test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what does PICO stand for?

A
  • patient
  • intervention
  • comparison intervention
  • outcome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the main aim of evidence based practice?

A

improve outcome and client care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

why is evidence based practice important?

A
  • communicates research
  • improves knowledge
  • links theory to practice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what type of studies address research questions about treatment?

A
  • systemic reviews
  • randomised controlled trials
  • single case experimental studies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of studies address research questions about patient experience or concerns?

A

qualitative research such as interviews, surveys or focus groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what type of studies address research questions about course of disease process?

A
  • cohort
  • follow up
  • longitudinal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what type of studies address research questions about cost effectiveness?

A

economic studies comparing outcome against cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how is the strength of studies about treatment effectiveness determined?

A
  • size of effect
  • how confident we are of observed effect
  • number of studies confirming results
  • findings from other studies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are some limitations of higher-level evidence-based practice?

A
  • inappropriate for many questions

- usually done with clearly defined/delimited populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are some barriers to evidence based practice?

A
  • attitude of question
  • know-how in finding, appraising and applying evidence
  • lack of time/prof dev
  • unsure of EBP and how to use evidence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

who does the human research ethics committee comprise of?

A
  • researchers
  • health/social care professionals
  • lay person
  • lawyer
  • pastoral care role
  • balance of men and women
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

who developed the Aus national statement on ethical conduct in human research (2007/2015)?

A
  • national health medical research council (NHMRC)
  • aus research council (ARC)
  • aus vice-chancellor committee
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what does the aus national statement on ethical conduct in human research focus on?

A
  • promote ethical research
  • respect/protect participants
  • research benefits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the aus national statement on ethical conduct in human research used to do?

A
  • inform design of studies
  • guide ethical review
  • conduct research
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

who are some vulnerable populations?

A
  • pregnant women/foetus
  • children
  • people in dependent/unequal relationships
  • cognitive impairment
  • indigenous etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are some values underpinning ethical conduct of research?

A
  • research merit
  • integrity
  • justice
  • beneficence
  • respect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are some research merits as a value underpinning ethical conduct?

A
  • has benefits
  • design and method suitable to answer aim
  • based on literature
  • conducted by people with necessary skills/experience
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is research integrity as a value underpinning ethical conduct?

A

must commit to

  • searching for knowledge
  • following principles of conduct
  • honesty
  • communicate results
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is justice as a value underpinning ethical conduct?

A
  • respect shared sameness of people
  • distributive justice: benefits and burdens fairly distributed
  • procedural justice: participant recruitment/review is fair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is beneficence as a value underpinning ethical conduct?

A
  • assess risks and benefits

- benefits must outweigh risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is respect as a value underpinning ethical conduct?

A
  • welfare, beliefs, perceptions
  • privacy, cultural sensitivities
  • individual capacity to make. decisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the potential benefits/beneficence of research to knowledge?

A
  • gain knowledge, insight and understanding

- increase skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the potential benefits/beneficence of research to participants?

A
  • opportunity to reflect/share knowledge on experiences
  • sense of contributing to society
  • benefit from new interventions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the potential benefits/beneficence of research to the broader community?

A
  • increase public knowledge
  • increase resources
  • increase ability to address issues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the levels of risk in research/non-maleficence?

A

-harm, discomfort (low risk), or inconvenience (negligible risk)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what can risk in research/non-maleficence result from?

A
  • research process
  • data collection/storage
  • dissemination of findings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how can researchers respect autonomy (informed consent)?

A
  • participant info in plain language outlining study design
  • obtaining/documenting consent
  • declining/withdrawing consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how can coercion or pressure be an ethical consideration to research?

A
  • decision to participate is free from pressure

- must be voluntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how can deception be an ethical consideration to research?

A
  • relevant info is withheld or misleading

- might occur where they knew research purposes might alter behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

how can participation recruitment be an ethical consideration to research?

A
  • equal chance to participate

- guided by inclusion/exclusion criteria in study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how can data identification be an ethical consideration to research?

A

relates to datasets and how data may be collected, stored or disclosed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how can confidentiality be an ethical consideration to research?

A
  • focuses on concealing participants
  • must inform where there is potential that they will be identified
  • interview transcripts use fake name, change of place etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how can data management and storage during a study be an ethical consideration to research?

A
  • identifiable data stored separately
  • paper filed away
  • electronic password protect at approved institution
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

how can data management and storage at the end of the study be an ethical consideration to research?

A
  • HREC will stipulate how long data must be retained
  • must retain data and signed consent
  • destroying data at conclusion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how can accuracy when reporting findings be an ethical consideration to research?

A
  • must report both positive and negative

- three forms of misconduct reporting include: fabrication, falsification and plagiarism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are five ways of knowing?

A
  • personal experience
  • traditions
  • expert/authorities
  • logic
  • scientific method
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what are some limitations of tradition?

A
  • often based on idealised past
  • may not reflect current reality
  • may be resistant to change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are some limitations of experts or authorities?

A
  • can be wrong/disagree among themselves
  • can be biased
  • can have limited world view
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is deductive reasoning?

A

reasoning from general to specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are some limitations of deductive reasoning?

A
  • must begin with true premiss in order to arrive at true conclusion
  • only organises what is already known
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the goal of the scientific method?

A

to explain, predict, and/or phenomena

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what does the scientific method involve?

A

acquisition of knowledge and development and testing of theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what are some limitations of scientific method?

A
  • un-ability to answer value-based questions, only answer objective questions
  • inability to capture complexities of individuals
  • ethical/legal responsibilities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what are some difficulties of health science and OT research?

A
  • complexities associated
  • controlling bias
  • problems imposing sufficient controls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a hypothesis?

A

contain two or more variables that are measurable or potentially measurable and that specify how variables are related

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what is a directional hypothesis?

A

premise statement indicating nature/direction of relationship/difference between variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is a non-directional hypothesis?

A

states only that relationship/difference will occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are some features of variables?

A
  • identified as independent or dependent
  • element identified in hypothesis/research question
  • must have two or more levels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what is operational in relation to variables?

A

describes variable in terms of operations used to produce/techniques used to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the dependent variable?

A
  • primary interest
  • hypothesis/question describes changes in it
  • variable is influenced or changed by independent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is an independent variable?

A
  • research manipulates this

- potential causes under investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are the five purpose categories/types of research?

A
  • basic
  • applied
  • evaluation
  • research and development
  • action
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is applied research?

A

collection and analysis of data to examine the usefulness of therapy in solving practical problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are two types of evaluation research?

A
  • formative

- summative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is formative evaluation research?

A

designed to inform and improve program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is summative evaluation research?

A

designed to make decisions regarding the overall quality of the program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is the goal of research and development?

A

develop effective products for use in health and OT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what are some assumptions of researchers in quantitative research methods?

A
  • live in a stable, coherent world
  • can measure, generalize and understand
  • generally regarded as positivistic and reductionistic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what are some characteristics of quantitative research methods?

A
  • numerical data
  • use of formally stated hypotheses and procedures
  • use of controls
  • large number of participants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are five basic quantitative research designs?

A
  • descriptive
  • correlational
  • causal-comparative
  • experimental
  • single subject
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is the purpose of descriptive quantitative designs?

A

to describe current status of variable of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is the purpose of causal-comparative quantitative designs?

A

explore relationships among variables that cannot be actively manipulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is an important characteristic of causal-comparative quantitative research design?

A

the independent variable has already been manipulated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what does the researcher manipulate and control during experimental quantitative designs?

A

manipulate IV and control extraneous variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what does the researcher aim to minimise during experimental quantitative research designs?

A

impact of chance, enviro, and other factors that influence IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the purpose of single-subject quantitative designs?

A

to investigate the cause and effect relationships with sample of1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is oncology?

A

philosophical assumptions about what constitutes social reality (what is there?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is epistemology?

A

what we accept as valid evidence of that reality (what we know? how we know it?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what is methodology?

A

means by which we investigate that context

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is method?

A

means by which we gather evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is a positivist (quantitative) foundation?

A

apply deductive and more scientific views

72
Q

what is interpretivist (qualitative) foundation?

A

apply inductive ‘deeper truth reasoning views

73
Q

what is the aim of qualitative research questions?

A

to discover meaning or gain understanding of a phenomena by asking for experiences

74
Q

what are some benefits of qualitative approach to research?

A

uses open ended questions to understand experience

75
Q

what are the limitations of the qualitative research approach?

A
  • cannot generalise
  • not suitable for statistical methods
  • difficult to identify relationships between characteristics
76
Q

what are some common qualitative research designs?

A
  • case study
  • ethnography
  • grounded theory
  • phenomenology
  • narrative research
  • participatory action
  • critical theory
77
Q

what do case studies investigate as a qualitative design?

A

investigate contemporary phenomenon in real life context

78
Q

what does phenomenology investigate as a qualitative design?

A

understand culture

79
Q

what does grounded theory investigate as a qualitative design?

A

generate theory

80
Q

what does narrative research investigate as a qualitative design?

A

understands stories of marginalised individuals

81
Q

what does participatory action investigate as a qualitative design?

A

generates knowledge to inform action

82
Q

what does critical theory investigate as a qualitative design?

A

underrated experiences for social change

83
Q

what are different types of info?

A
  • knowledge
  • opinions, attitudes, beliefs and values
  • behaviour
  • attributes
84
Q

what are theories used for in research?

A

help design research question, guide selection of data, interpret data and propose explanations of causes

85
Q

what theories enter a project early?

A

ethnography and phenomenology

86
Q

what theory enters a project late?

A

grounded theory

87
Q

what is the measurement in experimental research defined as?

A

process of quantifying info/measurement if a primary concern, observations into numerical values

88
Q

what is conceptualisation as a measurement process?

A

identify/define concept that is to be measured

89
Q

what is operationalisation as a measurement process?

A

determine operational definition of concept

90
Q

what is level and scaling as a measurement process in experimental research?

A

determine level of measurement and select scaling technique

91
Q

what does the level of measurement refer to?

A

properties and meaning of numbers assigned to observation

92
Q

what are the four levels of measurement?

A
  • nominal
  • ordinal
  • interval
  • ratio
93
Q

what are the two properties that must be measured in experimental research?

A

discrete and continuous

94
Q

what is a discrete variable?

A

has finite number of distinct values such as gender

95
Q

what is a continuous variable?

A

has an infinite number of values such as age/height

96
Q

what does nominal/categorical measure?

A

involves classifying observations into mutually exclusive categories

97
Q

are variables ordered in a particular way in nominal measurement?

A

no

98
Q

are variables continuous or discrete in nominal measurement?

A

discrete

99
Q

what does the ordinal level of measurement involve?

A

ranking of phenomena

100
Q

how does the option of responses occur for ordinal variables?

A

range of response options but do not know actual measurement distance between each option

101
Q

does interval measurement level have equal or an unknown distance between variable categories?

A

equal

102
Q

are interval variables discrete or continuous?

A

continuous

103
Q

what do interval variables indicate?

A

how categories differ

104
Q

what is the highest level of measurement?

A

ratio

105
Q

what are the three main scaling formats used?

A
  • Likert-type scale
  • guttman
  • semantic differential
106
Q

what do respondents answer items based on in the Likert type scale?

A

based on level of agreement/disagreement, select one of several responses

107
Q

what is the guttman scale used to assess?

A

attributes and beliefs

108
Q

how do participants respond to a guttman scaler?

A

arranged according to degree of agreement or intensity in ascending order

109
Q

what are ways to measure reliability?

A
  • stability: test-retest
  • internal consistency
  • equivalence: alternate form, split-half
110
Q

what is internal consistency?

A

consistency is internally examined in relation to composite score

111
Q

what does inter-rater reliability involve?

A

comparison of two sets of raters evaluating same test performance

112
Q

what dos validity address?

A

relation between construct and measurement

113
Q

what is the basic form of validity?

A

content validity

114
Q

what is content/face validity?

A

refers to degree to which indicator reflects basic content of domain of interest

115
Q

what does criterion-related validity demonstrate?

A

correlation between scale and another instrument that has been shown accurate

116
Q

what is concurrent validity?

A

two tests should be correlated with. each other if they are completed by some group of subjects

117
Q

what is predictive validity?

A

used when the purpose of the instrument is to predict the future performance of individual

118
Q

what is discriminative validity?

A

instrument and criterion variable are administered to same group of participants; two constructs should not be correlated with each other

119
Q

what is grounded theory

A

refers to inductive process of generating theory from data

120
Q

what does the preparation of the grounded theory process involve?

A
  • mimising preconceptions
  • no preliminary literature review
  • general research topic, no predetermined research problem
121
Q

how is the data collection of grounded theory process done?

A
  • most common form: intensive interviews, often with observation
  • theoretical sampling
122
Q

how is the analysis of grounded theory process done?

A

rigorous process with constant comparative analysis

123
Q

what are the 3 key processes of grounded theory?

A
  • open coding
  • axial coding
  • selective coding
124
Q

what is open coding in grounded theory?

A

literal line-by-line reading and interpretation of salient categories

125
Q

what is axial coding in grounded theory?

A

grouping of first order or open codes. into coherent categories and sub categories

126
Q

what is selective coding in grounded theory?

A

selecting and validating major categories that outline relationships and interactions between codes

127
Q

what are the two major categories of mixed methods?

A

sequential and concurrent

128
Q

what does narrative data weave together?

A

sequence of events usually from one or two individuals to form story

129
Q

what does phenomenology attempt to understand?

A

whom they observe from subject’s perspective, sets aside own experience

130
Q

what are constructs?

A

abstractions that cannot be observed directly but are helpful when explaining behaviour

131
Q

what are some constructs?

A
  • intelligence
  • attitudes
  • self concept
  • play skills
132
Q

what is operational?

A

ways by which constructs are observed and measured

133
Q

what is a variable?

A

constructs that has been operationalised and has two or more values

134
Q

what are performance assessments?

A

focus on processes or products that have been created

135
Q

what are raw scores?

A

actual score made

136
Q

what are standard scores?

A

statistical transformation of raw scores

137
Q

what is norm-referenced data?

A

scores interpreted relative to score of others taking the test

138
Q

what is criterion-referenced data?

A

scores interpreted relative predetermined level of performance

139
Q

what are aptitude tests?

A

measuring general mental ability usually for predicting future performance

140
Q

what are some scales for affective?

A

Likert and Semantic differential

141
Q

what are some problems with using a self-report?

A
  • bias
  • socially acceptable responses
  • accuracy
142
Q

what does validity address?

A

issues of relationship between concept and measurement

143
Q

what are four types of validity?

A
  • construct
  • internal
  • external
  • criterion-related
144
Q

what is construct validity?

A

extent to which test measure the concept and measurement

145
Q

what is internal validity?

A

the extent to which results demonstrate a causal relationship exists between dependent and independent variables

146
Q

what is external validity?

A

concerned with to whom, in what settings, and at what times results can be
generalised

147
Q

what are two types of criterion-related validity?

A

predictive and concurrent

148
Q

what is criterion-related predictive validity?

A

what extent test predicts future behaviour, or performance

149
Q

what is criterion-related concurrent validity?

A

to who extent does test predict performance at same time

150
Q

what are some factors affecting validity?

A
  • bias
  • unclear test direction
  • items do not represent enough construct being measured
  • inconsistent scoring
151
Q

what are some characteristics of reliability?

A
  • stability
  • equivalence
  • internal consistency
  • score/rater
152
Q

what is stability in relation to reliability?

A

consistency over time with same instrument

153
Q

what is equivalence in relation to reliability?

A

consistency with two parallel tests administered at same time

154
Q

what is internal consistency in relation to reliability?

A

artificially splitting test between raters

155
Q

what is the scorer/rater in relation to reliability?

A

consistency of observations between raters

156
Q

what are some psychometric properties to consider when selecting a test?

A
  • validity
  • reliability
  • length of test
  • scoring and score interpretation
157
Q

what is generally the am of quantitative research?

A

typically generalise from participants to larger populations

158
Q

is qualitative research generalised to the population?

A

no

159
Q

what are the advantages of qualitative data collection?

A
  • good response rate
  • can investigate motives/feelings
  • complete and immediate
160
Q

what are the disadvantages of qualitative data collection?

A
  • time consuming
  • can be expensive
  • respondent bias
161
Q

what are the types of observations?

A
  • open
  • closed
  • observation of objects
162
Q

what are some dimensions of observation?

A

-space
-actors
-activities
-object
-time
-goal
feelings

163
Q

what are some things to consider when developing an interview guide?

A
  • what is focus?
  • what is types of info you are seeking?
  • who are participants?
  • how might you word questions?
164
Q

what are some types of questions that should be utilised in an interview?

A
  • clear/single
  • open-ended
  • sequence
  • probing
165
Q

what should occur in planning stage of interview?

A
  • prep explanatory statement/consent form
  • test questions
  • document response
166
Q

what should occur in beginning stage of interview?

A
  • introduce
  • explain purpose
  • explain what you are doing
  • obtain written consent
167
Q

what should occur in finishing stage of interview?

A

consider summarising, feedback, opportunity to ask questions and thanking

168
Q

is purposive sampling most common in quant or qual research?

A

qualitative

169
Q

what is aim of purposive sampling?

A

to identify info-rich informants based on pre-selected criteria

170
Q

what is quota-sampling?

A

involves deciding on how many people with what characteristics to include

171
Q

what is quota sampling more specific in terms of compared to purposive?

A

size and proportions

172
Q

what does convenience sampling data do?

A

collects data from those people or other relevant elements to which they have most convenient access

173
Q

what is a drawback of convenience sampling?

A

sample may be biased, some over/under selected or missed

174
Q

what is snowball sampling?

A

participants refer researcher to friend

175
Q

what is theoretical sampling?

A

process controlled by emerging theory (grounded theory)

176
Q

what is data saturation?

A

sampling ceases at point of. saturation has been reached