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Host Defense > Quiz3 > Flashcards

Quiz3 Flashcards

0
Q

What kind of pathogen stimulates macrophage killing? And what MHC receptor/cell mediator?

A

Intravesicular pathogens; MHC 2, cd4+ cells

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1
Q

What kind of pathogens lead to cytotoxic killing?

A

Cytosolic pathogens

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2
Q

What kind of pathogen stimulates B cell activation?

A

Extracellular

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3
Q

What are conventional migratory APCs?

A

APCs that start in periphery and migrate to nearest LN; include

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4
Q

What is a plasma you’d APC?

A

Lives in blood, LN, thymus

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5
Q

Where are proteins presented on MHC 1 from?

A

Cytosolic pathogens, processed by proteosome, introduced to ER by TAP proteins, loaded onto MHC1 by tapasin, complex held by calreticulin, before exocytosis and getting displayed

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6
Q

How long are the segments produced by proteosome degradation?

A

6-24 AAs long

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7
Q

How do type 1 IFN’s affect immunoproteosomes?

A

Increase thru-put, alter specificity, enhance Ag presentation, make smaller antigens; essentially pushes expression towards MHC1 expression for viral/cytotoxic response

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8
Q

Describe the loading of Ag protein for class 1.

A

Proteosome degrades, TAP brings into ER, calnexin holds MHC to complex with b2m, calreticulin moves complex towards protein, tapasin stabilizes complex, and Erp57 loads

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9
Q

Which MHC class is stabile without any protein bound?

A

Class 2, class 1 degrades and is recycled

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10
Q

What are three methods for uptake of pathogen prior to presentation by class 2?

A

Macropinocytosis and clatharin-mediated endocytosis and phagocytosis

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11
Q

Describe protein processing for MHC 2 complex.

A

Peptide ingested and lysed, invariant chain binds groove, cleaved and leaves CLIP fragment in groove, HLA-DM releases CLIP allowing peptide to bind, exocytosed to surface

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12
Q

What kind of antigens do CD1 molecules present ?

A

Lipids and glycolipids

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13
Q

What’s the difference between MHC and CD1 in regards to peptide loading location?

A

Load in endosomes, but still complex with b2m

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14
Q

Which class is cd1 more like?

A

Class 1

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15
Q

What do cd1c and cd1d present to?

A

Gamma/delta T cells and NK cells, respectively

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16
Q

What is bare lynmphocyte syndrome type 1?

A

Defect in TAP proteins, leads to increased bacterial infections, lack of MHC1 and subsequently cd8+ cells, increased NK and gamma/delta T cells to compensate; bone marrow transplant not advised

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17
Q

What is bare lymphocyte syndrome type 2?

A

Autosomal recessive Defect in class two expression b/c misregulated by RFX complex; leads to normal b and T cell numbers (but cd4 reduced) but severe cellular and humoral immunity depression leading to ubiquitous infection most often GI or respiratory. Treatment is bone marrow transplant

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18
Q

What are two proteosome defect diseases?

A

CANDLE and Nakajo-Nishimura syndrome

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19
Q

What is self restriction?

A

positive selection for T cells which react weakly against self MHC; therefore wont attack host; occurs in thymus cortex

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20
Q

What is self-tolerant?

A

Negative selection for self-reactive T cells; occurs in thymus medulla

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21
Q

What is another name for negative selection?

A

clonal deletion

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22
Q

When does Th1/Th2 determination occur?

A

Outside of thymus in periphery when cell binds first antigen

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23
Q

When are T cells considered triple negative T cells?

A

When in the subcapsular region of thymus and rapidly proliferation

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24
Q

When are T cells considered Double Positive T cells?

A

In the cortex and express both CD4 and CD8 and are undergoing positive selection for weak responses to MHC complexes

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25
Q

How is CD4 or CD8 differentiation determined?

A

Based on which MHC the cell recognizes while developing in the thymus cortex; thought that CD4 is default and if reacts to class 1 then shifts towards CD8

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26
Q

When are T cells considered Single Positive T cells?

A

When in the medulla and have undergone differentiation into CD4 or CD8 while undergoing negative selection against self antigens

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27
Q

In T cell development, when is bcl2 high/FAS low? and opposite?

A

While triple negative T cells in subcapsular regions; opposite after this step.

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28
Q

Where does rearrangement for alpha beta gamma delta chains happen?

A

Subcapsular region of the thymus, this is where lineage is determined

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29
Q

Describe development of gamma delta T cells

A

Express TCR and CD3, may or may not express CD4 or 8, exit thymus without undergoing positive or negative selection

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30
Q

What are NK T cells?

A

T lineage cells with characteristics of both NK and T cells, interact with CD1d and express KIR’s and CD4 or both CD4 and 8

31
Q

Where do NK T cells develop?

A

Thymus

32
Q

What is unique about the immune response from NK T cells?

A

Very quick response b/c contain preformed mRNA molecules that code for cytokines such as IL-4, IFN-gamma, IL-2, and IL-10

33
Q

What is the difference between immunological tolerance and suppression?

A

Tolerance is a lack of response to a specific self antigen, suppression is a more general lack of immune response

34
Q

What is anergy?

A

Inability of Ag-specific cell to respond to Ag

35
Q

What are two methods for controlling immune response to self antigens?

A

Antigen sequestration and low MHC expression

36
Q

What does the AIRE gene do?

A

Allows expression of peripheral antigens in the thymus that wouldn’t normally be expressed there to show to developing T cells for negative selection. Defect leads to APECED which is a generalized autoimmune disease of several autoimmune diseases combined

37
Q

What will Katie’s name be in 5 years?

A

Dr. Kathryn Lynn Barta Goebel

Dr. David Charles Barta Goebel

38
Q

What are T reg cells?

A

CD4 and 25+ T cells that suppress disease by producing IL-10 which counteracts macrophage development and suppress antigen specific proliferation

39
Q

IPEX syndrome?

A

Problem with FOXP3 which controls TReg regulation; leads to lack of suppression of immune responses and thus overlapping autoimmune diseases

40
Q

Which two regulatory T cells do not express CD25?

A

Th3 and TR1

41
Q

Which Cytokine is produced by Th3 reg cells?

A

TGF-beta

42
Q

Which cytokines are produced by TR1 cells?

A

IL-10 and TGF-beta, but not IL-4

43
Q

Which form of amino acids (D or L) is immunogenicity?

A

L

44
Q

What antigenic dosage is immunogenic?

A

Low number of moderate doses

45
Q

Are larger or smaller antigens more immunogenic?

A

Larger, aggregated, and polyvalent molecules are most immunogenic

46
Q

Describe Costimulation.

A

APCs contain B7 (CD80/86) which reacts with CD28 on T cells while MHC reacts with TCR; once T cell has been activated it will express CTLA-4 (CD152) which will interact with B7 to suppress further immune response

47
Q

Describe Th1 differentiation from a viral infection.

A

NK and DC cells pick up antigen, produce IL-12 which directs toward Th1 which will then produce IL-2 and IFN-gamma (which inhibits Th2 pathway)

48
Q

Describe Th2 differentiation from a parasite or allergen recognition.

A

Mast cells recognize antigen and secrete IL-4 which directs toward Th2 which then produces IL-2 and IL-4 (which inhibits Th1 development)

49
Q

Are CTLs ready to kill when they leave the thymus?

A

No, termed pre-CTL’s at this point and have to be stimulated by both MHC/Ag complex and IL-2 from CD4+ T cells

50
Q

What do Th17 cells arise from?

A

Naive cd4 cells

51
Q

What do Th17 cells do and what are their secretions?

A

Important in extracellular pathogens (IL-17) and stimulate fibros, endothelials, macros, and epithelials to produce proinflammatory mediators; release IL-17, IL-6, and IL-22; do NOT release IL-4 or IFN-g

52
Q

What does IL-17 do?

A

Activates/enhances granulocytes and promotes cellular immunity by activating CD8’s, NK, and macros; implicated in autoimmune diseases; protection from extracellular pathogens

53
Q

What three cytokines are necessary for Th17 development?

A

TGF-beta, IL-6 and IL-23

54
Q

Which two cytokines inhibit Th17 maturation?

A

IL-4 and IFN-gamma

55
Q

Describe progression of B cell development?

A

Common lymphoid progenitor&raquo_space; pre pro B cell (fraction A)&raquo_space; pro B cell (fraction B)&raquo_space; late pro B cell (fraction C)&raquo_space; early pre B cell

56
Q

When do DJ and VDJ rearrangement occur during B cell development?

A

Fraction B (pro B cell) for DJ and fraction C (early pre B) for VDJ

57
Q

How does a pre BCR compare to a BCR?

A

Pre BCR contains a surrogate light chain which is made of Vpre-B and gamma5, where a mature BCR contains a rearranged light chain, successful pairing in a pre BCR leads to signaling to stop heavy chain rearrangements and move to light chain

58
Q

Describe Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia (XLA).

A

Problem with signaling cascade from pre BCR to start rearrangement of light chain. Btk protein is inactivated on X chromosome and leads to arrest of B cell development

59
Q

Which heavy chain class is most important for self recognition and tolerance in B cell development?

A

IgD

60
Q

What is receptor editing?

A

Reinitiation of VDJ recombination to alter BCR specificity; switches to other parent for heavy chain and light chain, then for light chain keeps going into lambda of either parent if needed

61
Q

How do anergic B cells differ from normal B cells?

A

They don’t express IgM and aren’t activated

62
Q

What is a B-1 B cell?

A

High in IgM and low in IgD, found mostly in neonates and fetuses, and pleural and peritoneal cavities in adults; express CD5; innate-like and produce natural antibody (broad); T cell independent

63
Q

What is a marginal zone B cell?

A

High IgM and low IgD found in marginal zones of spleen; rapidly inducible and placed to respond to blood-borne pathogens, mostly T cell independent

64
Q

What is a B-2 B cell?

A

Comprises the majority of B cells in an adult high IgD intermediate IgM; more adaptive like, Abs have high affinity, T cell dependent

65
Q

What is the complement receptor that must be cross reacted with a B cell to initiate a response?

A

CD21

66
Q

Where does SHM happen?

A

Dark zone of the germinal center

67
Q

Where does CSR happen?

A

Light zone of the germinal center

68
Q

What is the difference between a TI-1 and TI-2 mitogen?

A

TI-1 activates both immature and mature B cells, while 2 only activates mature B cells

69
Q

What is CD45 a marker for?

A

Mature lymphocytes

70
Q

What is CD33 a marker for?

A

Myeloid cells

71
Q

What is CD71 a marker for?

A

RBCs

72
Q

What would excess CD154 indicate?

A

Hyper IgM syndrome

73
Q

What are the clinical signs of CVID?

A

Low IgG and either low IgM or IgA with low isohemagglutinins and antibody responses

74
Q

Which CD marks hairy cell lymphoma?

A

CD11c and CD103

Host Defense (3 decks)

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