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Public Health > Test 1 > Flashcards

Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

In what ways do humans rely on animals?

A
  • Source of food
  • Companionship
  • Transportation
  • Entertainment
  • Sport
  • Biomedical research etc.
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2
Q

What is zooeyia?

A

Alludes to the benefits of pet ownership to individuals and communities

Ex: Pets as family

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3
Q

Zoonotic disease

A

A disease communicable between humans and animals under natural conditions (not lab related)
- Transmission both ways
- Can be direct or indirect

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4
Q

Direct Zoonoses Examples

A
  • Rabies
  • Intestinal parasites
  • Psittacosis
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5
Q

Indirect Zoonoses Examples

A
  • RMSF (tick vector)
  • West Nile encephalitis (mosquito vector)
  • Chagas disease (“kissing bug” vector)
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6
Q

What is health?

A

A state of complete physical, mental and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity.

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7
Q

What is Public Health?

A

The science and art of preventing disease, prolonging life, and promoting health through the organized efforts and informed choices of society, organizations, public and private communities and individuals.
OR
What we as a society do collectively to assure the conditions in which people can be healthy

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8
Q

Medicine vs. Public Health

A

Medicine: saves one life at a time
Public Health: saves millions of lives at a time

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9
Q

What is One Health?

A

A collaborative, multisectoral, and trans-disciplinary approach–working at local, regional, national, and global levels–to achieve optimal health and well-being outcomes recognizing the interconnections between people, animals, and their shared environment.

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10
Q

What is the essence of public health?

A

Maximize benefits for the highest number of people while protecting individual rights.

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11
Q

Why is public health controversial?

A

Ideologies:
- America emphasizes personal freedom and responsibility
- Minimal obligation to the common good
- Conflict between ‘market justice’ and ‘social justice’

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12
Q

Market Justice

A
  • Individual responsibility
  • Minimal obligation to the common good
  • “Fundamental freedom to all individuals to be left alone”
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13
Q

Social Justice

A
  • Minimal levels of income, basic housing, employment, education and health care should be seen as fundamental rights
  • Preventable death and disability ought to be minimized
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14
Q

Economics makes public health controversial

A
  • Long-term gains begin with costs NOW
  • Costs are MUCH easier to calculate than benefits
  • Costs are borne by wealthier; benefits by less wealthy
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15
Q

Religion and morals makes public health controversial

A
  • Sex education
  • Contraceptive use
  • Abortion
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16
Q

Life expectancy

A

Has gone way up in the last 100 years

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17
Q

Most progress in life expectancy is due to?

A

A decrease in infectious diseases
- Has leveled off since the 1950s

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18
Q

Sir Austin Bradford Hill

A

English epidemiologist and statistician
- Pioneered the randomized clinical trial
- Demonstrated connection between cigarette smoking and lung cancer

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19
Q

Without key public health interventions or if there were delays, how many excess people would have died between 1901 and 2032?

A

Almost 50 million

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20
Q

Determinants of overall health and %

A

Individual Behavior - 40%
Genetics - 30%
Social Circumference - 15%
Environmental Factors - 5%
Health Care - 10%

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21
Q

Social Determinants of Health (SDOH)

A

Conditions in the environments where people are born, live, learn, work, play, worship, and age that affect a wide range of health, functioning, and quality-of-life outcomes and risks.

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22
Q

5 domains of SDOH

A
  1. Economic stability
  2. Education access and quality
  3. Health care access and quality
  4. Neighborhood and built environment
  5. Social and community context
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23
Q

SDOH-Economic Stability

A
  • 1 in 10 people live in poverty in US
  • Employment programs, career counseling and high-quality childcare can help more people find and keep jobs.
  • Policies to help people pay for food, housing, health care, and education can reduce poverty and improve health and well-being.
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24
Q

SDOH-Education Access and Quality

A
  • Interventions to help children and adolescents dow ell in school and help families pay for college can have long term health benefits.
  • Higher educations = more likely to be healthier and live longer
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25
Q

SDOH-Health Care Access and Quality

A
  • 1 and 10 people in the US don’t have health insurance
  • Strategies to increase insurance coverage rates are critical for making sure more people get important health care services, like preventive care and treatment for chronic illnesses
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26
Q

SDOH-Neighborhood and Built Environment

A
  • Many people live in areas with high rates of violence, unsafe air or water, and other health and safety risks
  • Interventions and policy changes at the local, state, and federal level can promote health
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27
Q

SDOH-Social and Community Context

A
  • Positive relationships at home, at work, and in the community can help reduce these negative impacts
  • Interventions to help people get the social and community support they need are critical for improving health and well-being
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28
Q

Health Disparities

A

Preventable differences in the burden of disease, injury, violence, or opportunities to achieve optimal health that are experienced by socially disadvantaged populations

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29
Q

Health disparities result from multiple factors, including:

A
  • Poverty
  • Environmental factors
  • Inadequate access to health care or options
  • Individual and behavioral factors
  • Educational inequalities
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30
Q

Levels of Prevention Strategies

A

Primary
- Avoid disease development
- Remove risk factor
Secondary
- Early detection treatment
- Prevent progression
Tertiary
- Reduce complications of est. disease

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31
Q

Return on Investment at the Primary Level

A

Intervening at the primary level (i.e. with a vaccine) saves $$$$

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32
Q

What is the neglected component of the one health triad?

A

Environment

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33
Q

What is environmental health?

A

All physical, chemical, and biological factors external to a person, and all the related factors impacting behaviors

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34
Q

How many deaths are related environmental factors?

A

About 13 million are due to known avoidable environmental risks (about 25% of deaths worldwide)

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35
Q

What is one of the biggest environmental health risks?

A

Air pollution

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36
Q

How much of the world is exposed to unsafely managed water, inadequate sanitation and poor hygiene?

A

More than half the world. Resulting in 800k deaths each year

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37
Q

How many people die from unsafe workplace and how many die from exposure to chemicals?

A

More than 1 million for both

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38
Q

How does climate change compromise the ecological and environmental integrity of living systems?

A
  • Inducing lifecycle changes in pathogens, vectors, and reservoirs
  • New and emerging diseases of plans and food and domestic and wild animals
  • Trophic cascades
  • Modifying or destroying habitats
  • Interfering with species in a particular habitat
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39
Q

What is termed the “threat multiplier” and why?

A

Climate change; b/c it adversely affects infectious diseases, zoonosis, food security and safety, and local, regional, & global responses to them.

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40
Q

Who is being harmed first and the worst by the climate crisis?

A

The people who contribute the least to its causes: people in low-income and disadvantaged countries and communities.

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41
Q

How many approximate deaths will occur between 2030 and 2050 due to climate change?

A

~250k from malnutrition, malaria, diarrhea, and heat stress alone causing the $2-4 billion per year

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42
Q

What is malaria?

A

The world’s most important and deadly tropical mosquito-borne parasitic disease.
- Kills approximately 1 million people and affects 1 billion

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43
Q

Example of a fungal pathogen

A

Potato famine
Soybean rust

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44
Q

Extreme weather events affecting health

A

Heat waves, floods, hurricanes

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45
Q

Socioeconomic and Behavioral factors:

A
  • Change location of urban centers due to flooding
  • Population migrations
  • changing land use regulations
  • Changing agricultural practices
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46
Q

930 million people spend at least how much of on health care?

A

At least 10% of their household budget to pay for healthcare

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47
Q

What would happen if a loss of biodiversity occurs?

A

It may limit the discovery of potential treatments for many diseases and health problems.

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48
Q

Nutritional impact of biodiversity

A

Ensures the sustainable productivity of soils and provides the genetic resources for all crops, livestock, and marine species harvested for food

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49
Q

Major processes affecting infectious disease reservoirs and transmission

A
  • Deforestation
  • Land-use change
  • Water management i.e. through dam construction, irrigation
  • Uncontrolled urbanization or urban sprawl
  • Resistance to pesticide chemicals used to control certain disease vectors
  • Climate variability and change
  • Migration and international travel and trade
  • Accidental or intentional human introduction of pathogens
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50
Q

What are trophic cascades?

A

The effects of removal or addition of keystone species that propagate through food webs across multiple trophic levels

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51
Q

1st trophic level

A

producer level

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52
Q

2nd trophic level

A

Prey primary consumer level

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53
Q

3rd trophic level

A

predator

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54
Q

Keystone species

A

Present when a single species, or just a few species, play a crucial role in maintaining the structure of an ecological community
- disappearance of a keystone species results in a complete rearrangement of the food web

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55
Q

True or False: trophic cascade can only be top down?

A

False: It can be either top down or bottom up

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56
Q

How do vets safeguard public health?

A

Either directly or indirectly, it can be categorized into 6 core domains:
- Diagnosis
- Surveillance
- Epidemiology
- Control
- Prevention
- Elimination of Zoonotic Diseases

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57
Q

How do vets best serve communities?

A

When they approach collective health issues with a “heard health” perspective, applying epidemiologic principles

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58
Q

Small Animal examples of zoonoses

A
  • West Nile disease
  • Coccidiodomycosis
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59
Q

Large Animal examples of zoonoses

A
  • Bovine leukosis
  • Foot and mouth disease
  • Fowlpox
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60
Q

Why care that livestock are vulnerable to infectious disease?

A

~20k food borne illnesses, 4.2k hospitalizations, and 80 deaths, most of which are caused by pathogens of animal origin

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61
Q

Lab animal facilities and diagnostic labs

A

Vets manage and maintain lab animal colonies for research and diagnostic efforts
- International collab is important

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62
Q

Vets and Health Education

A

All vets help educate the public on the threat of infectious and noninfectious diseases

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63
Q

Vets in in government/legislative activity

A

More than 3k are employed federally
- 66% at USDA
- Others at DoD, DHHS (CDC, FDA, NIH)

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64
Q

Who shares responsibility of ensuring that food, animal feed, drugs, vaccines and devices are safe and efficacious?

A

FDA, USDA, and the EPA

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65
Q

APHIS

A

Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service
- Oversees the possession, use, and transfer of certain biologic agents and toxins

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66
Q

What does the FDA regulate?

A

All foods and food ingredients introduced into or offered for sale in the interstate commerce (except for meat, poultry, and certain processed egg products which are regulated by the USDA)

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67
Q

What does the FDA’s Center for Veterinary Medicine regulate?

A

Animal drugs, animal feeds, and veterinary devices

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68
Q

What does the USDA regulate?

A

Animal vaccines and biologics
- and meat, poultry and certain processed egg products

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69
Q

What does the EPA regulate?

A

Many pesticides

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70
Q

FDA vs EPA (flea control)

A
  • Most insecticides are regulated by EPA
  • Some products (topical applied flea control) are intended to work systemically and are regulated by FDA
  • This means licensed vets can use Revolution off label b/c it’s regulated by FDA
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71
Q

Where do vets fall in the USDA?

A
  • Under Secretary for Food Safety
  • Under Secretary for Marketing and Regulatory Programs (animal and plant health inspection service)
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72
Q

FSIS

A

Food Safety and Inspection Services
- Enhances public health and well-being by protecting the public from food borne illness and ensuring correct packaging

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73
Q

What is the overall job of the State Veterinarian?

A
  • Directly protects livestock, poultry, and aquaculture industries
  • Indirectly protecting the public through regulation of livestock, poultry, and fish diseases
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74
Q

What do State Public Health Vets typically do?

A
  • Work in zoonotic disease control and prevention, directly focusing on protecting the public health
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75
Q

State Vet vs. Public Health Vet

A

-State: works for the state agriculture department; primarily target livestock diseases
-Public Health: works for the state health department; generally work in zoonotic disease control and prevention

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76
Q

NASPHV (National Association of State Public Health Vets)

A
  • Helps direct and develop uniform public health procedures involving zoonotic diseases
  • Compendium of animal Rabies Prevention and Control
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77
Q

How many vets are in the 117th Congress?

A

3; 2 in senate, 1 in house

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78
Q

Reportable and Notifiable diseases

A

Legally, physicians and other health-care providers must report cases of certain diseases to health authorities
- Usually infectious and communicable diseases that will endanger a population
- Animal diseases of great economic importance

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79
Q

WHO International Health Regulations

A
  • 1969: cholera, yellow fever, plague
  • 2005: broadened the scope to focus on criteria to determine whether an event is notifiable to the WHO
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80
Q

NNDSS (National Notifiable Diseases Surveillance System)

A
  • Helps public health monitor, control and prevent about 120 diseases
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81
Q

True or False: The list of reportable diseases varies from state to state.

A

True, but all are recommended to be reported to the NNDSS

82
Q

OIE (World Organization for Animal Health) Reportable diseases

A

Intergovernmental organization responsible for improving animal health worldwide.
- Maintains list of reportable diseases
- Voluntary for countries to participate, although most do

83
Q

Arizona Administrative Code R3-2-402

A

Veterinary professionals are MANDATED to report potential zoonotic diseases in animals to state agencies
- ADA (AZ Dept. Ag.)
- AGFD (AZ Game and Fish Dept.)
- ADHS (AZ Dept. Human Services)
May revoke or suspend license if not reported

84
Q

Diseases required to report to ADA

A

Anthrax, Avian flu, brucellosis, tuberculosis, equine encephalomyelitis, Q fever, vesicular stomatitis

85
Q

Disease required to report to ADA/ADHS

A

Leptospirosis, west nile virus

86
Q

Disease required to report to ADA/AGFD/ADHS

A

Rabies, tularemia, psittacosis/avian chlamydiosis

87
Q

What are the disease and eradication measures APHIS controls?

A
  • Quarantines
  • Testing/examination to detect infection; destruction of infected animals
  • Treatment to eliminate parasites
  • Vaccination
  • Cleaning and disinfection of contaminated premises

Also track status of select diseases by state

88
Q

Be suspicious!! Signs of suspicious activity

A

High morbidity/high mortality
Severe abortion storms
Severe respiratory conditions
Poor or no response to Tx
History of foreign travel/visitors
Etc.

89
Q

Epidemiology

A

Study of disease patterns and transmission.
Concerned with the distribution and determinants of health and diseases, morbidity, injuries, disability, and mortality in populations

90
Q

Epidemiologists are required to have some knowledge of:

A

Public health
Clinical medicine
Pathophysiology
Biostatistics
Social Sciences

91
Q

Epidemiologist

A

A professional who strives to study and control the factors that influence the occurence of disease or health-related conditions and events

92
Q

What does an epdemiologist do?

A

Biostatistics
Mental health/psychiatric
Infectious disease
Cancer
Etc.

93
Q

What are some practical Epi applications?

A

“Herd Health”
- Discover current disease burden
- Describe the natural history of a disease
- Compare various treatments/interventions
- Differentiate between natural and intentional diseases

94
Q

Classic example of epidemiology

A

Cholera: Caused great fear due to dramatic symptoms and high mortality
- Found cause to be Cholerae bacterium
- case fatality rate usually less than 1% w/ Tx
- 19th century: big outbreak in London, believed to be spread by water

95
Q

Miasmatic theory of disease

A

Explanation for infectious diseases which stated that disease was transmitted by a miasm, or cloud, that clung low on the surface of the earth
- Before connection between microorganisms and disease

96
Q

Epidemiologic Transition

A

A shift in the patterns of morbidity and mortality from causes related primarily to infectious and communicable diseases to causes associated with chronic, degenerative diseases

97
Q

Demographic transition

A

Shift from high birth rates and death rates found in agrarian societies to much lower birth and death rates in developed countries

98
Q

Distribution

A

Implies that disease do not occur randomly

99
Q

Determinants

A

Factors that can cause a change in health condition or outcome

100
Q

Morbidity

A

Illness due to a specific disease or cause

101
Q

Mortality

A

Death due to a specific disease or cause

102
Q

Population

A

Can be humans, animals, or plants

103
Q

Endemic

A

Habitual presence of a disease w/in a given geographic area
Ex: Plague-among rodents in AZ
Ex: Rabies-among several species in US
Ex: Valley fever in AZ

104
Q

Epidemic

A

Occurrence of an infectious disease clearly in excess of normal expectancy, and generated from a common or propagated source
Ex: Upper respiratory infections
Human rabies
Vibrio infections (cholera) after Hurricane Kat

105
Q

Pandemic

A

A worldwide epidemic affecting an exceptionally high proportion of the global population
Exs: COVID, 1918 flu, HIV/AIDS

106
Q

Sporadic

A

Disease occurring singly; widely scattered; not epidemic or endemic
Ex: Human rabies
Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)

107
Q

Natural History of Disease (Steps)

A
  1. Exposure
  2. Preclinical Phase
    a. Biological onset
    b. symptoms appear
  3. Clinical phase (symptoms appear)
    a. Diagnosis
    b. Therapy begun
  4. Outcomes (cured; living w/ disease, deteriorated, died
  5. Possible relapse and change in therapy
108
Q

Koch’s Postulates

A
  1. The organism must be observed in every case of the disease
  2. It must be isolated and grown in pure culture
  3. Pure culture must reproduce the disease
  4. Organism must be observed in and recovered from the experimental animal
109
Q

Hill’s Criteria for Causation

A

Strength (Some)
Consistency (Cats)
Specificity (Say)
Temporality That)
Biological gradient (Big)
Plausibility (Pigs)
Coherence (Can)
Experiment (Eat)
Analogy (Anything)

110
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Strength

A

Strong associations give support to a causal relationship between factor & disease

111
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Consistency

A

An association has been observed repeatedly

112
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Specificity

A

Association is constrained to a particular disease-exposure relationship

113
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Temporality

A

The cause (exposure) must be observed before the effect

114
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Biological gradient

A

AKA dose-response; shows a linear trend in association between exposure and disease

115
Q

HIll’s Criteria: Plausibility

A

The association must be biologically plausible from the standpoint of contemporary biological knowledge

116
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Coherence

A

One thing interrupts with the known ideal

117
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Experiment

A

Preventative actions alter the frequency of the outcome

118
Q

Hill’s Criteria: Analogy

A

Should be similarities between known associations and one that is being evaluated for causality

119
Q

Multifactorial Causality

A

Many types of causal relationships involve diseases with more than one causal factor
-Ex: specific exposures, family Hx, lifestyle characteristics

120
Q

Epidemiologic Triangle

A

Host, agent, environment all connected
- Affected by influences such as time, transmission types, vectors or fomites

121
Q

Web of Causation

A

Very complex system of causes for a disease that all interact together

122
Q

How do you rule out chance?

A

Cannot completely rule out chance

Epidemiologists employ stats to assess degree in which chance may have accounted for observed associations (technical answer)

123
Q

Illustrations of association

A
  • Scatter plot
  • Dose response curve (sigmoid curve)
  • Epidemic curve (bar graph) - over time
124
Q

Internal Validity

A

The degree to which a study has used methodologically sound procedures

125
Q

External Validity

A

One’s ability to generalize the results of the study

126
Q

Error

A

difference between the value obtained and the true value for the population

127
Q

Sampling error

A

Variation that occurs b/c we are studying a sample rather than an entire population
- Natural variation
- Estimates will vary from sample to sample
- Can be quantified (confidence interval, standard error, margin of error, coefficient of variance)

128
Q

Non-sampling error AKA bias

A

Systematic deviation of results or inferences from truth
- Recall bias
- Selection bias
- Observer bias
- Confounding

129
Q

True or false: Bias is more prevalent in descriptive studies over analytic studies

A

False: more common in analytic studies

130
Q

Type I Error

A

Occurs if the null hypothesis IS rejected when it is actually TRUE
- false Positive

131
Q

Type II Error

A

Occurs if the null hypothesis IS NOT rejected when it is actually FALSE
- false Negative

132
Q

Descriptive Epidemiology

A

Who, where, when
(Person, Place, Time)

133
Q

Person variables examples

A

Age - shingles in older adults
Sex - men more likely to have unintentional injuries
Race/Ethnicity - maternal morality higher in black americans
Occupation - vets 2nd most likely to have nonfatal work injuries
Socioeconomic status - outcomes improve with increasing SES

134
Q

Place variables examples

A

Life expectancy varies for countries
Urban vs rural differences - injuries more common in rural setting
Endemic diseases vary
Infrastructure - unsafe water

135
Q

Time variables examples

A

Secular trends - average age of puberty in USA is decreasing
Seasonal trends - giardia cases more common when people are outsideCyclical trends - parainfluenza viruses 1 & 2 peak every couple years
Clustering - can be related to time or place

136
Q

Ecological fallacy

A

Associations observed at the group level do not necessarily hold true at the individual level
Ex: high levels of toxic pollution and cancer in NJ; therefore its causing cancer (but don’t know for sure)

137
Q

Descriptive epidemiology measures - Count

A

Refers to the number of cases of a disease or other health phenomenon being studied
- Sometimes a single case may have public health significance

138
Q

Descriptive epidemiology measures - ratio

A

A relationship of 2 numbers
Exs: risk ratio, rate ratio, odds ratio

139
Q

Proportion measures

A

Comparison of a part to the whole
- the numerator is part of the denomiator
Exs: attack rate, point prevalence, attribute proportion, proportionate mortality

140
Q

Rate measures

A

Compares 2 numbers - Measure of frequency where event occurs in a defined population over a specific period of time
Exs: mortality rate, birth rate, incidence rate, age- specific mortality rate

141
Q

Population at risk (PAR)

A

Those members (animal or human) of the overall population who are capable of developing the disease or condition being studied

142
Q

Crude rate

A

Summary rate based on the actual number of events in a population over a given time period
Ex: incidence, prevalence, morbidity, mortality

143
Q

Specific rate

A

Based on a particular subgroup of the population defined
Ex: cause, age, proportional mortality rate, case-fatality

144
Q

Adjusted rate

A

Measures where statistical procedures have been applied to remove the effect of differences in population distributions
Ex: standardized mortality rate

145
Q

Prevalence

A

of cases/# of ppl in the population

Measure of the number of affected persons
Number of persons with disease of interest
Number of new cases/ number of people in the population

146
Q

Incidence

A

Number of new cases of disease during a specified time period
Number of new cases/number of persons in population

147
Q

Factors that cause prevalance to increase

A
  • Increase in incidence
  • Longer duration of the case
  • In-migration of cases
  • prolongation of life of patients w/o a cure
148
Q

Adjusted Rates: direct

A

Used when you know the age-specific rates of mortality/morbidity in all the populations under study

149
Q

Adjusted rates: indirect method

A

Only need to know the total number of deaths/cases and the age of the structure of the study population

150
Q

Analytic epidemiology

A

Used when insight about various aspects of disease is available
The ‘why’

151
Q

Odds Ratio

A

Measure of association between exposure and outcome in Case-Controlled Studies
OR=1: exposure does not affect odds
OR>1: exposure associated w/ higher odds
OR<1: exposure associated w/ lower odds

OR = ad/bc

152
Q

Relative Risk

A

A measure of the strength of association based on cohort studies and randomized clinical trials
Incidence in exposed/incidence in unexposed = (a/(a+b))/(c/(c+d))
RR=1 no difference between groups
RR>1 risk among exposed group higher
RR<1 risk among exposed group lower

153
Q

Relative risk vs odds ratio

A

RR when comparing outcomes of those exposed vs not exposed
OR in case-control studies
In rare disease, the RR and the OR will be very nearly the same

154
Q

Community Trial

A

Intervention designed for the usual purpose of educational and behavioral changes at the population level. Particularly of interest in public health

155
Q

Contingency Table

A

Compares your test to the best test that we have
a=true positive
b=false positive
c=false negative
d=true negative

156
Q

Sensitivity

A

% truly positive identified by your test; the proportion of people who test positive among the subpopulation who are positive

a/(a+c)

157
Q

Specificity

A

% truly negative; proportion of people who test negative among the subpopulation who are negative

d/(b+d)

158
Q

If sensitivity is very high…

A

…c (false negatives) MUST be very low
SnNOUT
Sn=sensitive
N=negative
OUT=rule out

159
Q

If specificity is very high…

A

…b (false positive) MUST be very low
SpPIN
Sp=specific
P=postive
IN=rule in

160
Q

How do you improve sensitivity?

A

Parallel testing
- Run different tests simultaneously
- Positive if either or both positive
- Negative if both are negative

161
Q

How do you improve specificity?

A

Serial testing
- Run screening test, then a confirmatory test if screening test is positive
- Disease positive if confirmatory test is pos
- Disease negative if first test is negative

162
Q

Positive Predictive Value (PPV)

A

How prevalent is the disease; is it truly positive?
As prevalence decreases, PPV decreases

a/(a+b)

163
Q

Negative Predictive Value (NPV)

A

Is it truly negative

d/(c+d)

164
Q

Likelihood ratio

A

Incorporates both the probability that the test is positive in patients with and without the disease

165
Q

Community Engagement

A

Widespread and effectively-used approach in health and development interventions

166
Q

Co-option

A

Token representatives chosen but have no real input or power

167
Q

Compliance and informing

A

Tasks assigned with incentives, with outsiders deciding the agenda and directing the process

168
Q

Consultation

A

Local opinions are sought, with outsiders analyzing and deciding on a course of action

169
Q

Cooperation

A

Local people work together with outsiders to determine priorities, with the responsibility for directing the process remaining with outsiders

170
Q

Co-learning

A

Local people and outsiders share their knowledge to create new understanding and work together to form actions plans, with outsider facilitation

171
Q

International Companion Animal Management (ICAM) Coalition

A

Formed to support the development and use of humane and effective companion animal population management worldwide

172
Q

ICAM Philosophy

A

Believes that legal fiscal responsibility for animal population management properly resides with local and central government

173
Q

Dog Population Management (DPM)

A
  • Goal is an improvement in dog welfare alongside benefits for public and environmental health
  • Aims to have a sustained influence on the processes w/in dog population dynamics to change sub-populations in a targeted way
174
Q

National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) includes:

A

Vet safety and health section:
Hazard Prevention and Infection Control
Physical Safety
Chemical Safety
Biological Safety
Other hazards

175
Q

Hierarchy of Controls

A

Elimination-physically remove the hazard (most effective)
Substitution-Replace the hazard
Engineering Controls-Isolate people from the hazard
Administrative Controls-Change the way people work
PPE-Protect the worker w/ PPE (relying on people is hard)

176
Q

What are the most difficult actions to adopt?

A

Elimination and Substitution; They are best used at the design or development stage

177
Q

Whose responsibility is it to address hazards in the workplace?

A

The employers!!
There are more than 200 points of compliance for which every veterinary facility should be check to prepare for OSHA inspection

178
Q

OSHA Compliance Resources

A
  • On site Consultation Programs (no cost and confidential)
179
Q

Common Examples of vet biomedical waste

A

Needles and syringes, used bandages and gloves, animal tissue, blood and feces, medications

180
Q

Regulated Medical Waste

A

Subset of medical waste that poses a significant risk of transmitting infection to people
-In most states, it’s limited to sharps waste

181
Q

What do most vet clinics do with biohazardous medical waste?

A

Most will ship it. Some will treat (autoclave or incinerate) it.

182
Q

How long should a generator (vet clinic) obtain a copy of the tracking document signed by the transporter?

A

One year

183
Q

How are non-sharps packaged?

A

A red disposable plastic bag that is leak resistant, impervious to moisture, strong, sealed, and placed in secondary container that will prevent breakage.

184
Q

How long can you keep the sharps once ready for pickup?

A

90 days or less

185
Q

True or False: Regulated non-hazardous waste means that the substance is without risk.

A

False

186
Q

Disposal of a needle used to give IV fluids is…?

A

…Regulated medical waste

187
Q

While delivering a chemotherapy drug, the IV line is contaminated with blood. The IV line is…

A

…hazardous waste.

188
Q

The IV line is disposed of in the sharps container. The sharps container is…

A

…hazardous waste.

189
Q

What are biological substances, category A?

A

An infectious substance transported in a form that is capable of causing permanent disability or a life-threatening or fatal disease to humans or animals
Ex: Anthrax, Brucellosis

190
Q

What are biological substances, category B?

A

Potential bodily components that most likley contain an etiologic agent that is being shipped for purposes of diagnosis or investigation
Ex: Leptospirosis, suspected cases of Cat A

191
Q

Packaging for Category A

A

Watertight 1st container, absorbent material, watertight 2nd container with list of contents on the outside. UN rated outer container

192
Q

Packaging for Category B

A

Leak-proof 1st container, absorbent material, leak-proof 2nd container like a sealed plastic bag, rigid outer package with proper markings

193
Q

Manure management

A

contain manure so that it does not contaminate waterways; also protects air quality by reducing odors and gases

194
Q

Where do you find guidelines for the depopulation of animals

A

AVMA; provides preferred methods, permitted in constrained circumstances, not recommended

195
Q

Depopulation methods produce unconsciousness through 4 basic mechanisms:

A
  1. Physical disruption of brain activity
  2. Hypoxia
  3. Direct depression of neurons necessary for life function
  4. Epileptiform brain activity (electric stunning)
196
Q

Disposal of diseases animals

A

Critical to prevent exposure of other wildlife and humans to disease
- Incineration
- Burying
- Rendering

197
Q

Who declares a state of emergency?

A

Governor, sheriff, judge
AZ: emergency management coordinator

198
Q

Factors that increase risk of disease in a disaster

A

Animal stress, overcrowding, inclement weather changes, exposure to wildlife, disposal of animal waste, food/water contamination, vector population proliferation, animal abandonment

199
Q

Zoonotic disease distasters

A

Anthrax, avian flu, brucellosis, plague, rabies, tuberculosis, west nile virus etc.

200
Q

True or False: There are organisms that occur naturally in animals that pose hazard to humans handling animal carcasses

A

True; giardia, salmonella, e coli etc.

201
Q

Things to consider when euthanizing

A

-Method and/or drug type
-Rendering
-Risk to wildlife (scavengers could be affected)

202
Q

What is one of the most efficient and safest options for animal disposal?

A

Rendering

Public Health (3 decks)

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