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Host Defense > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

0
Q

Who does Katie love?

A

Charlie boy

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1
Q

Which cells would be deficient if staph infections are recurrent?

A

PMNs

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2
Q

Which cells would be deficient if fungal and mycobacterial infections are recurrent?

A

T cells

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3
Q

Excess allergic reaction is dominated by th1 or 2?

A

2

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4
Q

Delayed hypersensitivity is th1 or 2?

A

1

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5
Q

What cytokines are necessary for memory T cells?

A

IL-7 and IL-15

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6
Q

What is the difference between central and effector memory T cells?

A

Central reside in periphery and are second wave response after effectors quickly renter inflamed tissue; produce L-selectin and CCR7 (not on effector)

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7
Q

Why do you get big lymph nodes wi a FAS-FASL defect?

A

Can’t kill effector T cells so they build up in nodes

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8
Q

What are three ways effector memory T cells are controlled?

A

Activation induced cell death (prolonged intracellular signaling leads to apoptosis), Cytokine withdrawal (IL-2 decreases due to decreased antigen, T cell can’t sustain activation and dies), and T cell exhaustion (continuous Ag exposure leads to metabolic burnout)

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9
Q

What does failure of the CD40 or CD40L lead to?

A

Hyper IgM syndrome and increased pyogenic infections

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10
Q

What are the co receptors for CD4 involved in HIV entry?

A

CCR5 for macros and dendritic cells, CXCR4 for T cells

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11
Q

What does seroconversion mean?

A

Quantitative estimate of levels of Abs in a host pre and post vaccination

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12
Q

Which route of vaccine administration gives the strongest response?

A

Subcutaneous; iv yields non-responsiveness and intranasal yields allergy

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13
Q

Describe the two polio vaccines.

A

Sabin is a live form given orally and elicits IgA reaction in gut, and sheds virus particles randomly so can lead to inadvertent vaccination; Salk is killed, gives IgG response and is less protective but used now

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14
Q

3 types of viral vaccines.

A

Attenuated, inactivated, and subunit vaccines

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15
Q

Issues with subunit vaccines?

A

Weak T cell response

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16
Q

Issues with inactivated viral vaccines?

A

Epitopes can be destroyed, and no CTLS response b/c seen as extracellular pathogen

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17
Q

What is the main functional mechanism of polysaccharide vaccines?

A

Forces class switching and T cell activation when B cell uptakes polysaccharide and toxoid

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18
Q

How do vector vaccines work?

A

Engineered to express foreign antigens, introduced to host, prime immune system; issues getting a sufficient secondary response though

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19
Q

3 plans for malaria vaccine?

A

Pre-erythrocytic (prevent entry into liver cells, kill infected liver cells), blood stage (protect from rapid replication in blood), transmission blocking (prevent maturation of parasite in mosquito vector)

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20
Q

What roles do IFN and TNF play in tumor immune response?

A

TNF destroys cells, IFN’s upregulate mhc1 in hopes of increased cytotoxic killing

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21
Q

What is a tumor associated antigen?

A

Normal host proteins expressed abnormally either in place, time, or amount

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22
Q

What are tumor specific antigens?

A

Actual, tumor antigens that are more immunogenic

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23
Q

What are oncofetal antigens and two examples?

A

Normally only found in fetal development but expressed during cancer, carcinoembryonic antigen (colon, stomach, pancreas, breast cancers) and alpha-fetoprotein (normal in yolk sac and hepatocellular carcinoma and germline cancers)

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24
Q

How do point mutations influence antigen presentation?

A

Either mutation allows new protein to bind to MHC or create a new epitope for T cell binding

25
Q

Which immune cells are most responsible for tumor killing?

A

CD8+ T cells ( so MHC1 is very important)

26
Q

What mechanisms do rumors use to escape immune response?

A

Downregulate MHC, FAS counterattack, produce immunosuppressive agents (TGF-beta), loss of antigenic molecules, induction of tumor specific tolerance, no costimulatory molecules

27
Q

How does HTLV-1 cause cancer?

A

Produces Tax protein that is an IL-2 mimic inducing a T cell malignancy, which is rare

28
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

A

Disease of plasma cells resulting in monoclonal Ig production

29
Q

What is ring vaccination?

A

Vaccinate people closest to case then expand out to contacts of the contacts

30
Q

What is c reactive protein?

A

Acute phase protein involved in opsonization, complement activation, and is upregulates by IL-1, TNF, and IL-6

31
Q

Mechanism of type 1 IFNs?

A

Upregulate mhc1, IL-12 receptors, pushing towards antiviral state, inhibits viral replication, and sequesters lymphocytes in LN’s to enhance activation

32
Q

What cells are PMN’s?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, mast cells, and basophils

33
Q

What is the function of MyD88 dependent pathway for TLR’s?

A

Makes IL-1 and 6 and upregulates costim molecules, via activation of NFkB

34
Q

What are C-type lectin receptors?

A

Innate receptor found on phagocytes, group one recognizes mannose and leads to phagocytosis, group 2 recognizes asialoglycoproteins and leads to production of proinflammatory molecules

35
Q

What are two cytoplasmic PRR’s?

A

Nod-like receptors which activate cytokines and caspases, and RIG-1-like-helicase which recognizes ds and ssRNA and activates antiviral responses

36
Q

What two Ab types are involved in neutralization?

A

IgG and IgA

37
Q

Three functions of the Fc region in the immune response?

A

Promotes phagocytosis of opsonized targets, synergizes with complement, and promote ADCC of opsonized targets

38
Q

Which regions on the Abs determine Ag binding?

A

CDR’s, three in each variable region

39
Q

What directs VDJ recombination?

A

RSS sequences and the 12/23 rule

40
Q

How is Artemis involved in recombination?

A

Opens hairpins after rag cuts

41
Q

What molecules induce junctional diversity?

A

TdT and PolX, TdT in just heavy chain, PolX in both

42
Q

Which are is most affected by junctional diversity?

A

CDR3 region b/c contains most sections of rearrangement

43
Q

How is IgM and IgD determined? Also secreted versus membrane form?

A

Alternative mRNA splicing

44
Q

What is idiotypic determinant?

A

Conformational variation in the variable region

45
Q

How are intraepithelial lymphocytes different from normal lymphos?

A

Limited TCR variability, so recognize limited set of classical MHC molecules, most don’t recirculate and instead stay where they are, induce class switch to IgA, moderate immune response to food antigen

46
Q

Why are class 1 MHC alleles more polymorphic than class 2?

A

Beta chain for class 1 is invariant so have to get all variability from polymorphism of alpha chain

47
Q

What is linkage disequilibrium?

A

Alleles inherited together at higher frequency than if random assortment b/c closer together on chromosome

48
Q

What is the difference between anchor residues and central peptide residues?

A

Anchor point down into the MHC and central point up into the TCR

49
Q

How many MHC must bind specific antigen in APC to stimulate response?

A

50-100

50
Q

What are M cells?

A

Part of peyers patch in intestine, w/o villi, constantly samples antigen from lumen and transcytoses Ag to intraepithelial lymphocytes

51
Q

What is the difference between natural and induced intraepithelial lymphocytes?

A

Natural are stress reactive (gamma delta) to non classical MHC and induced are alpha beta

52
Q

What two things are required for T cell maturation?

A

Ag binding and IL-2

53
Q

What is the difference in response when a B cell undergoing tolerance induction recognizes a cell surface Ag vs a soluble Ag?

A

Soluble leads to anergy and cell surface leads to death, or receptor editing in immature cells b/c RAG genes still expressed

54
Q

How do anergic B cells differ from normal mature B cells?

A

Anergic B cells lose expression of IgM and it gets retained in the cytoplasm

55
Q

What is necessary to get a response from B cells in the absence of T cell stimulation?

A

Co stimulation by recognition of innate pattern recognition receptors like TLR 4 or CD14; OR multivalent binding by Ag with repeating epitopes; lead to low SHM or CSR b/c no T cell help

56
Q

Which two B cell lymphomas are CD5 positive?

A

CLL and mantle cell lymphoma

57
Q

Which two B cell lymphomas are CD38 positive?

A

Multiple myeloma and waldenstroms

58
Q

What distinguishes CLL from mantle cell lymphoma?

A

CLL is CD23+ and MCL is not

59
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is atopic eczema?

A

Type 1

60
Q

What two tests would indicate a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?

A

RIST and RAST

61
Q

What is farmers lung?

A

Type 3 hypersens. reaction, IgG response to mold spores makes complexes that cause inflammation in lung

Host Defense (3 decks)

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