to the caudal attachement of the meninges?

A

coccygeal medullary vestige

260
Q

What is the name given to the condition in which the conus medullaris is located below L1 and the filum terminale is thickened?

A

tethered cord syndrome

261
Q

What is the relationship between scoliosis and tethered cord syndrome?

A

it is suggested that the column will change normal curvatures to mitigate damage to the spinal cord

262
Q

What is the relationship between spinal nerve number, rib number and vertebral number in a throacic intervertebral foramen?

A

the spinal nerve number relates to the upper segment number in the bertebral couple the rib number relates to the lower segment number in the vertebral couple
ie: T3 nerve exits the intervertebral foramen formed by T3/T4 and rib 4 joints with this vertebral couple

263
Q

Which mammals have more than seven cervical vertebral?

A

ant bear, three-toed sloth

264
Q

Which mammals have less than seven cervical vertebrae?

A

two-toed sloth, manatee

265
Q

Which vertebrae are typical cervicals?

A

C3-C6

266
Q

Which vertebrae are atypical cervicals?

A

C1, C2, C7

267
Q

What is the shape of the typical cervical vertebral body from the cranial view?

A

rectangular

268
Q

What is the appearance of the typical cervical vertebral body from the lateral view?

A

posterior height is greater than anterior height by a few millimeters

269
Q

What would be the direction of the cervical curve based on osseous features?

A

posterior or kyphotic

270
Q

What accounts for the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

intervertebral disc height

271
Q

What is the direction of the typical cervical curve?

A

anterior or lordotic

272
Q

Which vertebral couple will the cervical curve again increase intervertebral disc height?

A

C5/C6

273
Q

What is the effect of aging on the cervical vertebral body?

A

it diminishes the overall height of the vertebral body

274
Q

What are the modifications of the superior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior groove, posteroir groove, right and left uncinate processes

275
Q

What are the names of the lateral modification of the superior epiphyseal rim?

A

uncinate process, unciform process, uncovertebral process, uncus or lateral lip

276
Q

At what developmental age will the uncinate process first be observed?

A

3rd-4th fetal month

277
Q

What are the modifications of the inferior epiphyseal rim of a typical cervical?

A

anterior lip, posterior lip, right and left lateral grooves

278
Q

What is the joint classification for the anterior lip-anterior groove articulation?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

279
Q

What is the joint classification for the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

modified synovial saddle (diarthrosis sellar)

280
Q

What is teh joint classification for spongy bone-intervertebral disc articulation?

A

cartilaginous (amphiarthrosis) symphysis

281
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the upper surface of a typical cervical vertebral body?

A

5

282
Q

How many joint surfaces are present on the vertebral body of a typical cervical?

A

ten

283
Q

What is the name given to the uncinate process-lateral groove articulation?

A

joint of Luschka or uncovertebral joint

284
Q

What is the functional significance of the joint of Luschka?

A

it appears to stabilize the intervertebral disc while accommodating flexion-extension and requiring coupled motion (axial rotation with lateral bending) in the cervical spinal

285
Q

What bones form the axial skeleton?

A

skull, hyoid, vertebral column, sternum and ribs

286
Q

What is the name given to the adult skull minuts the mandible

A

cranium

287
Q

What are the anems givne to the top of the adult skull?

A

calvaria or calva

288
Q

What is the total number of bones foring the typical adult skull?

A

28 bones

289
Q

What bones form the typical adult neurocranium?

A

8 bones

290
Q

How many bones form the facial skeleton (splanchnocranium or visceral skeleton)?

A

14 bones

291
Q

What is the name given to the presacral region of the typical adult vertebral column?

A

spine

292
Q

What is the total number of bones forming the typical adult spine?

A

24bones

293
Q

How many bones are present in the typical adult sternum?

A

1

294
Q

What regions are present along the typical adult sternum?

A

manubrium sterni, corpus sterni and xyphoid process

295
Q

How many ribs are present in the typical adult skeleton?

A

24 ribs, 12 pairs

296
Q

What modifications of the synovial joint are observed in the cervical spine?

A

meniscoidal folds

297
Q

What is the joint classification for the typical cervical zygapophysis?

A

synovial plane (diarthrosis arthrodia) joint

298
Q

What muscles blend with the capsular ligament of cervical zygapophyses?

A

semispinalis capitis, multifidis and rotator longus

299
Q

What muscles will attach to the typical cervical articular processes?

A

longissimus capitis, longissimus cervicis, semispinalis capitis, semispinalis cervicis, multifidis and rotators

300
Q

What is the orientation of the typical cervical interior articular facet?

A

forward, lateral, downward (FoLD)

301
Q

What is the orientation of the typical cervical superior articular facet

A

backward, upward, medial (BUM)

302
Q

Reent work suggests what angulation for typical cervical articular facets?

A

55-60 degrres

303
Q

What is the classic angulation of a typical cervical articular facet?

A

40-45 degrees from the coronal plane

304
Q

What is the name of the surface feature observed between the ends of the articular pillar?

A

groove/sulcus for the dorsal ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

305
Q

What will occupy the typical cervical vertebra transverse foramen?

A

vertebral artery, vertebral venous plexus and postganglionic sympathetic motor nerve fibers

306
Q

What will cause remodeling of the anterior tubercle at C6?

A

common carotid artery

307
Q

What is the name given to the modification of the anterior tubercle of the C6 transverse process?

A

carotid tubercle

308
Q

What is the orientation and angulation fo a typical cervical transverse process?

A

60 degrees anterolaterally (from midsagittal plane), 15 degrees inferiorly (from horizontal plane)

309
Q

What is the name given to the superior margin of the costotransverse bar?

A

sulcus for ventral primary ramus of a cervical spinal nerve

310
Q

What produces the primary tension on the transverse process that will cause remodeling in the anterolateral and inferior directions?

A

cervical spinal nerves as they are direected anterolaterally and inferiorly to form the cervical and brachial plexuses

311
Q

What muscles will attach to the costotransverse bar?

A

middle scalene and posterior intertransversarii

312
Q

What muscles may attach to the posteroir tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

splenius cervicis, iliocostalis cervicis, longissimus cervicis, levator scapula, middle scalene, posterior scalene, rotators and posterior intervransversarii

313
Q

What muscles will attach to the anterior tubercle of a typical cervical vertebra?

A

anterior scalene, longus capitis, longus colli, anterior intertransversarii

314
Q

What muscle attaches to the typical cervical vertebral body?

A

longus colli muscle

315
Q

What is the orientation and angulation of the pedicle of a typical cervical?

A

posterolateral, 45 degrees

316
Q

At what location on the vertebral body of a typical cervical will the pedicle attach?

A

to the side and in the center of the vertebral body

317
Q

What ligament attaches to the lamina of a typical cervical?

A

ligamentum flavum

318
Q

What joint classification will be associated with the ligamentum flavum and its attachment?

A

fibrous (amphiarthrosis) syndesmosis

319
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will result in what feature?

A

para-articular processes

320
Q

Ossification of the ligamentum flavum at the attachment site on the lamina will be associated with which classification of bone?

A

accessory bone

321
Q

What is the outline of the vertebral foramen of a typical vervical vertebra?

A

hear shaped or triangular

322
Q

Which is the greatest diameter of the vertebral foramen of typical cervicals?

A

transverse

323
Q

What soft tissue diameter mimics the outline of the typical cervical vertebral foramen?

A

transverse diameter of the cervical enlargement of the spinal cord

324
Q

The greatest transverse diameter of the typical cervical vertebra occurs at…?

A

C6

325
Q

The greatest frequency of osteophytes associated with the vertebral body occurs at which typical cervical vertebral couple?

A

C5/C6

Spinal Anatomy Quizzie Questions (4 decks)

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