Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

My ICND1 Prep > TERMS TO GET DOWN > Flashcards

TERMS TO GET DOWN Flashcards

1
Q

ARP

A

Resolves a MAC address using the IP address through a ARP broadcast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

POP3

A

(Post Office Protocol)

- used to retrieve email from mail servers by email clients.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

IGMP

A

(Internet Group Management Protocol)

- defines host groups, which then allows them to receive multicasts for their groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

SNMP

A

(Simple Network Management Protocol)
- helps to manage complex networks by letting hosts exchange information with each other, which then can be retrieved by management software that can be used to monitor and manage the network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

SMTP

A

(Simple Mail Transfer Protocol)

- used to send mail between mail servers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

RARP

A

Resolves an IP address by using the MAC address through a RARP broadcast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

OSPF

A

(Open Shortest Path First)

-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

RIP

A

(Routing Information Protocol)

  • RIPv2 uses multicasts sent to the address 224.0.0.9
  • Hop count is used as the metric. Maximum of 15 hops
  • Can maintain up to 6 multiple paths to a network, only if the costs are the same. Support for 4 equal-cost routes is the default.
  • Routers automatically share routing info with other routers.
  • Less administration required.
  • For small-medium networks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

IGRP

A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the purpose for assigning an IP address on a switch?

A. provides local hosts with a default gateway address
B. allows remote management of the switch
C. allows the switch to respond to ARP requests between two hosts
D. ensures that hosts on the same LAN can communicate with each other

A

B. allows remote management of the switch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)

A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.

A

BD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What two things does a router do when it forwards a packet? (Choose two.)

A. switches the packet to the appropriate outgoing interfaces
B. computes the destination host address
C. determines the next hop on the path
D. updates the destination IP address
E. forwards ARP requests

A

AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)

A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.

A

BCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)

A. They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B. They guarantee datagram delivery.
C. TRACERT uses ICMP packets.
D. They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E. They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.

A

CD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server?

A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

1000BaseLX

A

Uses fiber optic cabling+LC connectors and supports more than 550 meters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

1000BaseSX

A

Uses fiber optic cables and supports up to 550 meters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

1000BaseCX

A

Uses copper cables and supports up to 25 meters, typically used in wiring closets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

CSU/DSU

A

(Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit)
-Physical layer device used in wide area networks to convert the CPE digital signals to what is understood by the provider’s switch.
-RJ-48 connector for integrated CSU/DSU routers,
DB-60 connector for single port routers, and
Smart Serial connector for two-port routers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CPE

A

(Customer Premises Equipment)

-Devices such as a telephone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BootP

A

(Bootstrap Protocol)

- Used by diskless hosts to get an IP address from a Bootstrap server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WIC

A

(WAN Interface Card)

-2 port WIC uses Smart Serial Cables, 1 port WIC uses a DB-60 connector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

DTE

A

(Data Terminal Equipment)

  • Usually a customer device: router or computer
  • NO clock rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

DCE

A

(Data Communications Equipment)

  • Usually the Service Provider Device: Cable Modem, DSL Modem, CSU/DSU
  • Provides the Clock Rate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Telnet

A
  • Establishes a remote connection with a destination device
  • A successful test verifies Application-layer connectivity. Because Telnet relies on lower-layer protocols, a successful Telnet session also verifies Network-layer and TCP/IP configuration
  • A successful Telnet test opens a remote connection to the target device
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

arp -d

A

Clears ARP cache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

arp - a

A

Lists ARP cache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Straight-through Cable

A 
Pin Position:
1 -- 1
2 -- 2
3 -- 3
6 -- 6
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Crossover Cable

A 
Pin Position:
1 -- 3
2 -- 6
3 -- 1
6 -- 2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Auto-MDI/MDIX

A

A feature newer switches have to determine whether to use Straight-through/Crossover and the internally change the sending and receiving pin positions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

AUI

A

(Attachment Unit Interface)

  • Designed to connect External Transceiver for conversion to a specific media type (e.g. coaxial or fiber optic)
  • Connector: DB-15 / DIX interface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Switch Interface:

Line Status - Down
Protocol - Down

A

A Physical Layer problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Switch Interface:

Line Status - Up
Protocol Status - Down

A

Data Link layer connection/communication problem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

APIPA

A

Automatic address assignment without DHCP.

Addresses are assigned onto the 169.254.0.0 255.255.0.0 network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Configure IP address to a Switch

A
  • Interface vlan 1
  • IP address A.B.C.D
  • no shutdown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Get info about neighboring devices

A

show cdp neighbor detail

35
Q

Order of DNS Name resolution of Router

A
  1. Static DNS entries

2. DNS server query (if enabled)

36
Q

Order of DNS Name resolution of Workstation

A
  1. Local DNS cache
  2. HOSTS file
  3. DNS server query (Primary)
  4. DNS server query (Secondary)
37
Q

Disable/Enable the broadcast name resolution of host names

A

no ip domain-lookup / ip domain-lookup

38
Q

Display known IP hosts

A

show hosts

39
Q

show Routing Table

A

show ip route

40
Q

Routing Protocol

A

Shares info about known networks

41
Q

Routed Protocol

A

Routes packets

42
Q

Setup a default route

A

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

43
Q

CDP

A

(Cisco Discovery Protocol)

  • Detects directly connected Cisco devices
  • Must be enabled by both devices
  • Enabled by default
44
Q

See IP address and Layer 1 and 2 info of an interface

A
  • show protocols

- show ip interface

45
Q

Nslookup

A

Resolves the IP address of a host name. Also displays resolution-related information such as the DNS server used for the lookup request

46
Q

ipconfig

A

Displays IP configuration info on a workstation

47
Q

VoIP

A
  • Protocol that transmits voice over the Internet or other packet switched network.
  • how: IP protocols carry Telephony signals as digital audio encapsulated in a data packet stream over IP.
  • Typically implemented using switches with additional configuration required on both switches+routers to ensure VoIP packets of acceptable quality.
48
Q

Access Link

A

One VLAN

49
Q

Trunk Links

A

Multiple VLANs

50
Q

VLAN

A
  • Broadcast domains defined by switch port, not network address
  • Switches come with default VLANs
  • All ports are members of VLAN 1 by default
  • Switches compared to Routers: are cheaper, easier to administer, and offer higher performance
  • Routers are still needed to: Filter WAN traffic, route between separate networks, and rote packets between VLANs
  • In a VLAN switched network, use 802.1q ,OR use devices of the same vendor
51
Q

Define a VLAN

A

vlan

52
Q

Assign ports to a VLAN

A

switchport access vlan

53
Q

List VLANs

A

show vlan / show vlan brief

54
Q

Name a VLAN

A

In vlan config mode, # name WORD

55
Q

Trunking

A
  • Connecting two switches together

- Trunk ports usually use Gigabit ports but can use any ports

56
Q

ISL

A

(Inter-Switch Link)

  • Cisco proprietary trunking protocol
  • ISL tags each frame with the VLAN ID
57
Q

802.1q

A
  • IEEE standard for trunking, therefore is accepted by a wide range of devices
  • VLAN 1 frames are NOT tagged. All OTHER frames are tagged.
58
Q

DTP

A

(Dynamic Trunking Protocol)

- Allow switches to automatically detect and configure trunk ports

59
Q

Show interface trunking info

A

show interface trunk / show interface trunk

60
Q

switchport mode access

A
  • Disables trunking configuration on the port

- the Port acts as a single VLAN interface that sends/receives non-tagged frames

61
Q

switchport mode dynamic desirable

A
  • If switch is connected, the desired trunking protocol will be attempted to be used
  • If switch is NOT connected, it will act as a normal port
62
Q

switchport mode dynamic auto

A
  • Enables automatic trunking discovery and configuration

- The switch uses DTP to configure trunking

63
Q

switchport mode trunk

A
  • Enables unconditional trunking on the interface

- DTP will NOT be used

64
Q

switchport trunk native vlan

A
  • Configures the VLAN that is sending and receiving untagged traffic on the trunk port when the interface is in 802.1q trunking mode
  • Both interfaces need to have the same Native VLAN or traffic can’t be transmitted correctly on the trunk
65
Q

switchport trunk allowed vlan all
trunk allowed vlan add
trunk allowed vlan remove

A

Set which VLANs are allowed to communicate over the trunk.

66
Q

VTP

A

(VLAN Trunking Protocol)

- Propagates configuration changes to other switches in a multi-switch network

67
Q

The 3 Types of Routing Protocols

A
  1. Distance Vector
  2. Link State
  3. Hybrid
68
Q

Distance Vector

A
  • Peer-to-peer structure
  • Entire routing tables sent at regular intervals
  • Updates only sent to neighboring routers
  • Susceptible to routing loops
  • Long convergence time
  • Split horizon, route poisoning, hold down timers, and static routes prevent routing loops
69
Q

Distance Vector Method: Split Horizon

A
  • Remembers where information comes from and does not report route information back to routers on that path
70
Q

Distance Vector Method: Poison Reverse

A
  • Routers advertise an unreachable path when sending route info back to the path they heard it from
71
Q

Distance Vector Method: Triggered Updates

A

(also known as Flash Updates)
- Routers that receive updated information broadcast those changes immediately, instead of waiting for next reporting interval

72
Q

Distance Vector Method: Hold-downs

A
  • Routers hold an update that reinstates an expired link for a period of time
73
Q

Link State

A
  • Hierarchical structure
  • No routing loops and Less convergence
  • Flooding (routers broadcast LSPs to all routers)
  • LSPs are sent in regular intervals when there’s a new neighbor, when a neighbor has gone down, or the cost to a neighbor has changed
  • Routers send route info only about their own links
  • “Hello” packets are sent to discover new neighbors
  • Constructs a SPF tree logical topology of the network
  • Uses areas, time stamps, sequence numbers, aging timers, and designated routers
74
Q

Hop Count

A

The number of routers between a source network and the destination network.

75
Q

Passive Interface

A

Prevents routing update messages from being sent through the interface.

76
Q

How to identify DCE interfaces?

A

show controllers

77
Q

Formula to find out the number of available addresses

A

2to the u-2

78
Q

Formula to find out the number of subnets

A

2to the b

79
Q

What are the settings used for a terminal emulation program when connected via a console port?

A 
9600 Baud
Data bits = 8
Parity = None
Stop bits = 1
Flow Control = None
80
Q

What are the options for connecting and managing a Cisco device?

A

Console, Virtual Terminal (VTY), Security Device Manager (SDM)

81
Q

A _____________ uses a web-based GUI to manage a Cisco device.

A

Security Device Manager (SDM)

82
Q

When using a Security Device Manager to manage a device, __________ is the default IP address used.

A

10.10.10.1

83
Q

__________is the default username and password when connecting with Security Device Manager.

A

cisco

84
Q

A new router may not be completely configured for an SDM connection, so you may need to make _______________ first.

A

Console connection

85
Q

What is the pin-out layout in a Rollover Cable?

A 
1-->8
2-->7
3-->6
4-->5
5-->4
6-->3
7-->2
8-->1
86
Q

What is the pin-out layout of a Straight-through cable?

A

1–>1
2–>2
3–>3
6–>6

87
Q

What is the pin-out layout of a Crossover cable?

A

1–>3
2–>6
3–>1
6–>2

My ICND1 Prep (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions