Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Work ethic

A

set of values based on moral virtues of hard work and diligence, involving a range of activities, from individual acts to the philosophy of the entire facility

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2
Q

Work ethic vs Ethnical standards

A

work ethics –> moral virtues based on your standards

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3
Q

characteristics of professionalism

A

loyalty
courtesy
initiative
flexibility
credibility
confidentiality

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4
Q

What does loyalty mean in professionalism

A

stay loyal to placing effort into the reason why the company has hired you

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5
Q

building blocks of attitude

A

cognitive
affective
behavioral

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6
Q

perception of professionalism

A

teamwork
time management
hygiene
interpersonal skills

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7
Q

emotional intelligence components

A

self awareness
self regulation
self motivation
empathy
relationship management

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8
Q

self awareness

A

be aware of your emotions as they arise

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9
Q

self regulation

A

manage your impulses, soothe yourself and respond appropriately

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10
Q

self motivation

A

delay gratification, stay motivated and persistent in face of setbacks

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11
Q

empathy

A

understand others feelings, needs, wants and concerns

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12
Q

relationship management

A

manage others’ emotions, organize groups and negotiate solutions

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13
Q

empathy vs sympathy

A

empathy = building connection, feeling with them
Sympathy = building disconnection, feeling bad for them

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14
Q

Connotative meaning

A

emotional and imaginative association about a word (+ or -)
-open to interpretation
- can be influenced by culture

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15
Q

denotative meaning

A

strict dictionary meaning to a word
- cannot assume patient knows it

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16
Q

assertive

A

confidently and comfortably express thoughts and feelings while respecting the rights of the patient (4.1)

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17
Q

aggressive

A

overpowering and forceful manner to meet their needs at the expense of others

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18
Q

electronic health record

A

can exchange information in facility and others

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19
Q

electronic medical record

A

exchanges information at single facility

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20
Q

diversity

A

it is an incorporate emotional states, beliefs, and individual characteristics not ethnic or minority group in a social system

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21
Q

Cultural competence

A

the ability to provide quality care, which includes social, cultural, and communication needs, to diverse patient populations

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22
Q

elements of cultural competence

A

knowledge
empathy and compassion
cultural humility

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23
Q

culture

A

a set of learned values, beliefs/religion, customs, and practices shared by a group and passed from one generation to another.

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24
Q

subculture

A

sharing many cultural characteristics but has behaviors and ideas that make them different

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25
Q

Communication

A

when the patient does not understand they may say yes or nod giving the impression of consent

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26
Q

stereotypes

A

ending point
no attempt to learn if the individual fits the statement
often incorrect
can have negative results

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27
Q

generalizations

A

beginning point
determine if appropriate to the individual
applied broadly, may indicate common behaviors and shared beliefs

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28
Q

Cultural humility

A

a humble and respectful attitude toward individuals of other cultures that pushes on to challenge their own cultural biases, realize they cannot possibly know everything about other cultural, and approach learning about other cultures as a lifelong goal and process

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29
Q

aspects of cultural humility

A

insight into oneself
openness to others
willingness to see their perspective
transcendence

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30
Q

transcendence

A

going beyond the existing level of an individual’s knowledge of the world as more complex and dynamic than originally thought

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31
Q

health literacy

A

the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process, and understand basic health information

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32
Q

radiology concerns

A

MRI screening forms
consent forms
discharge instructions

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33
Q

communication pitfalls

A

transferring personal expectations to patients
making generalizations based on personal views
assuming patients can understand what is being said
treating each person the same

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34
Q

Electrocardiography

A

electro heart photo

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35
Q

what does an electrocardiography do?

A

amplifies the electrical impulses of the heart to be recorded

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36
Q

what is a sinoatrial node?

A

the hearts pacemaker by stimulating atrial systole

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37
Q

what is a atrioventricular node?

A

transmits the bundle of HIS (heart) to stimulates ventricular systole

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38
Q

how does the AV node pulses travel

A

bifurcates into right and left and centers Purkinje fibers

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39
Q

polarization

A

resting phase, no electricity activity

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40
Q

Depolarization

A

electrical stimulation of myocardial cells
stimulates contractions (systole)

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41
Q

repolarization

A

just after depolarization where polarization occurs

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42
Q

P wave

A

atrial depolarization

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43
Q

what does the P wave mean

A

SA nodes are contracting

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44
Q

PR segment

A

return to baseline after atrial contraction

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45
Q

QRS complex

A

ventricular contraction
completion of cardiac depolarization

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46
Q

ST segment

A

time between ventricular contraction and recovery

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47
Q

T wave

A

ventricular depolarization

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48
Q

PR interval

A

atrial contraction to ventricular contraction
SA to AV node

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49
Q

if heart rate increases PR interval ________

A

decreases

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50
Q

QT interval

A

time between QRS complex through T wave

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51
Q

what occurs during QT interval

A

ventricular depolarization and repolarization

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52
Q

how many electrodes and lead ECG

A

10 electrodes
12 lead

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53
Q

what does a lead mean

A

view of the heart

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54
Q

precordial lead placement

A

V1-V6
chest

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55
Q

arrhythmias

A

abnormal cardiac rhythms

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56
Q

sinus in arrhythmias

A

electrical charge is normal but change in rate or rhythm

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57
Q

atrial in arrhythmias

A

problems with electrical discharge of the atria (P wave)

58
Q

ventricular in arrhythmias

A

problems with discharge of ventricles (QRS complex and T wave)

59
Q

types of work hazards in healthcare workers

A

sharps injuries
harmful exposures to chemicals and hazardous drugs
back injuries
latex allergy
violence
stress

60
Q

what does CDC stand for

A

centers for disease control and prevention

61
Q

what is the CDC? what do they do?

A

federal organization that investigates, identifies, prevents and control diseases
vaccination recommendations

62
Q

what does NIOSH stand for

A

national institute for occupational safety and health

63
Q

what does NIOSH do?

A

focuses on safety and issues related to health

64
Q

what does OSHA stand for?

A

Occupational safety and health administration

65
Q

what does OSHA do?

A

federal organization that provides guidelines to held reduce safety hazards in the workplace

66
Q

types of blood-borne diseases transmitted through needles

A

Hep B and C
HIV/AIDS
Herpes

67
Q

when was fire safety introduced?

A

May 15, 1929

68
Q

what caused fire safety to be reexamined?

A

the cleveland clinic fire
steam + xray film = fire + poisonous gas

69
Q

what is the facility’s fire plan?

A

know the telephone number or procedure for reporting a fire
know the location of the nearest alarms and firefighting equipment
know your role in the evacuation plan

70
Q

what is accidental poisoning

A

any substance that is harmful to your body when ingested, injected, or absorbed through the skin

71
Q

what is considered a poison

A

cleaning solutions
disinfectants

72
Q

examples of disaster planning

A

earthquakes
hurricane
flood
tornados
bombings
arson
riots
shootings
hostage-taking

73
Q

code silver

A

active shooter

74
Q

code brown

A

severe weather

75
Q

code pink/purple

A

missing child

76
Q

code black

A

bomb threat

77
Q

code blue

A

cardiac arrest or medical emergency

78
Q

code red

A

fire

79
Q

code green

A

emergency operations plan activation

80
Q

code white

A

hospital evacuation

81
Q

code orange

A

assistance needed or hazardous spill

82
Q

bioterrorism

A

the use of biologic agents to create fear and threat

83
Q

terrorism

A

violent or dangerous act used to intimidate or coerce a person or government to further a political or social agenda

84
Q

terrorism by nuclear exposure

A

an attack on a domestic nuclear weapon facility
use of a dirty bomb (radiation dispersal device)

85
Q

what is considered a dirty bomb

A

radioactive dispersal device –> radioactive source + conventional explosives

86
Q

decontamination

A

removal of contaminated clothing and immersion in shower

87
Q

how to tell how much patient needs help with transportation

A

identify patient
collect patient’s chart and pertinent information
request information on patient’s ambulatory chart

88
Q

methods of moving patients

A

sheet transfer
log roll
sliding board transfer
wheelchair transfer

89
Q

is IV contrast considered a medication?

A

yes

90
Q

6 rights of medication administration

A

right:
medication
dose
time
route
patient
documentation

91
Q

qd

A

every day

92
Q

bid

A

two times a day

93
Q

tid

A

three times a day

94
Q

qid

A

four times a day

95
Q

ac

A

before meals

96
Q

pc

A

after meals

97
Q

qhs

A

every bedtime (night)

98
Q

prn

A

as needed

99
Q

enteral

A

medication inserted and absorbed within the GI track

100
Q

PO

A

by mouth

101
Q

enema

A

by rectum

102
Q

suppository

A

by rectum, vagina or urethra

103
Q

tubal

A

by NG, gastrostomy or jejunostomy

104
Q

percutaneous

A

absorbed through the skin or mucous membranes

105
Q

topical

A

applied to skin

106
Q

instillation

A

applied to mucous membranes
ex. mouth, ear, eyes, noses and vagina

107
Q

inhalation

A

aerosolized liquids and gases

108
Q

sublingual

A

under the tongue

109
Q

buccal

A

in the cheek

110
Q

parenteral

A

routes other than GI

111
Q

intradermal (ID)

A

within the dermis

112
Q

intramuscular

A

within the muscle

113
Q

intravenous

A

within the vein

114
Q

subcutaneous

A

under dermis in fatty tissue

115
Q

oxygen therapy regulations (2)

A

must be ordered by physician
oxygen is a drug

116
Q

nasal canula

A

2 prongs in nostril, loops over ears, and tighten under chin

117
Q

types of oxygen delivery methods

A

nasal canula
face mask

118
Q

spirometry

A

lung expansion exercise
typically post surgery

119
Q

transtracheal catheter

A

catheter placed in trachea

120
Q

tracheostomy tube

A

surgical placement of tube
air/fluid exits tracheostomy
patient may not be able to talk

121
Q

endotracheal tube

A

mouth to trachea

122
Q

patient faints during needling

A

remove needle
lay patient down
call for help
loosen tight clothing
apply cold compress/washcloth to forehead
stay with patient
document

123
Q

extravasation

A

blown vein

124
Q

what to do during extravasation

A

stop injection
remove needle
try to get venous access in another spot
document

125
Q

patient feeling for extravasation

A

burning feeling

126
Q

Who’s responsibility to prevent infection

A

YOURS

127
Q

medical asepsis

A

inhibits growth and transmission of microorganisms

128
Q

how do we maintain medical asepsis

A

cleaning

129
Q

surgical asepsis

A

destroys microorganisms

130
Q

how do we maintain surgical asepsis

A

sterilizing

131
Q

chain of infection

A

transmission
entry
susceptible host
infectious agent
reservoir
exit

132
Q

how to stop chain of infection

A

if any of the portion of the chain is taken out

133
Q

vehicle

A

means by which microorganism are carried

134
Q

vector

A

person or animal that harbors and spreads organisms

135
Q

fomite

A

inanimate vehicle (chest bucky, xray table)

136
Q

contamination

A

condition of being exposed to harmful agent

137
Q

healthcare associated infection

A

nosocomial infection

138
Q

airborne precautions

A

standard + N95
patient transport with mask

139
Q

droplet precautions

A

standard + patient transport with mask

140
Q

contact precautions

A

standard + isolation gown

141
Q

standard precautions

A

washing hands
limit body substance entry

142
Q

autoclave

A

Sterilization equipment
pressurized steam 250-255 for 20-40 minutes