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Microbiology 1 > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is microbiology?

test q

A

study of microscopic organisms such as bacteria, viruses, archaea, fungi (yeast) and protozoa

note: all of these examples are cellular besides viruses

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2
Q

Who made the first microscope with magnification of 50x-300x?

A

Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek

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3
Q

Who was the first to discover the bacterial world?

A

Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek

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4
Q

Who introduced the first systemic method of vaccination and used cow pox virus (vaccinia virus) to cross immunize against human small pox virus (variola virus)?

A

Edward Jenner

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5
Q

Whats the year of vaccines?

A

1796 (when Edward Jenner introduced small pox vax)

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6
Q

Who saved the silk and wine industry in France?

A

Louis Pasteur

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7
Q

Who introduced the first vaccine for the rabies virus?

A

Louis Pasteur

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8
Q

Who introduced the first vaccine for Bacillus anthracis (the bacteria causing anthrax), a disease of cows, sheep, etc. and can be fatal to man?

A

Louis Pasteur

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9
Q

Who introduced the principles of pasteurization?

A

Louis Pasteur

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10
Q

Who was the pioneer of aseptic (no dirt= clean) in obstetrics?

A

Ignaz Philipp Semmelweiss

He directed his medical students to wash their hands in chlorine water before helping laboring mothers and the birth death rate greatly dropped

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11
Q

Who proved germ theory?

A

Robert Koch

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12
Q

who introduced postulates named after himself, which provided a way to identify a specific microorganism as causing a specific infectious disease?

A

Robert Koch

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13
Q

Who introduced agar to nutrient medium to provide it with a solid substratum?

A

Robert Koch

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14
Q

Who first isolated bacillus anthracis (bacteria that causes anthrax) in pure culture?

A

Robert Koch

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15
Q

Microbiology of air (air-bone) is that air has no ______ in and of itself. Microbes are found in the air temporarily as a result of coughing, sneezing, sweeping, etc

A

flora

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16
Q

What are some common human viruses spread by air?

A

-common cold (rhinovirus, adenovirus)
-measles (rubeola = true measles)
-rubella (German measles)
-Influenza (flu)
-mumps (infectious parotitis)
-small pox (Variola virus, extinct)

*for sure know Rubeola, Rubella, and Variola

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17
Q

What are some common bacterial infections spread by air?

A

-Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat, Streptococcus pyogenes)
-Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheria)
-Pertussis or whooping cough (Bordetella pertussis)
-Tuberculosis (Mycobacterium tuberculosis)

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18
Q

What are the routes of transmission for microorganisms?

A

-air-borne
-blood borne
-food borne
-water borne (fecal-oral transmission)
-vector-borne
-STDs

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19
Q

What is the difference between horizontal and vertical transmission?

A

in horizontal transmission viruses are transmitted among individuals of the same generation, while vertical transmission occurs from mothers to their offspring

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20
Q

define endemic

A

-illness/disease within population
-relatively small scale (low number of cases)
-not usually associated with outbreaks

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21
Q

define epidemic

A

illness/disease in more than one population, an outbreak of something

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22
Q

define pandemic

A

-illness/disease in all people/populations
-larger than an epidemic/more specific
-more than 2 continents are involved

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23
Q

What are the 3 shape classifications of bacteria?

A

1) coccus (spherical, plural= cocci, means like a berry)
2) rods (cylindrical, aka bacillus)
3) helicoidal (spiral, special type of rods)

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24
Q

define diplococcus

A

spherical pairs

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25
Q

define streptococcus

A

spherical chains

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26
Q

define staphylococcus

A

spherical irregular grape-like clusters

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27
Q

define gaffkya

A

spherical arrangement in packets of 4 (tetrads)

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28
Q

define sarcina

A

spherical arrangements in packets of 8

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29
Q

What are the characteristics of rods/bacillus?

A

-straight, sausage shaped, cylindrical shaped, cigar shaped (fusiform)
-outnumber all other forms of bacteria
-coryneform bacillus can be in V or L type structures

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30
Q

What type of bacteria is a shape intermediate between cocci and bacilli?

A

coccobacillus

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31
Q

define vibrio

A

curved rod, comma shaped

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32
Q

define spirillum

A

helical shape with a thick rigid cell wall

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33
Q

define spirochete

A

thin flexible cell wall

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34
Q

What are bacterial cells usually measured in?

A

micrometers

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35
Q

What is flagellum?

A

organ of motility

ATP and cell wall are needed for flagella to function (functions in a rotary fashion)

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36
Q

define atrichous

A

-a= no/without flagella= no motility
-trichous= hair

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37
Q

define monotrichous

A

single polar flagellum (1 flagellum)

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38
Q

define amphitrichous

A

1 flagellum on each end

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39
Q

define lophotrichous

A

multiple polar flagella, tuft (threads of hair) on one or both ends

loph= tuft

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40
Q

define peritrichous

A

flagella distributed over the entire cell

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41
Q

What is another name for pili?

A

fimbria

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42
Q

What are pili?

A

protein fibers that originate from the cell membrane that are not flagella (smaller shorter and more numerous than flagella)

present on mostly gram negative bacteria

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43
Q

What is the function of pili?

A

-serve as attachment sites to viruses and cells of body
-some bacteria contain a specialized “F pilus” which serves as a conjugation tube for transfer of DNA (F stands for fertility, but remember that bacteria is asexual)
-pili act as virulence factor (enhance attachment to host cells)

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44
Q

What are the 3 major modes of genetic exchange between bacteria ?

A

1) conjugation
2) transduction
3) transformation

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45
Q

What is conjugation?

A

genetic exchange between bacteria, involves cell-to-cell contact

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46
Q

What is transduction?

A

foreign DNA is introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector

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47
Q

define transformation

A

genetic alteration of a cell resulting from the direct uptake and incorporation of exogenous genetic material from its surroundings through the cell membrane(s)

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48
Q

What is another name for the capsule of bacterial cells?

A

glycocalyx or slime layer

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49
Q

The capsule of a bacterial cell is a gelatinous, sticky substance that surrounds the outside of the cell. It is usually _________________ in nature. The layer can be thick and covalently bound to cell and is referred to as a “capsule.” A thinner, loosely attached layer is referred to as a “slime layer”

A

polysaccharide

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50
Q

What does the capsule of a bacterial cell protect the cell from?

A

-from desiccation and other environmental factors
-against phagocytosis by macrophages and phagocytic WBCs

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51
Q

What are the SHiNE SKiS encapsulated organisms (bacteria w/ capsule)?

A

-strep pneumonia (S)
-haemophilus influenza (h i)
-Neisseria meningitis (N)
-E. coli (E)
-Strep algalacticae (Group B strep) (S)
-Klebsiella (K)
-Salmonella (S)

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52
Q

What does Quellung reaction positive mean?

A

when microorganisms are mixed with specific anti-microbial serum, the capsule swells

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53
Q

Bacterial cell walls help maintain shape and protect the cell membrane from rupture. What differentiates gram positive bacteria from gram negative bacteria?

test q

A

the amount of peptidoglycan in the cell wall

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54
Q

What is endotoxin?

A

potentially fatal toxin released from the lipopolysaccharide layer of the dead and dying gram-negative bacteria

LPS (endotoxin) of gram negative bacteria are the bacterial cell outer membrane components

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55
Q

What is exotoxin?

A

a bacterial posion composed of protein that may be excreted by a microorganism or released upon lysis

acts on a tissue site

categorized by tissues they affect

many gram positive and gram negative organisms produce exotoxins
-enterotoxin
-neurotoxin

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56
Q

What bacteria has the cell wall with a thicker layer of peptidoglycan?

test q

A

gram positive

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57
Q

What bacteria has the cell wall with a thinner layer of peptidoglycan?

test q

A

gram negative

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58
Q

What is found in the LPS of gram negative bacteria that is responsible for fever toxicity?

test q

A

Lipid A

on cell death, lipid A is released and is related to endotoxins!!!!

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59
Q

How many layers does gram positive bacteria have?

test q

A

3 layers

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60
Q

How many layers does gram negative bacteria have?

test q

A

5 layers

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61
Q

T/F: most bacteria are haploid because they have only one chromosome that contains the cell’s essential genetic info

A

true

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62
Q

What is the nucleoid?

A

-localized region of the cytoplasm which contains double stranded, circular DNA molecule
-NOT membrane bound

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63
Q

What are plasmids?

A

-present in some but not all bacteria (nonessential genetic info, comprised of 1-2% of total cell DNA)
-small circular double stranded DNA
-codes like nucleus, for cell products like enzymes

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64
Q

What part of the bacterial cell is responsible for antibiotic resistance?

A

plasmids

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65
Q

What are the vehicles for genetic engineering?

A

plasmids

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66
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

-spherical structures made up of protein and ribosomal RNA
-involved in protein synthesis
-built from RNA and protein and are composed of a large subunit (50S) and a small subunit (30S)
-for proteins to be synthesized, the 2 subunits come together and form a 70S functional ribosome (50S + 30S= 70S)
-their relative size is measured in Svedburg units by how fast they settle when spun in a centrifuge

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67
Q

What is the function of ribosomes?

A

translate RNA and make protein

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68
Q

What are inclusions (volutin/metachromatic granules)?

A

nutrient storage granules that stain red with methylene blue and are composed of polyphosphate used for energy like ATP

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69
Q

What are endospores?

A

-organelles for survival
-produced when nutrients are limited
-extremely resistant dormant cell produced by some gram positive bacterial species (some may live 60+ years)
-main reason for sterilization in canning process is to kill endospores (especially those of clostridium botulinum)
-under ideal conditions, they germinate into vegetative cells

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70
Q

What 2 genera of bacteria produce spores (endospores)?

A

1) clostridium (terminal spores, anaerobic- air is toxic)
2) bacillus (central spores, aerobic- need air to grow)

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71
Q

What is the difference between eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

A
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72
Q

What is the bright-field/compound light microscope? What are its characteristics?

A

-possess 2 lens system: objective lens near the specimen and the ocular lens near your eye
-objective lens produces a magnified image of the object and the ocular lens magnifies the image produced by the objective lens

3 basic magnifications of objective lens=
-low power = 10x
-high dry= 43x
-oil immersion= 100x

magnification of ocular lens is usually 10-20x

final magnification= objective x ocular
-lower power 10x x ocular 10x= 100x
-high dry 43x x ocular 10x= 430x
-oil immersion 100x x ocular 10x= 1000x

principle= light passes through a colored stained object

stain provides contrast

objects observed= arrangement, shape, size of killed microorganisms (except viruses)

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73
Q

What is a dark field microscope?

A

used to view live, unstained microorganisms and motility of live cells, such as Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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74
Q

What is a flourescent microscope?

A

-image appears bright against a dark background
-uses fluorescent dyes called fluorochromes
-principle= UV light illuminates fluorescent coated objects

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75
Q

What is an immunofluorescent microscope?

A

a fluorescent dye is coupled to a specific antibody and this antibody can be used to stain the antigen

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76
Q

What is an electron microscope?

A

-uses beams of electrons to magnify and resolve specimens
-short wavelength of the beam of electrons dramatically increases the resolving power of the microscope and makes it possible to visualize viruses and detailed structures

2 types commonly used=
-transmission electron microscope (TEM) used to view and record detailed structures within cells
-scanning electron microscope (SEM) used to see the surfaces of objects in the natural state, provides vivid and undistorted views of an organism’s surface details

principle= a beam of electrons is passed through the specimen

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77
Q

What is a simple stain?

A

using one dye, to note the shape of the microbe

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78
Q

Who is gram stain named after?

A

Christian Gram

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79
Q

What is gram staining?

A

-differential staining procedure used to distingusih between gram pos (purple) or gram neg (red) cells (the color is due to the amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls)

gram pos (purple) organisms are composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan

gram neg (red) organisms have a thin layer of peptidoglycan and a thicker layer of LPS (lipid A endotoxin) and lipoprotein

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80
Q

Gram staining consists of 4 reagents, 2 of those being dyes. What are the 4 reagents?

A

1) crystal violet
2) iodine
3) alcohol 95% or alcohol acetone mixture
4) safranin (red)

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81
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram positive bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied?

A

purple

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82
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram negative bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied?

A

purple

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83
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram positive bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied and then iodine?

A

purple

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84
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram negative bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied and then iodine?

A

purple

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85
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram positive bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied, then iodine and alcohol?

A

purple

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86
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram negative bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied, then iodine and alcohol?

A

colorless

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87
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram positive bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied, then iodine and alcohol, and finally safranin/carbol fuchsin?

A

purple

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88
Q

For gram staining, what color would gram negative bacteria be when primary dye (crystal violet) is applied, then iodine and alcohol, and finally safranin/carbol fuchsin?

A

pink or red

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89
Q

What is another name for acid fast stain? Who was it named after?

A

Ziehl-Neelsen stain

named after Paul Ehrlich

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90
Q

What organisms are identified in acid fast stains?

A

genus Mycobacterium

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91
Q

What is mycolic acid?

A

waxy lipid material in cell walls of mycobacteria that is associated with virulence (strongly disease capable) and the acid fast property (it sucks up the acid fast stain)

it has anti-phagocytic properties

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92
Q

What are the 3 reagents used in acid fast staining?

A

1) carbol fuchsin
2) acid/alcohol
3) methylene blue

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93
Q

What color is acid fast bacteria? What color is non-acid fast bacteria?

A

acid fast bacteria= red

non-acid fast bacteria= blue

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94
Q

What are the 2 main acid fast bacterias of clinical significance?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) and mycobacterium leprae (leprosy)

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95
Q

What are the 3 nutritional types of cultivation based on carbon needs?

A

1) autotrophs (self-feeding)
2) heterotrophs (feed on others)
3) saprobe (a type of heterotroph that feeds on the dead)

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96
Q

What are autotrophs?

A

-self feeders
-synthesize their own foods from simple carbon sources such as CO2
-carbohydrates are their main source of energy
-found in many places like soil, water, etc (human body is not their normal habitat- speaking of bacteria)

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97
Q

What are heterotrophs?

A

-feed on others
-derives its nutritional requirements from complex organic substances
-cannot synthesize its own food and relies on other organisms (both plant and animals for nutrition)
-obtain carbon by feeding on organic material present in other organisms

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98
Q

What are saprobes?

A

-a specific type of heterotroph that requires dead organic matter as a source of energy
-found in large intestine, manure, dead decaying animals, etc

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99
Q

What is enriched media?

A

-media that enhances growth
-contains substances which will enhance the growth of fastidious organisms (complex nutritional requirements)
-may contain blood, serum, heat treated blood, etc

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100
Q

What is selective media?

A

-media that selects whats to grow
-contains ingredients to inhibit the growth of certain microbes while allowing the growth of others (crystal violet inhibits gram positive organisms without inhibiting gram negative organisms)

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101
Q

What is differential media?

A

-media that can differentiate between different bacteria
-contains one or more compounds that allow one to differentiate between similar species based on specific biochemical or physiological properties
-can easily distinguish colonies from each other based on color, hemolytic patterns, etc

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102
Q

define optimum growth temp

A

temp which allows for the most growth within a short period of time

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103
Q

What is one of the most important physical factors for governing growth in bacteria?

A

optimum growth temp

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104
Q

What are psychrophiles?

A

psychro= cold
-able to grow at 0 degrees celsius (ideally) but can also grow between 15-20 degrees celsius

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105
Q

What are mesophiles?

A

meso= middle
-like temp between 20-40 degrees celsius, or body temp of humans (37 degrees celsius)

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106
Q

What are thermophiles?

A

thermo= hot
-multiply best at temps around 60 degrees celsius but can still grow between 40-70 degrees celsius

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107
Q

What are aerobes?

A

organisms that require oxygen like humans (approx 21.5% oxygen)

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108
Q

What are microaerophiles?

A

organisms that like lower conc. of oxygen (less than 21.5%)

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109
Q

What are anerobes?

A

-do not or cannot use oxygen
-fail to process an enzyme which is able to breakdown hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) which is toxic

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110
Q

define facultative

A

grow in the presence or reduced conc. of oxygen
-there 2 types: anaerobe and aerobe

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111
Q

What are facultative anaerobes?

A

can grow anaerobically but prefers aerobic growth

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112
Q

What are facultative aerobes?

A

can grow aerobically but prefers to grow anaerobically

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113
Q

Do bacteria cells reproduce sexually or asexually? Explain

A

-asexual reproduction or cell division of 2 daughter cells
-called binary fission

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114
Q

What is binary fission?

A

how bacteria reproduces
-occurs after a period of growth in which the cell doubles in mass
-DNA replicates and the 2 DNA molecules separate
-population of bacteria grows in a geometric progression (exponentially, doubles)

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115
Q

define generation time

A

time interval for the bacterial cell to divide/double (average is 20-60 min depending on species)

note: useful in determining the amount of time that passes before symptoms appear in an infected individual (faster division means shorter incubation time for a disease)

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116
Q

What are the 4 parts of a growth curve?

A

1) lag phase (preparation for division, period of adjustment, slow cell growth but no division)
2) log (exponential) phase (steady division at a constant rate)
3) stationary phase (organisms dying = organisms being produced, population is in a plateau)
4) decline or death phase (number of dying cells exceeds the number being reproduced, the numbers begin to decrease because of environmental changes like pH, decrease in nutrients, toxic by-product build up, etc)

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117
Q

T/F: microbial growth can be measured by direct and indirect methods

A

true

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118
Q

What is the direct method for measuring microbial growth?

A

viable cell count enumeration (samples of a broth cultures from a serial dilution are poured into agar plates, after incubation the number of viable cells can be estimated)

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119
Q

What is the indirect method for measuring microbial growth?

A

turbidometric enumeration (increase in growth is measured by turbidity in optical density (OD) or precent transmission units on a spectrophotometer

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120
Q

T/F: bacteria occur in nature as single species

A

true but RARELY (usually occur in mixed culture)

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121
Q

To study a species, one must use a ______ culture that is a population consisting of only one species

A

pure

122
Q

What is the most common method used for bacteria isolation in pure culture?

A

streak plate!

123
Q

Besides streak plate, what is another common method used for isolating a bacteria in pure culture?

A

dilution method or pour plate method
-most frequently used in research settings
-its the dilution of specimens (serial dilution) in tube of liquid nutrient agar, poured into plates to solidify
-colonies emerge in poured plates and show isolation

124
Q

What type of mediums are the most beneficial when doing streak plate or pour plate technique?

A

differential and/or selective media

125
Q

What are the 4 techniques for preservation of bacteria?

A

1) periodic transfer from agar plate (short term)
2) mineral oil overlay (short term)
3) lyophilization (rapid freezing followed by desiccation, long term)
4) liquid nitrogen slow freeze (long term)

126
Q

define (taxonomy) nomenclature

A

giving names of appropriate taxonomic rank to the classified organisms

127
Q

define (taxonomy) classifications

A

assignment of organisms into an organized scheme of naming

128
Q

define (taxonomy) identifications

A

obtaining data on the properties of the organism (characterization) and determination of which species it belongs to

129
Q

The most fundamental form of classification was introduced by Linnaeus. This classification is known as ______________________, where each organism has 2 names

A

binomial nomenclature

130
Q

What is binomial nomenclature?

A

the first name is Genus classification, the second name is the species classification

131
Q

Most life forms are divided on a broad scale into 6 kingdoms. What are the 6 kingdoms?

A

1) archaebacterium (ex: thermophils)
2) eubacteria (ex: pathogens and commensals)
3) protista (ex: algae and protozoans)
4) fungi (ex: yeast and molds)
5) plantae (ex: seed plants and mosses)
6) animalia (ex: humans)

132
Q

Are all 6 kingdoms made up of cellular organisms?

A

yes!!!!!

133
Q

What are the 3 domains?

A

1) eukarya (all eukaryotic cells)
2) bacteria (prokaryotic cells)
3) archaea (prokaryotic cells)

134
Q

What is the formal rank classifications in order?

A

1) domain (largest rank)
2) kingom
3) division
4) class
5) order
6) family
7) genus
8) species
8a) subtype (smallest rank)

135
Q

Are viruses and prions included in taxonomy classification system?

A

no!!!! because they’re acellular

136
Q

define sterilization

A

the removal or destruction of all microbes, including viruses and bacterial endospores in or on an object (kills everything)

137
Q

define antiseptic

A

DEPENDS ON CONTENTS (yes these are both in his notes)
A) an environment or procedure that is free of contamination by pathogens
B) chemical used to inhibit or kill microorganisms on skin or tissue

138
Q

What is bacteremia?

A

-presence of bacteria in the bloodstream
-can occur from vigorous tooth brushing, dental or medical procedures, infections such as pneumonia or UTIs

139
Q

What is septicemia?

A

bacterial infection that starts in the body within the lungs or skin and then travels into the bloodstream

140
Q

What is sepsis?

A

-serious complication of septicemia (infection that starts in the lungs or skin and travels to blood stream)
-causes inflammation through entire body
-can progress to septic shock and has a death rate of 50%
-sepsis is considered a medical emergency because it can lead to tissue damage, organ failure, and death

141
Q

What is pyaemia (pyemia)?

A

-type of septicemia that leads to widespread abscesses of a metastatic nature
-usually caused by the staphylococcus bacteria by pus-forming organisms in the blood

142
Q

define disinfection

A

refers to the use of physical or chemical agents (disinfectants) to inhibit or destroy microorganisms, especially pathogens

143
Q

-acide= ?

A

killing

ex: germicide, viracide, bacteracide

144
Q

What is bacteriostasis?

A

inhibits microbial metabolism and growth, but does not necessarily kill microbes (“maintains equilibrium”)

145
Q

What is autoclaving?

A

-using high temp and pressure for sterilization including destruction of spores
-kills by protein denaturation (coagulation)
-medical and lab supplies that can tolerate heat and moisture

146
Q

What is boiling used for?

A

-if its used for sterilizing exposure then it must be boiled for at least 30 min
-kills by protein denaturation (coagulation)
-disinfection of baby bottles and sanitization of restaurant cookware

147
Q

What is pasteurization?

A

-reduces bacterial population and destroys pathogens
-spores are not affected by pasteurization
-used in dairy products, fruit juices, beer, and wine

3 methods of pasteurization:
-holding or batch method
-flash pasteurization method
-ultra-high temp method (provides sterilization)

148
Q

define pathogen

A

organism that may cause disease

149
Q

What is dry heat used for?

A

-destroy spores
-heat changes microbial proteins by oxidation
-used for water sensitive materials like powders, oils, and metals

150
Q

What is non-ionizing radiation?

A

-UV light
-cellular DNA absorbs energy and adjacent thymine molecules link together kinking the double helix and disrupting DNA replication
-used for disinfection/sterilization of surfaces and of transparent fluids/gases

151
Q

What is ionizing radiation?

A

-electron beams, gamma rays, and some X-rays
-rays pass through microbial molecules and forces electrons out of their shells creating ions
-electron beams are produced by cathode ray machines
-sterilization of medical and lab equipment and preservation of food
-more dangerous than non-ionizing radiation

152
Q

What is filtration used for?

A

-passage of fluid, liquid, or gas though a sieve designed to trap particles and separate them from the fluid
-anything that cannot be heated such as antibiotics, vaccines, heat sensitive ophthalmic and enzyme solutions

153
Q

What is osmotic pressure used for?

A

-use of hypertonic solution (high salt or sugar conc.)
-used for preservation of food

154
Q

What is desiccation?

A

-removal of water
-if no water is present, then there is no growth
-used for the preservation of food

155
Q

What is refrigeration/freezing used for?

A

-decreasing microbial metabolism, growth, and reproduction because chemical reactions occur slower at low temp
-used for preservation of foods, drugs, and cultures

156
Q

What are phenol and phenolics (carbolic acid) used for?

A

-reduce infection during surgery
-denatures protein and disrupts cell membranes
-may have skin irritation

157
Q

What are alcohols used for?

A

-bactericidal, fungicidal, virucidal
-not effective against spores
-denatures proteins and disrupts cytoplasmic membranes
-70% ethyl is the most effective conc. which denatures proteins but requires water
-used as disinfectant and antiseptic

158
Q

What are halogens used for?

A

-effective against vegetative bacterial and fungal cells, fungal spores, some bacterial endospores and protozoan cysts and many viruses
-unfolds and denatures essential proteins including enzymes

159
Q

What are the 4 halogens we talked about in class used to unfold and denature essential proteins/enzymes?

A

1) iodine
2) chlorine
3) bromine
4) fluorine

160
Q

What is iodine used for (its a halogen)?

A

to disinfect water and is used as an antiseptic

161
Q

What is chlorine used for (its a halogen)?

A

treat drinking water, pools, wastewater from sewage plants, and disinfectants

162
Q

What is bromine used for (its a halogen)?

A

disinfectant in hot tubs, swimming pools, and cooling towers

163
Q

What is fluorine used for (its a halogen)?

A

used in drinking water and toothpastes

164
Q

What heavy metals are used in medical/lab settings?

A

mercury, silver, and copper

165
Q

What are heavy metals (mercury, silver, and copper) used for?

A

-to denature proteins
-used on fungistats in plants, in silver nitrate cream, surgical dressings, catheters
-some states require 1% silver nitrate eye drops for newborns to prevent blindness by Neisseria gonorrhea

166
Q

What are the aldehydes used in medical/lab settings?

A

glutaraldehyde and formaldehyde

167
Q

What are aldehydes (glutaraldehyde and formaldehyde) used for?

A

-denatures proteins and inactivates nucleic acids
-used as a disinfectant and embalming fluid

168
Q

What gaseous agents are used in medical/ lab settings?

A

-ethylene oxide (commonly used in hospitals and dental offices for sterilization)
-propylene oxide
-beta propiolactone

169
Q

What are gaseous agents (ethylene oxide, propylene oxide, beta propiolactone) used for?

A

-denatures proteins and DNA
-sterilizes heat/water sensitive objects

170
Q

What are surfactants (soap and detergents) used for?

A

-decreases surface tension of water and disrupts cell membranes
-used as degerming and antiseptic

171
Q

Is chemotherapy natural or synthetic material?

A

synthetic

172
Q

Paul Ehrlich proposed the term chemotherapy to describe the use of chemicals that would selectively kill pathogens while having little effect on a patient “magic bullet” would bind on bacterial receptors to bring about death. He discovered an arsenic compound that kills trypanosome parasites and another that killed against the agent of….

A

syphilis (Treponema pallidum)

173
Q

Selman Waksman coined the term ___________ to describe antimicrobial agents that are produced naturally by an organism

A

antibiotic

174
Q

What are the 2 antimicrobials we talked about in class?

A

1) sulfa drugs (sulfonamides)
2) isoniazid (INH)

175
Q

What are sulfa drugs (sulfonamides)?

A

-antimicrobial drug that is a competitive inhibitor
-bacterial cells need folic acid for nucleic acid synthesis and this drug inhibits this

176
Q

What is isoniaszid (INH)?

A

-antimicrobial drug used for treatment of mycobacterium sp.
-it disrupts the formation of mycolic acid in cell wall

177
Q

What are the 5 major antibiotics we should know?

A

1) penicillin
2) streptomyocins
3) tetracyclines
4) rifampin
5) vancomycin

178
Q

Where does penicillin come from?

potential test q

A

-from molds of the genus penicillium
-isolated from common green mold by Alexander Fleming

179
Q

What is the mechanism of action (MOA) of penicillin?

A

inhibits cell wall synthesis

180
Q

What are the 2 disadvantages of penicillin?

A

1) anaphylactic reactions
2) penicillin resistence in bacteria

181
Q

Where do streptomyocins come from?

A

streptomyces griseus bacteria

182
Q

What is the MOA of streptomyocins?

A

inhibits protein synthesis

note: effectiveness is limited due to bacterias growing resistant

183
Q

What is the major con of taking streptomyocins besides resistance?

A

its toxic for the vestibular portion of the 8th cranial nerve, causing tinnitus, vertigo, and ataxia (neural problem, you lack coordination), which are often irreversible

184
Q

Which antibiotic out of the major 5 is considered a broad-spectrum antibiotic (can be used for basically any bacteria- “broad”)?

A

tetracyclines

185
Q

What is the MOA of tetracyclines?

A

inhibits protein synthesis

note: discoloration of teeth in babies may occur if taken for prolonged periods by pregnant mother

186
Q

What is the MOA of rifampin?

A

inhibits RNA synthesis

187
Q

What is rifampin usually used for?

A

used against meningococcus or leprosy

188
Q

What are the side effects of rifampin?

A

urine, tears, feces, and other body secretions to turn orange-red color

189
Q

What is the MOA of vancomyocin?

A

blocks formation of peptidoglycans in the cell wall

190
Q

How is vancomyosin administered?

A

through IV

191
Q

What is vancomyosin usually used for?

A

MRSA (methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus)

192
Q

What are bacteriophages used for?

A

bacterial viruses used to control bacteria

193
Q

Is S. aureus gram pos or neg? What shape is it?

A

-gram pos
-cocci (in grape-like/irregular clusters)

194
Q

What color are S. aureus colonies?

A

gold (pigmented, chromogenic)

195
Q

Is S. aureus highly resistant?

A

yes

196
Q

What does S. aureus produce that makes it increase its virulence and pathogenicity?

A

-produces coagulase (shows up coagulase pos in test, this increases virulence)
-produces several toxins (increases pathogenicity)

197
Q

Where is S. aureus found? How common is it?

A

-found on the skin
-carried asymptomatically in nasopharynx in 20-40% of normal adults
-seen commonly in hospitals 50-70%

198
Q

What is toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?

A

-toxin brought on by S. aureus
-associated with tampons and leaving them in for too long/forgetting to take out
-caused by TSS exotoxin

199
Q

What are the S&S of Toxin Shock Syndrome (TSS)?

A

-may be fatal
-fever
-rash
-desquamation (peeling of skin on palms and soles)
-hypotension
-diarrhea
-vomiting

200
Q

What food borne disease is caused by S. aureus?

A

gastroenteritis

201
Q

What is gastroenteritis? What are the S&S?

A

-food poisoning/ toxemia brought on by S. aureus
-due to enterotoxin (exotoxin) produced on food, usually starchy foods like potatoes
-the toxin is heat stable (cannot be destroyed by heat)
-diarrhea and vomiting

202
Q

What is scalded skin syndrome?

A

-due to diffusible exotoxin (exfoliatin)
-causes the epidermis to peel away from dermis
-usually seen in infants and children under 5 y/o

203
Q

What are the 4 types of skin infections brought on my S. aureus? How are they usually brought on?

A

1) folliculitis (inflammation around hair follicles)
2) furuncles (skin boils/bumps with pus)
3) carbuncles (hair follicle infection that spreads into deep subcutaneous tissue)
4) impetigo (epidermal infection causing crust, scabs, and fever)

these 4 types are usually spread after wound infection, typically nosocomial wound infection

204
Q

What is the rare bone infection brought on by S. aureus?

A

osteomyelitis

205
Q

What is the intestinal infection following surgery brought on by S. aureus called?

A

enteritis

206
Q

What lung infection can be caused by S. aureus, but is usually only pertaining to immunocompromised individuals?

A

pneumonia

207
Q

What infection is in the inner membrane of the heart and is caused by S. aureus?

A

infective endocarditis

208
Q

What is pyogenic arthritis?

A

arthritis caused by S. aureus

209
Q

What are the 2 lab tests that can be done to diagnose pt with S. aureus?

A

1) coagulase test (positive test= blood serum coagulates= s. aureus)
2) mannitol salt agar (s. aureus will grow and agar will change from pink to yellow)

210
Q

What genus is the only one that will grow on Mannitol Salt Agar?

A

Staphylococcus

211
Q

Is mannitol salt agar differential, selective, or both

A

both

212
Q

What is the treatment for S. aureus?

A

antibiotics

213
Q

How can you prevent S. aureus bacterial infections?

A

-hygiene for wounds and wound dressings
-refrigerate starchy foods to prevent food poisoning
-use hygiene practices when cooking

214
Q

What is the S. aureus super bug? What is it resistant to?

A

methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
-MRSA is resistant to all common antibiotics like methicillin, oxacillin, penicillin, and amoxicillin
-MRSA is usually a nosocomial infection

215
Q

How is MRSA treated?

A

vancomycin

216
Q

Is S. epidermidis gram pos or neg? What shape is it? What disease comes from it?

A

-gram pos
-cocci (grape-like/irregular clusters)
-opportunistic infections

217
Q

S. epidermidis is normal flora where?

A

on human skin

218
Q

How is S. epidermidis similar to S. aureus in terms of growth?

A

both grow on the same agars, but S. aureus would appear gold/yellow, whereas S. epidermidis would appear with white colonies

S. aureus is pigmented yellow = chromogenic
S. epidermidis is not pigmented/white= non-chromogenic

S. aureus will ferment on mannitol salt agar, while S. epidermidis will not ferment

219
Q

Where is S. epidermidis found?

remember that its an opportunistic infection!

A

-found in biofilms (aggregate of interactive bacteria attached to a solid surface or each other and is encased in an exopolysaccharide matrix)
-found in IV catheters
-contact lenses and intraocular lenses (when theres an eye infection)
-dental plaque
-prosthetics (when theres joint infections)

220
Q

Will a coagulase test appear positive or negative for S. epidermidis?

A

negative! S. epidermidis does not produce coagulase

221
Q

What is the treatment for S. epidermidis?

A

antibiotics

222
Q

What does pyogenic mean?

A

bacteria that produces pus

223
Q

What are the 2 types of pyogenic staphylococci?

A

1) S. aureus
2) S. epidermidis

224
Q

What are the 4 types of pyogenic streptococci?

A

1) S. pyogenes
2) S. agalactiae
3) S. viridans + S. mitis
4) S. pneumoniae

225
Q

There are 4 types of pyogenic streptococci. Are they all gram pos or neg bacteria? What shape are they?

A

-gram pos
-cocci chains

226
Q

There are 4 types of pyogenic streptococci. They are classified into groups based on the C carbohydrate in the cell wall, called the Lancefield groups (A-H and K-U). What are the 2 groups we need to know?

A

Group A- primarily human pathogens

Group B- cattle and human pathogens

227
Q

There are 4 types of pyogenic streptococci, and 2 groups (A and B) we need to know. Each group also contains a cell wall associated with M protein which can further be divided into 60 types. What is the M protein?

A

-anti-phagocytic protein
-important in virulence
-induces type specific immunity (there are at least 60 types of infections for just Group A, theres a bunch of variations)

228
Q

There are 4 types of pyogenic streptococci and 2 groups (A and B) which we need to know. Generally within strep, they produce 4 different extracellular products which can enhance their pathogenicity and virulence. What are these 4 extracellular products?

A

1) hylauronidase
2) streptokinase
3) pyrogenic exotoxins
4) hemolysins

229
Q

What is hylauronidase?

A

-extracellular product from strep
-spreading factor enzyme
-aids in spreading infected microorganisms by digesting hyaluronic acid (a polysaccharide that binds cells together in CT)

230
Q

What is streptokinase?

A

-extracellular product from strep
-produced by many strains of group A strep
-digests clots allowing the bacteria to escape from blood clots

231
Q

What are pyogenic exotoxins?

A

-extracellular product from strep
-stimulates leukocytes to release cytokines that in turn stimulate fever, rash, and shock

232
Q

What are hemolysins?

A

-extracellular product from strep
-lyses membranes of erythrocytes and damages a variety of other cells
-specifically called streptolysin S or O depending on the strep

233
Q

Which strep do we need to know that is a part of Group A strep?

A

S. pyogenes

234
Q

What 5 diseases does S. pyogenes cause?

A

-strep pharyngitis
-endocarditis
-rheumatic fever
-glomerulonephritis
-necrotizing fasciitis

235
Q

Is S. pyogenes gram pos or neg? What shape is it?

A

-gram pos
-cocci chains

236
Q

How does S. pyogenes initially begin in terms of infections?

A

initially starts off as respiratory infection

237
Q

What is streptococcus pharyngitis?

A

-strep throat from S. pyogenes (Group A)
-septic sore throat

238
Q

What is the most common manifestation of Group A infections?

A

streptococcus pharyngitis (strep throat from S. pyogenes)

239
Q

What is scarlet fever?

A

-streptococcus pharyngitis (strep throat from S. pyogenes) together with body rash from an erythrogenic strain of S. pyogenes
-rash is due to diffusible toxin

240
Q

What is the lab test done to diagnose scarlet fever (streptococcus pharyngitis/strep throat from S. pyogenes w/rash)?

A

Schultz Charlton test
-skin test
-uses antitoxin to the erythrogenic toxin of S. pyogenes subcutaneously
-a positive reaction is blanching of the rash in the area around the injection site

241
Q

What is steptococcal impetigo?

A

-brought on by S. pyogenes
-most common in young children
-thin amber crust on skin (golden yellow color), begins on nose and spreads throughout face and body

242
Q

What is erysipelas?

A

-specific type of cellulitis (inflammation of dermis/subcutaneous layer), brought on by S. pyogenes
-most common among infants, children, and elderly
-appears as fiery red, swollen, warm, and painful rash

243
Q

What are the 4 signs of inflammation?

A

-redness
-swelling/inflammation
-pain
-heat/warmth

244
Q

What are the 2 big complications of group A strep (S. pyogenes)?

A

Rheumatic fever and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

245
Q

What is rheumatic fever?

potential test q

A

-complication of group A strep (S. pyogenes)
-most common in school age children
-primarily affects joints and the heart
-characterized by fever and joint pain
-can lead to permanent scarring and distortion of the heart valves (type 2 hypersensitivity)
-can cause damage in the endocardium

note: this is not an infection, its an inflammatory response post strep throat

246
Q

What is post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

A

-complication of group A strep (S. pyogenes)
-most common in young people
-occurs about 1 week post pharyngeal infection
-inflammatory response to M protein in the bacteria
-antigen-antibody complexes form and accumulate in glomerulus of the kidney (type 3 hypersensitivity reaction)
-progressive irreversible kidney damage may occur in adults

247
Q

What are the tests for Group A strep (S. pyogenes)?

A

-bacitracin antibiotic disk test
-blood agar test
-anti-streptolysin O test

248
Q

What is the bacitracin antibiotic disk test?

A

differentiates group A strep from other groups

only group A strep is sensitive to this antibiotic, whereas other bacterias would still grow in presence of this antibiotic

249
Q

What is the blood agar test used for diagnosis of group A strep (S. pyogenes)?

A

when S. pyogenes is plated on blood agar, an area of complete clearing occurs around the bacterial colonies, this is called complete hemolysis or beta hemolysis (only group A strep does this, others will have alpha or gamma hemolysis)

also note, dewdrop/pinpoint colonies are characteristic of Group A strep here

250
Q

What is the ASO- anti streptolysin O test?

A

-anti-streptolysin is an antibody that appears after an infection with a streptococci that produces streptolysin O
-this test measures the titer/antibody levels in the blood
-can be used to determine if symptoms like joint pain, heart problems, etc are associated with the strep infection

251
Q

What is the treatment for group A strep (S. pyogenes)?

A

antibiotics

252
Q

What is the one group B strep we have to know?

A

S. agalactiae

253
Q

What diseases does S. agalactiae cause?

A

-post partum infection
-infant pneumonia
-meningitis

254
Q

Is S. agalactiae a gram pos or neg bacteria? What is its shape?

A

-gram pos
-cocci chains

255
Q

What are the 2 streps we have to know that are beta hemolytic?

A

S. pyogenes and S. agalactiae

256
Q

What are the 3 streps we have to know that are alpha hemolytic?

A

S. viridans, S. mitis, and S. pneumonia

257
Q

S. agalactiae is a part of the normal human flora. Where?

A

-vagina
-lower GI in 5-30% of women

258
Q

Are there complications for S. agalactiae? If so, what are they?

A

not really, only for immunocompromised or elderly

in this case, they may get:
-bacteremia
-skin and soft tissue infections
-respiratory infections
-genitourinary infections

259
Q

In newborns, if they are born to a mother with group B strep (S. agalactiae), they may develop ____________ within the first 5 days of life. What also may occur?

A

pneumonia

meningitis

260
Q

What is recommended for pregnant women when it comes to group B strep (S. agalactiae)?

A

-to be screened at 35-37 weeks
-if they test pos for group B strep= administer IV ampicillin to prevent infection in baby post labor

261
Q

What 2 bacterias cause endocarditis besides S. aureus?

A

strep!
- S. viridans and S. mitis

262
Q

Is S. viridans and S. mitis gram pos or neg? What shape are they?

A

-gram pos
-cocci chains

263
Q

S. viridans and S. mitis are normal flora where?

A

throat and nasopharynx

264
Q

What 3 streps do not possess C carbohydrate and are not classified in the Lancefield classification?

A

S. viridans, S. mitis, and S. pneumonia

265
Q

What happens to the heart in patients exposed to S. viridans and S. mitis?

A

-upon reaching heart and damaged valve, the bacterias multiple and cause further damage, frequently causing the valve to fragment
-bacterial colonization of the endocardium triggers inflammation aka endocarditis and the formation of vegetation
-usually occurs in individuals who already have injured heart

266
Q

What are the symptoms for endocarditis brought on by S. viridans and S. mitis?

A

-fever
-extreme fatigue
-malaise
-breathing difficulty
-death, if left untreated

267
Q

How do you diagnose S. viridans and S. mitis endocarditis?

A

colonies produce alpha (partial/greenish) hemolysis on blood agar test

268
Q

What is the treatment for S. viridans and S. mitis endocarditis?

A

antibiotics

269
Q

What is the synonym for S. pneumonia?

A

pneumococcus

270
Q

Is S. pneumonia a gram pos or neg bacteria? What shape is it?

A

-gram pos
-lancet shaped diplococci OR chains

271
Q

What enhances S. pneumonia virulence?

A

has a polysaccharide capsule that enhances its virulence

272
Q

Is S. pneumonia a part of normal flora? If so, where?

A

upper respiratory tract in 4-50% of humans

273
Q

Are there different types of S. pneumonia?

A

yes, over 90 types, each differentiated by a different type of polysaccharide capsule

274
Q

Pneumococcal pneumonia is one of the major causes of pneumonia in humans. What are the symptoms?

A

-sudden chill
-fever
-cough
-pleuritic pain
-red/brown rusty color sputum

often occurs in conjunction with viral disease of the upper respiratory tract

275
Q

Who is more prone to S. pneumonia?

A

patients;
-with impaired respiratory drainage
-bedridded
-that are heavy smokers
-with emphysema

276
Q

S. pneumonia can cause pneumonia but what else is common? What other bacterias cause this, as well?

A

meningitis

other bacterias that cause meningitis:
-Neisseria meningitis
-Haemophilus influenza

277
Q

S. pneumonia commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. What are the less common infections/diseases?

A

-sinusitis
-otitis
-bronchitis
-bacteremia

278
Q

What are the common symptoms of meningitis?

A

-high temp
-severe headache
-stiff neck
-chills

279
Q

What are the diagnostic tests done for S. pneumonia?

A

-direct smears from sputum show gram pos lancet shaped diplococci
-alpha (incomplete/greenish) hemolysis on blood agar test
-optochin antibiotic disk sensitive test (S. pneumonia will show no growth, other streps will still grow in presence of optochin)
-quellung reaction positive (related to polysaccharides/capsules, if bacteria has it then test is pos)

280
Q

What is a synonym for Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A

gonococcus

281
Q

What disease does Neisseria gonorrhoeae cause?

A

gonorrhea (gonococcal urethritis)

282
Q

Is N. gonorrhoeae gram pos or neg bacteria? What shape is it?

A

-gram neg
-diplococci (coffee bean shape)

283
Q

What is the incubation period for N. gonorrhoeae? What happens during this time?

A

2-9 days, disease of mucus membranes of genitourinary tract, eyes, throat, and rectum

284
Q

Which gender tends to have more acute symptoms with gonorrhea?

A

males

285
Q

What are the male signs, symptoms, and complications for gonorrhea?

A

-urethral inflammation with pus and painful urination
-swollen lymph nodes in groin area
-unchecked infection of the epididymis may lead to sterility

286
Q

Are sexual partners considered horizontal or vertical transmission when infections are spread?

A

horizontal transmission

287
Q

What are the female signs, symptoms, and complications of gonorrhea?

A

-red cervix with discharge
-abdominal pain
-burning sensation when urinating
-may spread to fallopian tubes, which become riddled with pouches and adhesions
-salpingitis (inflammation of the fallopian tubes)
-can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
-scar tissue in fallopian tubes can lead to sterility or ectopic pregnancies

288
Q

Which gender is more difficult to diagnose with gonorrhea? Why?

A

females bc they are usually asymptomatic carriers till bacteria spreads far and wide

289
Q

What is ophthalmia neonatorum (neonatal conjunctivitis)?

A

infant eye infection due to going through birth canal (with mom who has gonorrhea)

290
Q

What tests are used to diagnose gonorrhea?

A

-secretions taken from site of infection will show gram neg intracellular diplococci (bacteria is within neutrophils)
-culture on thayer martin medium that contains antibiotics to inhibit growth of normal flora
-nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) is preferred for genitourinary specimens

291
Q

What is gonorrhea resistant to? What antibiotic is used to treat it?

A

resistant to penicillin

ceftriaxone is used as gonorrhea tx

292
Q

What disease does Neisseria meningitis cause?

A

meningococcal meningitis

293
Q

is N. meningitis gram pos or neg? What shape is it?

A

-gram neg
-encapsulated
-diplococci (kidney or coffee bean shape)

294
Q

How many serogroups are there for N. meningitis?

A

14+

295
Q

Are there any more hosts besides humans for N. meningitis?

A

nope, just humans

296
Q

What bacteria may harbor organism in respiratory tract asymptomatically in 5-30% of the population?

A

N. meningitis

297
Q

What is the transmission route for N. meningitis?

A

direct contact with respiratory droplets or oral secretions (coughing, kissing, or exchange of respiratory sections)

298
Q

What is a common site for isolation of N. meningitis? Where can it spread?

A

nasopharynx

from nasopharynx, it may reach the bloodstream producing bacteremia and then move into meninges causing meningitis
-on top of the meningitis symptoms (severe headache, chills, high fever, and stiff neck), there can also be a hemorrhagic rash known as petechial hemorrhage all over body (small pinpoint non-raised round red dots)

299
Q

How fast can N. meningitis spread?

A

fast, can be acute and fatal and death may occur within 24 hours

300
Q

How is N. meningitis diagnosed?

A

-gram stain shows gram neg intracellular or extracellular diplococci
-clinical specimens of CSF, blood, and nasopharynx may be cultured
-CSF of a cultured chocolate medium and gram stained

301
Q

How is N. meningitis treated?

A

penicillin G

302
Q

Which bacteria leads to a disease that occurs in epidemic waves within military encampments, schools, etc where the carrier rate goes up to 70-80%? Vaccination is recommended for high schoolers and people 11-55 y/o who are high risk like college freshman, military, medical workers, etc.

A

N. meningitis

Microbiology 1 (5 decks)

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