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Cell and Tissue Biology > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

when can frozen tissue sections be used?

A

when an urgent tissue diagnosis is needed, unexpected nodule during surgery, presence of matastasis beyond a proposed resection field

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2
Q

can you see fine details better in a routine section of tissue or a frozen section?

A

routine section, but the frozen section can be completed quickly

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3
Q

direct method of immunocytochemistry

A

less sensitive technique; tag an antibody with a marker; this antibody tags the antigen and you view the sample under a fluorescent microscope

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4
Q

indirect method of immunocytochemistry

A

more sensitive technique; apply antibody to antigen; the first antibody is then tagged with another antibody; this amplifies the signal by attaching more antibodies to the antigen; view under fluorescent microscope

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5
Q

what does anticytokeratin immunoperoxidase technique reveal?

A

tumor originates from epithelial cell and possesses cytokeratin

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6
Q

what antigen marker is specific to lymphatic vessels?

A

D2-40

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7
Q

in situ hybridization

A

try to find a specific genetic sequence to a given sample; the complimentary sequence is tagged with fluorescent marker to tag the sequence

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8
Q

if you are positive for TTF1, what does this suggest

A

cancer of the lungs, specifically adenocarcinoma

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9
Q

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

A

caused by prions; ataxia, paralysis, dementia, and eventually death

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10
Q

antagonist

A

a signal that blocks the normal extracellular signal

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11
Q

agonist

A

mimic the effect of a signal

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12
Q

up and down regulation of receptors

A

receptors are not static; they can be upregulated if the signal is present in decreased amounts; they ca be down regulated in response to increased signals

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13
Q

estrogen receptors

A

estrogen receptors are found in the nucleus

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14
Q

macropinocytosis

A

an active process that internalizes substances via microfilaments from outside of the cell; the process by which salmonella typhimurium infects the body; also utilized by thyroid hormones and immune cells

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15
Q

non-clathrin/noncaveolar

A

a transport mechanism that uses a vesicle to move substances in the cell; the vesicle has neither a clathrin or caveolae coat; the method by which cholera ans shiga toxin enter the cell

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16
Q

explain clathrin-mediated receptor endocytosis

A
  1. cargo protein interacts with cargo receptor 2. formation of coated pit around receptors 3. formation of coated vesicle (cathrin) in a GTP dependent reaction that uses dynamin 4. vesicle is internalized 5. coat breaks down 6. uncoated vesicle ready to use, including cargo
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17
Q

how does LDL move into the cell?

A

clathrin-mediated receptor endocytosis; the receptor can be mutated so that the coated vesicle cannot form, ultimately leading to atherosclerosis

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18
Q

phagocytosis

A

cell internalizes large substances; typically is mediated by receptors; bacteria attaches to receptors and is internalized into a phagosome; when in the cell, lysosomes can break down the bacterium; this can also occur with nonbiologic material

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19
Q

what are 3 secretion processes?

A

exocytosis, porocytosis, exosomes and exosome-like vesicles

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20
Q

what are the 2 pathways of exocytosis?

A

regulated pathway and constitutive pathway

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21
Q

explain the constitutive pathway

A

the cell is constantly producing vesicles for secretion only, never for storage

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22
Q

explain the regulated pathway

A

FINISH THIS

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23
Q

explain porocytosis

A

method that releases NT into synapse FINISH THIS

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24
Q

explain exosomes

A
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25
Q

what is the general rule for proteins made by rER?

A

they are secreted, put into the plasma membrane, or ____

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26
Q

what is the general rule about proteins made by free ribosomes

A

they generally stay within the cell

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27
Q

what are functions of the rER

A
  1. synthesis of proteins for secretion, insertion into membranes, and lysosomal proteins 2. synthesis of sER enzymes 3. protein modification
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28
Q

what are the unfolded protein responses (UPRs)

A
  1. increased synthesis of chaperones to repair the proteins 2. decreased translation of proteins 3. activation of the ubiquitin-proteasome pathway 4. activation of caspases to trigger apoptosis
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29
Q

what are the functions of the sER?

A
  1. steroid synthesis 2. cholesterol homeostasis 3. synthesis of phospholipids 4. glycogen metabolism 5. detox of drugs 6. storage, release, and uptake of calcium ions in striated muscle
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30
Q

Von Gierke’s disease

A

a glycogen storage disorder; you have a mutation in teh G6P transporter OR in glucose 6-phosphatase leading to glycogen storage problems

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31
Q

what happens to the volume of sER in response to phenobarbital?

A

if you chronically administer phenobarbital the volume of the sER increases as to break down the phenobarbital

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32
Q

where are phospholipids synthesized?

A

sER and rER

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33
Q

what does the the phospholipid exchange molecule do?

A

shuttles membrane phospholipids from the ER to other organelles

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34
Q

atlastin

A

atlastin, a GTPase, is a protein involved in constructing and shaping the ER; the abundance leads to ER membrae fusion and normal Golgi is absent, deficiency leads to —–

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35
Q

where do proteasomes exist?

A

cytoplasm and nucleus

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36
Q

what do most proteasomes depend on?

A

ubiquitin

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37
Q

how do prion proteins affect proteasomes?

A

it is thought that they inhibit the proteasome activity; defective ubiquitination of proteins is implicated in Parkinson disease

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38
Q

how does bortezomib treat cancer?

A

effective against multiple myeloma by inhibiting proapoptotic molecules

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39
Q

what are the functions of the golgi?

A

proteins are sorted based on chemical zip codes such as the linear sequence of amino acids or attached carbohydrate moieties, proteins are modified, and proteins are packaged into vesicles

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40
Q

what is dysferlin used for?

A

repairing the plasma membrane

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41
Q

if dysferlin is messed up, what happens?

A

mutations of the dysferlin gene are found in 3 types of MD——

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42
Q

explain insulin secretion via golgi

A

finish

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43
Q

what is the fate of a late endosome

A

it becomes a lysosome or fuses with an existing lysosome

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44
Q

what are 2 possible fates of endocytosed receptors and ligands

A
  1. receptor is recycled and ligand is degraded 2. receptor and ligand are recycled
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45
Q

true or false: defects in M6P synthesis may lead to disease?

A

true; results in a lysosomal storage disease

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46
Q

describe the lysosome

A

the lysosome is the most acidic compartment in the cell; the acidity allows the enzymes within the lysosome to work in the most efficient way possible; it has the ability to degrade nucleotides, lipids, carbs, proteins

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47
Q

explain autophagic pathway(s)

A

an organelle is delivered to a lysosome surrounded by endoplasmic reticulum; within the lysosome the organelle is broken down; another way is microautophagy and chaperone mediated autophagy

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48
Q

contrast primary and secondary lysosomes

A

primary lysosomes are homogeneous and are not breaking down anything; secondary lysosomes are heterogeneous and have undergone a phagocytotic process

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49
Q

Pompe disease

A

glycogen storage disorder; results from inability of lysosome to break down due to an effected enzyme in the lysosome. this leads to a buildup of glycogen

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50
Q

tay-sachs disease

A

sphingolipidosis - hexoaminidase A deficiency ;lysosomes fill up with sphingolipids

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51
Q

COPII

A

directs anterograde flow from the ER to the Golgi

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52
Q

COPI

A

directs retrograde flow back to where signal came from

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53
Q

Clatherin

A

directs material into endosomes?

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54
Q

what is the function of coating proteins?

A

to direct molecules between one compartment to another

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55
Q

what is the function of SNARE proteins

A

they are incorporated into the vesicle or docked on a receiving compartment; v-SNAREs are in vesicles and will recognize tSNAREs at a target compartment

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56
Q

what is the role of botulinum toxin in the neurologic tissue

A
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57
Q

what does the amount of crista tell you?

A

it tells you the state of the cell and cell type; as need for ATP increases, so does the amount of cristae in the cell

58
Q

how do CO and cyanide poisoning work?

A

they disrupt the ETC

59
Q

what is a palisade of mitochondria

A
60
Q

what are tubular cristae associated with?

A

steroid hormone synthesis; cells that produce steroids have mitochondria that are made up of tubular cristae

61
Q

myoclonic epilepsy

A

frequent twitching of muscles

62
Q

functions of peroxisomes

A

beta ox of FFA, plasmalogen synthesis, regulation of peroxide, killing pathogens, oxidizing EtOH

63
Q

Zellweger syndrome

A

impaired import of enzymes into peroxisomes

64
Q

name some cytoskeletal eleents

A

microtubules, filaments (actin, intermediate filaments, and myosin)

65
Q

what is the action of kinesin?

A

transports molecules down a microtubule from one end of a cell to another

66
Q

what kind of dye labels mitochondria?

A

mitotracker red

67
Q

what does DAPI do?

A

stains the nuclear DNA blue

68
Q

actin microfilaments

A

have a positive an negative end; tend to grow/assemble at positive end and disassemble at the negative end

69
Q

what do cytochalasins do?

A

they inhibit actin polymerization

70
Q

where is the intermediate filament cytokeratin associated with

A

epithelial cells

71
Q

where is the intermediate filament desmin associated with

A

muscle (smooth and striated)

72
Q

where is the intermediate filament glial fibrillary acidic protein associated with

A

astrocytic glial cells

73
Q

where is the intermediate filament neurofilament associated with

A

neurons

74
Q

where is the intermediate filament nuclear lamin associated with

A

nucleus of cells

75
Q

epidermolysis bullosa simplex

A

mutations in the keratin 5 or 14 gene prevent keratin from assembling into strong networks; epidermis of skin becomes fragile and easily damaged

76
Q

progeria

A

caused by defects in the nuclear lamina

77
Q

role of lamins during mitosis

A

FINISH THIS

78
Q

contrast euchromatin and heterochromatin

A

heterochromatin is tightly coiled; euchromatin is loosely arranged; you can identify how active the cell is in regards to transcription by looking at the chromatin: lots of euchromatin means lots of transcription, folks!

79
Q

would you see a nucleolus in a cell with heterochromatin?

A

no!

80
Q

thyroid cancer nucleus

A

“orphan annie” eye nuclei - the nucleus is white

81
Q

contrast nucleolus and nucleus

A

the nucleolus is within the nucleus; appears as a dark circle within the organelle

82
Q

nucleolus features

A

nucleolar organizer DNA, pars fibrosa, pars granulosa, nucleolus-associated chromatin

83
Q

nucleostemi

A

p53 binding protein found in undifferentiated cells; decreases as cells become differentiated; presence in cancer cells may play a role in unchecked proliferation

84
Q

contrast chromatid and chromosome

A

when a chromosome is duplicated it is attached to its copy and each copy is now known as a chromatid

85
Q

what is the action of colchicine, vincristine, and vinblastine?

A

inhibit polymerization of microtubules

86
Q

what is the action of taxol?

A

promotes polymerization and inhibits depolymerization of microtubules

87
Q

contrast telomerase in germ and somatic chromosomes

A

it is present in germ cells but not in somatic

88
Q

contrast necrosis and apoptosis

A

with apoptosis, the cell is eliminated “under the radar”; with necrosis there is an inflammatory response

89
Q

what might an aggressive tumor do to make it less susceptible to apoptosis?

A

increase anti-apoptotic factors

90
Q

why do women get osteoporosis more often?

A

estrogen has an anti-apoptotic effect on osteoblasts thus promoting their longevity

91
Q

functional attributes of ECM

A

structure, defense and protection, nutrition, diffusion of gases molecules and ions, cell growth and survival, cell migration, lubrication

92
Q

what makes up the ECM

A

ground substance (glycosaminoglycans, proteoglycans, water, adhesive glycoproteins) and fibers (collagen, reticular collagen, elastic)

93
Q

what is the hallmark of tissue repair?

A

granulation tissue

94
Q

how is contact with the extracellular matrix related to the cell cycle?

A

cells making contact with the ECM are more likely to divide and proliferate; more contact = more likely to enter S phase

95
Q

what happens to the hydrated state of tissue when there is excessive accumulation of glycosaminoglycans?

A

the hydration state increases

96
Q

proteoglycan

A

a more complex structure of glycosaminoglycan; a glycosaminoglycan is attached to a linker protein which attaches to hyaluronan

97
Q

what is perlecan?

A

perlecan is needed for correct development of the skeletan

98
Q

what happens when antibodies block fibronectin function?

A

branching morphogenesis is disrupted (mouse salivary gland was the example in class)

99
Q

what AA is measured to calculate the concentration of collagen?

A

hydroxyproline

100
Q

what are some characteristics that can be used to classify epithelia?

A

number of cell layers, cell shape in superficial layer, and presence of specializations of plasma membrane

101
Q

what are the 3 types of simple epithelia?

A

squamous, cuboidal, and columnar

102
Q

what are the 4 types of stratified epithelia?

A

squamous nonkeratinized, cuboidal, columnar, and squamous keratinized

103
Q

define pseudostratified epithelium

A

columnar cells that appear to be stratified, but there is in reality once cell that touches the basal membrane. the appearance of stratification is due to multiple nuclei

104
Q

where can you find simple squamous cells?

A

blood-brain barrier, filtration areas, and exchange areas

105
Q

where can you find simple cuboidal cells and what are the functions of simple cuboidal cells?

A

you can find them in thyroid follicles, renal tubules, and ducts of glands; they function in absorption, secretion, as barriers, and conduits.

106
Q

where can you find simple columnar cells (ciliated and nonciliated)?

A

ciliated - uterine tubes; nonciliated - stomach and intestines

107
Q

what is the function of simple columnar cells?

A

absorption, secretion, and as barriers

108
Q

where will you find pseudostratified columnar cells (ciliated)? what is the function?

A

trachea, bronci, and ducts of male reproduction system (stereocilia are present; function in secretion, absorption, as barriers, and in transport

109
Q

what are the 2 types of stratified squamous cells? where can you find them? Function?

A

keratinized (epidermis) and non-keratinized (esophagus, distal anal canal, vagina); they function as barrier and protection

110
Q

what is a characteristic of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

keratin pearls

111
Q

where can you find transitional epithelium? function?

A

ureters, urinary bladder, and urethra; barrier, protection, and distension

112
Q

how does urine affect transitional epithelium?

A

when the bladder is empty, the cells are expanded/plump; as urine fills the bladder, the cells become distended

113
Q

define metaplasia

A

the action in which psuedostratified cells become columnar cells to protect the body from something; ex: esophagus undergoes metaplasia in response to smoking. this protects the esophagus, but does not produce mucus anymore due to absence of cilia in pseudostrafied cells

114
Q

name some specializations of the plasmalemma

A

cilia, flagella, microvilli, and stereocilia

115
Q

what are the 3 types of cilia?

A

motile cilia, primary aka monocilium (nonmotile), and nodal cilia (motile)

116
Q

describe the structure of a motile cilia

A

a 9+2 array made up of 9 pairs of microtubules surrounding 2 central microtubles; the 9 dublets are connected by dynein arms which are ATPases that allow it to be motile

117
Q

what are some functions of primary aka monocilum (nonmotile)

A

serve as chemosensors, osmoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, mediate light, taste, and sound perception; pivotal role in normal tissue morphogenesis

118
Q

explain the involvement of primary cilium in polycystic kidney disease

A

the primary cilium are used to sense fluid movement; in polycystic kidney disease you have a mutation in polycistin 1 and 2 that results in a change of orientation in the spindles. as a result, the tubules expand horizontally instead of vertically, creating cysts

119
Q

where are nodal cilia located and what is their function?

A

nodal cilia are located in the primitive node; they are used to direct the movement of nodal in the development of the organism

120
Q

contrast the structures of cilum and microvilli

A

cilium are larger and have microtubules in the core; microvilli are small and lack microtubles

121
Q

define sterocilia (stereovilli) and give their location

A

stereocilia are elongated epithelium; they can be found in male reproductive ducts

122
Q

describe the zona occludens

A

tight junction that extends along entire circumference of the cell; prevents material from taking paracellular route in passing from the lumen into the connective tissues

123
Q

describe the zona adherens

A

basal to the sona occludens; E-Cad binds to each other in the intercellular space and to actin filaments intracellularly

124
Q

describe the macula adherens

A

intermediate filaments; ecad is associated with plaques

125
Q

gap junction

A

communicating junctions for small molecules and ions to pass between cells. couple adjacent cells metabolically and electrically

126
Q

hemidesmasomes

A

attach epithelial cells to underlying basal membrane

127
Q

what is the clinical significance of claudin?

A

claudin is a protein found in the zona occludens; mutations can result in excessive loss of magnesium ions in urine, brain cancers (claudin 5), and deafness (clauden 9)

128
Q

what is the clinical significance of occludin?

A

h.pylori interferes with occludin (protein found in the zona occluden); cholera can interfere here as well, specifically in the intestines

129
Q

what determines the degree of permeability in the zona occludens?

A

mixture of claudins to occludins; high claudin ratio leads to higher permeability

130
Q

what is the skeletal filament of the zona adherens?

A

actin filaments

131
Q

what is the skeletal filament of macula adherens?

A

intermediate filaments

132
Q

what is another name for macula adherens?

A

desmosome

133
Q

what holds adjacent cells together at the zona adherens?

A

e-cadherin

134
Q

pemphigus

A

results in blisters; due to autoantibodies against desmogleins

135
Q

what type of collagen is used to attach hemidesmosome to basal lamina/

A

type XVII

136
Q

bullous pemphigoid

A

autoantibodies develop against type XVII collagen (BPAG2)

137
Q

based on the general blueprint for junctional complexes, what component does integrin represent?
A: intracellular anchor (attachment) protein
B: Cell adhesion molecule (link protein)
C: cytoskeltal element

A

B: cell adhesion molecule (link protein)

138
Q

nexus or gap junctions

A

made up of connexons, which are made up of 6 connexins each.

139
Q

what is the clinical significance of gap junction abnormalities?

A

abnormalities can lead to female infertility, neuropathy, deafness, congenital cataracts, and cardiac arythmias

140
Q

what is the clinical significance of clue cells?

A

points at bacterial vaginal infection

141
Q

what is needed for metastasis?

A

absence of e-cad and extra adhesion molecules

Cell and Tissue Biology (3 decks)

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