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Physical Exam terms > Terms > Flashcards

Terms Flashcards

1
Q

Aphthous Ulcer

A

(canker sore) an open, shallow lesion in the oral cavity that causes pain. The cause is unknown, and treatment is
limited to alleviating the symptoms

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2
Q

Caries

A

Decay of a bone or tooth, especially dental caries (destructive process causing decalcification of the tooth enamel

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3
Q

Cheilits

A

an abnormal condition of the lips characterized by inflammation and cracking of the skin. There are several forms,
including those caused by excessive exposure to sunlight, allergic sensitivity to cosmetics, and vitamin deficiency

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4
Q

Eustachian Tubes

A

(auditory tubes) the narrow channel connecting the middle ear and the nasopharynx

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5
Q

Gigivitis

A

Inflammation of the gums, characterized by redness and swelling à painless bleeding during brushing and
flossing

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6
Q

Interdental Papillae

A

Thickening (seen as an elevation) of gingiva that fills interproximal space between two adjacent teeth

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7
Q

Leukoplakia

A

a precancerous, slowly developing change in a mucous membrane characterized by thickened, white, firmly
attached (won’t rub off) patches that are slightly raised

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8
Q

Lingual Papillae

A

numerous variously shaped projections of the mucous membrane of the dorsum of the tongue; include conical,
filiform, fungiform, and vallate.

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9
Q

Nares

A

the nostrils; the external openings of the nasal cavity.

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10
Q

Pinnae

A

(Auricle) the projecting part of the ear lying outside the head

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11
Q

Rhinorrhea

A

A discharge from the nasal mucous membrane

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12
Q

Stomatitis

A

any inflammatory condition of the mouth (mucous membrane). It may result from infection by bacteria, viruses,
or fungi; from exposure to certain chemicals or drugs; from vitamin deficiency; or from a systemic inflammatory disease

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13
Q

Tinnitus

A

A sound in one ear or both ears, such as buzzing, ringing, or whistling, occurring without an external stimulus and
usually caused by a specific condition, such as an ear infection, the use of certain drugs, a blocked auditory tube or canal, or a head injury.

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14
Q

Vermilion border

A

the external pinkish-to-red area of the upper and lower lips. It extends from the junction of the lips with the
surrounding facial skin on the exterior to the labial mucosa within the mouth.

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15
Q

Buccal

A

pertaining to the inside of the cheek, the surface of a tooth, or the gum beside the cheek.

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16
Q

Cerumen

A

earwax; the waxlike substance found within the external meatus of the ear.

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17
Q

Epistaxis

A

nosebleed; hemorrhage from the nose, usually due to rupture of small vessels overlying the anterior part of the
cartilaginous nasal septum.

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18
Q

Fordyce spots

A

a condition marked by the presence of numerous small, yellowish-white bodies or granules on the inner surface
and vermilion border of the lips; histologically the lesions are ectopic sebaceous glands.

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19
Q

Glossitis

A

inflammation of the tongue

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20
Q

Koplik’s spots

A

irregular, bright red spots on the buccal and lingual mucosa, with tiny bluish-white specks in the center of each;
seen in the prodromal stage of measles

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21
Q

Lingual Frenulum

A

A fold of mucous membrane extending from the floor of the mouth to the midline of the underside of the tongue

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22
Q

Malocclusion

A

improper relations of apposing teeth when the jaws are in contact

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23
Q

Naris

A

the nostril, the external opening of the nose.

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24
Q

Kiesselbach’s Plexus

A

An area on the anterior part of the nasal septum that has a rich supply of blood vessels and is a common site of
nosebleeds.

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25
Q

Stenson’s ducts

A

duct of the parotid salivary gland.

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26
Q

Thrush

A

A contagious disease caused by a fungus, Candida albicans, that occurs most often in infants and children,
characterized by small whitish eruptions on the mouth, throat, and tongue, and usually accompanied by fever, colic, and diarrhea.

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27
Q

Turbinates

A

Ridge-shaped cartilage or soft bony tissue inside the nose.

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28
Q

Wharton’s ducts

A

Duct of Submandibular salivary gland

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29
Q

Bell’s Palsy

A

A unilateral facial muscle paralysis of sudden onset, resulting from trauma, compression, or infection of the facial nerve and characterized by muscle weakness and a distorted facial expression

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30
Q

Calor

A

heat; one of the cardinal signs of inflammation.

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31
Q

Dolor

A

any condition of physical pain, mental anguish, or suffering from heat. It is one of the four signs of inflammation.

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32
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A

a condition characterized by hyperactivity of the thyroid gland. The gland is usually enlarged, secreting greater than normal amounts of thyroid hormones, and the metabolic processes of the body are accelerated. Nervousness, exophthalmos, tremor, constant hunger, weight loss, fatigue, heat intolerance, palpitations, and diarrhea may develop. Antithyroid drugs, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, are usually prescribed. Radioactive iodine may be prescribed in certain cases. Surgical ablation of the gland is sometimes necessary. Untreated hyperthyroidism may lead to death from cardiac failure

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33
Q

Macrocephaly

A

A condition, either congenital or acquired, in which the head is abnormally large; usually applied to an adult cranium with a capacity of over 1450 mL

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34
Q

Myxedema

A

a dry, waxy type of swelling (nonpitting edema) with abnormal deposits of mucin in the skin (mucinosis) and other tissues, associated with hypothyroidism; the facial changes are distinctive, with swollen lips and thickened nose

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35
Q

Tic

A

Brief and intermittent involuntary movement or sound

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36
Q

Vertex

A

: the summit or top, especially the top of the head

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37
Q

Bruit

A

sound or murmur heard in auscultation, especially an abnormal one

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38
Q

Crepitus

A

(1) flatulence or the noisy discharge of fetid gas from the intestine through the anus. (2) a sound or feel that resembles the crackling noise heard when rubbing hair between the fingers or throwing salt on an open fire. Crepitus is associated with gas gangrene, rubbing of bone fragments, air in superficial tissues, or crackles of a consolidated area of the lung in pneumonia. (3) a clicking sound often heard in movement of joints, for example, in temporomandibular joint resulting from joint irregularities. Also called crepitation.

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39
Q

Goiter

A

A noncancerous enlargement of the thyroid gland, visible as a swelling at the front of the neck, that is often associated with iodine deficiency. May be associated with hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, or normal levels of thyroid function.

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40
Q

Hypothyroidism

A

a diminished activity of the thyroid gland with decreased secretion of thyroxin, resulting in lowered basal metabolic rate, lethargy, sleepiness, dysmenorrhea in females, and a tendency toward obesity. Occasionally there is accompanying gingival hyperplasia. The condition is called cretinism in children and myxedema in adults.

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41
Q

Microcephaly

A

Abnormal smallness of the head

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42
Q

Rubor

A

redness, one of the cardinal signs of inflammation

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43
Q

Torticollis

A

A contracted state of the neck muscles producing an unnatural position of the head. Also called wryneck

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44
Q

Zygomatic Arch

A

The arch formed by the temporal process of the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic process of the temporal bone (Cheekbone)

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45
Q

Dysmetria

A

An inability or impaired ability to accurately control the range of movement in muscular

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46
Q

Antecubital

A

of or relating to the region of the arm in front of the elbow

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47
Q

Apnea

A

Temporary absence or cessation of breathing

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48
Q

Bradypnea

A

abnormal slowness of breathing.

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49
Q

Cheyne-Stokes Respirations

A

breathing with rhythmic waxing and waning of depth of breaths and regularly recurring apneic periods.

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50
Q

Dwarf

A

An abnormally undersized person with disproportion among the bodily parts (< 4’10”)

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51
Q

Dysphonia

A

Difficulty in speaking, usually evidenced by hoarseness

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52
Q

Hyperpnea

A

Abnormally deep and rapid breathing.

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53
Q

Hypothermia

A

A body temperature significantly less than 98.6°F (37°C).

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54
Q

Palpitations

A

A sensation in which a person is aware of an irregular, hard, or rapid heartbeat.

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55
Q

Pulsus alternans

A

one with regular alternation of weak and strong beats without changes in cycle length. It is almost always indicative of left ventricular systolic impairment

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56
Q

Pulsus bisferiens

A

: a pulse characterized by two strong systolic peaks separated by a midsystolic dip, most commonly occurring in pure aortic regurgitation and in aortic regurgitation with stenosis.
o double pulse felt due to the backflow of blood in early

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57
Q

Pyrexia

A

: is a fever which is any body temperature elevation over 100 °F (37.8 °C)

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58
Q

Systole

A

the contraction, or period of contraction, of the heart, especially of the ventricles

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59
Q

Tachypnea

A

an abnormally rapid rate of breathing (more than 20 breaths per minute in adults)

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60
Q

Aphasia

A

defect or loss of the power of expression by speech, writing, or signs, or of comprehending spoken or written language, due to injury or disease of the brain centers

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61
Q

Bradycardia

A

A slowness of the heartbeat, usually under 60 beats per minute in adults

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62
Q

Cachectic

A

pertaining to a state of generally poor health, malnutrition, and weight loss.

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63
Q

Diastolic

A

the phase of blood circulation in which the heart’s pumping chambers (ventricles) are being filled with blood. During this phase, the ventricles are at their most relaxed, and the pressure against the walls of the arteries is at its lowest.

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64
Q

Dysarthria

A

Difficulty in articulating words due to emotional stress or to paralysis, incoordination, or spasticity of the muscles used in speaking

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65
Q

Edema

A

: An accumulation of an excessive amount of watery fluid in cells, tissues, or serous cavities

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66
Q

Hyperventilation

A

Rapid, deep breathing, possibly exceeding 40 breaths/minute. The most common cause is anxiety, although fever, aspirin overdose, serious infections, stroke, or other diseases of the brain or nervous system

67
Q

Orthostatic Hypotension

A

fall in blood pressure associated with dizziness, blurred vision, and sometimes syncope, occurring upon standing or when standing motionless in a fixed position

68
Q

Pulse Pressure:

A

the difference between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures, normally 30 to 50 mm Hg.

69
Q

Pulsus Bigeminus

A

an abnormal pulse in which two beats in close succession are followed by a pause during which no pulse is felt

70
Q

Pulsus Paradoxus

A

an abnormally large decrease in systolic blood pressure and pulse wave amplitude during inspiration. The normal fall in pressure is less than 10 mm Hg. An excessive decline may be a sign of tamponade, adhesive pericarditis, severe lung disease, advanced heart failure, or other conditions.

71
Q

Rigors

A

Stiffness; 1.) a rigid condition of the body tissues, as in rigor mortis. 2.) A violent attack of shivering that may be associated with chills and fever

72
Q

Tachycardia

A

A rapid heart rate, especially one above 100 beats per minute in an adult.

73
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A

a transient episodic blindness caused by decreased blood flow to the retina
o Transient unilateral loss of vision. The visual loss varies from partial to total blindness and rarely lasts longer than 10 minutes. It is usually caused by a temporary occlusion in the internal carotid artery, which produces an insufficient blood flow to the ophthalmic artery and may lead to closure of the central retinal artery.

74
Q

Anisocoria

A

Unequal size of the pupils

75
Q

Choroid

A

the middle, vascular coat of the eye, between the sclera and the retina
.

76
Q

Diplopia

A

double vision –> caused by defective function of the extraocular muscles or a disorder of the nerves that innervate the muscles. It occurs when the object of fixation falls on the fovea in one eye and a nonfoveal point in the other eye or when the object of fixation falls on two noncorresponding point

77
Q

Fovea

A

central fovea of retina) a small pit in the center of the macula lutea, the area of clearest vision, where the retinal layers are spread aside, and light falls directly on the cones.

78
Q

Hyperopia

A

: farsightedness; a visual defect in which parallel light rays reaching the eye come to a focus behind the retina, vision being better for far objects than for near

79
Q

Miosis

A

contraction of the sphincter muscle of the iris, causing the pupil to become smaller. Certain drugs and stimulation of the pupillary light reflex result in miosis.

80
Q

Myopia

A

: nearsightedness; ametropia in which parallel rays come to a focus in front of the retina, vision being better for near objects than for far

81
Q

Papilledema

A

swelling of the optic disc, visible on ophthalmoscopic examination of the fundus of the eye, caused by increase in intracranial pressure. The meningeal sheaths that surround the optic nerves from the optic disc are continuous with the meninges of the brain; therefore increased intracranial pressure is transmitted forward from the brain to the optic disc in the eye to cause swelling.

82
Q

Presbyopia

A

a refractive condition in which the accommodative ability of the eye cannot meet the accommodative demand for near work. It results from a loss of elasticity of the lens of the eye. The condition commonly develops with advancing age, with the first symptoms appearing about age 40.

83
Q

Ptosis

A

(blepharoptosis) Prolapse; an abnormal condition of one or both upper eyelids in which the eyelid droops because of a congenital or acquired weakness of the levator muscle or paralysis of the third cranial nerve. The condition may be treated surgically by shortening the levator muscle.

84
Q

Sclera

A

the tough, inelastic white opaque membrane covering the posterior five sixths of the eyebulb. It maintains the size and form of the bulb and attaches to muscles that move the bulb. Posteriorly it is pierced by the optic nerve and, with the transparent cornea, makes up the outermost of three tunics covering the eyebulb.

85
Q

Strabismus

A

a condition wherein the two visual axes of the eyes are not aimed at a single object. In paralytic strabismus the muscles in the eyes are unable to move because of infection, tumor, or injury. In nonparalytic strabismus, there is a defect in the location of the eyes in relationship to their focal point. Also called squint.

86
Q

Amblyopia

A

(lazy eye) reduced vision in an eye not correctable by a manifest refraction and with no obvious pathologic or structural cause. The vision in an amblyopic eye is worse than in the fellow eye.

87
Q

Aqueous humor

A

the clear, watery fluid circulating in the anterior and posterior chambers of the eye. It is produced by the ciliary body and is reabsorbed into the venous system primarily at the iridocorneal angle by means of the canal of Schlemm.

88
Q

Diopter

A

: a unit of refractive power of lenses: the reciprocal of the focal length in meters is the refractive power in diopters. Symbol D

89
Q

Glaucoma

A

Any of a group of eye diseases characterized by abnormally high intraocular fluid pressure, damaged optic disk, hardening of the eyeball, and partial to complete loss of vision

90
Q

lacrimal punctum:

A

A small, round or oval, opening of the lacrimal canaliculus (duct) on the margin of each eyelid near the inner canthus and situated in the middle of a small elevation the lacrimal papilla. A lacrimal punctum is normally visible only if the lid is everted.

91
Q

Mydriasis

A

: Prolonged abnormal dilation of the pupil of the eye induced by a drug or caused by disease.

92
Q

Nicking

A

: Localized constrictions in retinal blood vessels, seen at arteriovenous crossings; usually due to chronic hypertension.

93
Q

Photophobia

A

abnormal sensitivity to light, especially of the eyes. The condition is prevalent in albinism and various diseases of the conjunctiva and cornea and may be a symptom of such disorders as measles, psittacosis, encephalitis, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, and Reiter’s syndrome.

94
Q

Pterygium

A

a thick triangular patch of pale hypertrophied tissue that extends medially from the nasal border of the cornea to the inner canthus of the eye.

95
Q

Retina

A

the innermost tunic of the eyeball, containing the neural elements for reception and transmission of visual stimuli.

96
Q

Scotoma

A

: An area of lost or depressed vision within the visual field surrounded by an area of normal vision. Survivors of retinoblastoma frequently develop scotomas.

97
Q

Visual Fields

A

the area within which stimuli will produce the sensation of sight with the eye in a straight-ahead position.
o average VF is 65 degrees upward, 75 degrees downward, 60 degrees nasally, and 90 degrees temporally

98
Q

Adie’s pupil

Tonic pupil

A
  • Slow accommodation –> blurred vision; deep tendon reflexes ↓
  • Large, regular, unilateral; Impaired (↓) light response, slow near response
99
Q

Argyll Robertson

A
  • seen in CNS syphilis; both pupils small, unequal + irregular; almost abolished light response, normal near response
    o Accommodate but do not react to light
100
Q

Horner’s syndrome

A
  • in congenital, involved iris is lighter in color (heterochromia)
  • small + ptosis; Normal, briskly light response, normal near response
101
Q

Occulomotor nerrve paralysis

A
  • dilated pupil is fixed; ptosis of upper eyelid and lateral deviation; abolished light response and near response
102
Q

Biot’s Respirations

A

abnormal pattern of breathing characterized by groups of quick, shallow inspirations followed by regular or irregular periods of apnea

103
Q

Bronchophony

A

An exaggerated vocal resonance that can be heard over a bronchus that is surrounded by consolidated lung tissue

104
Q

Costal

A

: Relating to a rib

105
Q

Dyspnea

A

Difficulty in breathing, often associated with lung or heart disease and resulting in shortness of breath.

106
Q

Empyema

A

(Abscess) an accumulation of pus in the pleural space, as a result of bacterial infection, such as pleurisy or tuberculosis. It is usually removed by surgical incision, aspiration, and drainage. Antibiotics, usually penicillin or vancomycin, are administered to combat the underlying infection. Oxygen therapy may also be administered.

107
Q

Fremitus

A

: A palpable vibration, as felt by the hand placed on the chest during coughing or speaking.

108
Q

Kussmaul respirations:

A

Deep, rapid respiration characteristic of diabetic acidosis or other conditions causing acidosis

109
Q

Orthopnea

A

dyspnea that is relieved in the upright position

110
Q

Pneumothorax

A

the presence of air or gas in the pleural space, causing a lung to collapse. Pneumothorax may be the result of an open chest wound that permits the entrance of air, the rupture of an emphysematous vesicle on the surface of the lung, or a severe bout of coughing. It may also occur spontaneously without apparent cause.

111
Q

Bronchitis

A

acute or chronic inflammation of the mucous membranes of the tracheobronchial tree. Caused by the spread of upper respiratory viral or sometimes bacterial infections to the bronchi, it is often observed with or after childhood infections, such as measles, whooping cough, diphtheria, and typhoid fever.

112
Q

Consolidation

A

solidification; the process of becoming or the condition of being solid; said especially of the lung as it fills with exudate in pneumonia

113
Q

Costochondral

A

pertaining to a rib and its cartilage

114
Q

Emphysema

A

: an abnormal condition of the pulmonary system, characterized by overinflation and destructive changes in alveolar walls. It results in a loss of lung elasticity and decreased gas exchange. When emphysema occurs early in life, it is usually related to a rare genetic deficiency of serum alpha-1-antitrypsin, which inactivates the enzymes leukocyte collagenase and elastase. More common causes are air pollution and cigarette smoking

115
Q

Fibrosis

A

: 1 a proliferation of fibrous connective tissue that occurs normally in the formation of scar tissue to replace tissue lost through injury or infection. 2 an abnormal condition in which fibrous connective tissue spreads over or replaces normal smooth muscle or other normal organ tissue. Fibrosis is most common in the heart, lung, peritoneum, and kidney

116
Q

Hemoptysis

A

The spitting or coughing of blood derived from the lungs or from the bronchial tubes

117
Q

Manubrium

A

: The upper segment of the sternum with which the clavicle and the first two pairs of ribs articulate.

118
Q

Pleura

A

the serous membrane investing the lungs (visceral p.) and lining the walls of the thoracic cavity (parietal p.); the two layers enclose a potential space, the pleural cavity. The two pleurae, right and left, are entirely distinct from each other.

119
Q

Sternal Angle

A

the angle between the sternum body and manubrium

Also called the Angle of Louis

120
Q

Afterload

A

the load, or resistance, against which the left ventricle must eject its volume of blood during contraction. The resistance is produced by the volume of blood already in the vascular system and by the constriction of the vessel walls

121
Q

Aneurysm

A

a sac formed by localized dilatation of the wall of an artery, a vein, or the heart

122
Q

Atrioventricular Node

A

an area of specialized cardiac muscle that receives the cardiac impulse from the sinoatrial (SA) node and conducts it to the bundle of His and thence to the Purkinje fibers and walls of the ventricles. The AV node is located in the septal wall between the left and right atria.

123
Q

Claudication

A

Cramping or pain in a leg caused by poor blood circulation. This condition is frequently caused by hardening of the arteries (atherosclerosis). Intermittent claudication occurs only at certain times, usually after exercise, and is relieved by rest

124
Q

Dextrocardia

A

the location of the heart in the right hemithorax, either as a result of displacement by disease or as a congenital defect

125
Q

Gangrene

A

the death of body tissue, generally in considerable mass, usually associated with loss of vascular (nutritive) supply, and followed by bacterial invasion and putrefaction. Although it usually affects the extremities, gangrene sometimes may involve the internal organs. Signs depend on the site and include fever, pain, darkening of the skin, and an unpleasant odor. If the condition involves an internal organ, it is generally attended by pain and collapse

126
Q

Jugular venous pressure

A

blood pressure in the jugular vein, which reflects the volume and pressure of venous blood. JVP is estimated by positioning the head of a supine patient at a 30- to 45-degree angle and observing the neck veins. If the neck veins are filled only to a point a few millimeters above the clavicle at the end of exhalation, JVP is usually normal. With an elevated JVP the neck veins may be distended as high as the angle of the jaw. An elevated JVP is typically a sign of congestive heart failure.

127
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A

a disorder characterized by sudden attacks of respiratory distress that awaken the person, usually after several hours of sleep in a reclining position. This occurs because of increased fluid central circulation with reclining position. It is most commonly caused by pulmonary edema resulting from congestive heart failure. The attacks are often accompanied by coughing, a feeling of suffocation, cold sweat, and tachycardia with a gallop rhythm. Sleeping with the head propped up on pillows may prevent PND, but treatment of the underlying cause is required to prevent fluid from accumulating in the lungs

128
Q

Pericardial friction rub

A

the rubbing together of inflamed membranes of the pericardium, as may occur in pericarditis or after a myocardial infarction. It produces a sound audible on auscultation.

129
Q

Preload

A

the volume of blood in the ventricle at the end of diastole; the stretch of ventricular muscle fibers at end diastole. It is reflected by the ventricular pressure and volume at that part of the cardiac cycle. Cardiac output increases with preload

130
Q

Sphygmomanometer

A

an instrument for measuring arterial blood pressure.

131
Q

Stroke volume

A

the volume of blood ejected from a ventricle at each beat of the heart, equal to the difference between the end-diastolic volume and the end-systolic volume.

132
Q

Thrombophlebitis

A

inflammation of a vein accompanied by the formation of a clot. It occurs most commonly as the result of trauma to the vessel wall; hypercoagulability of the blood; infection; chemical irritation; postoperative venous stasis; prolonged sitting, standing, or immobilization; or a long period of IV catheterization

133
Q

Valsalva maneuver

A

Expiratory effort against a closed glottis, which increases pressure within the thoracic cavity and thereby impedes venous return of blood to the heart. The maneuver results in changes in blood pressure and heart rate and is used in conjunction with other tests to diagnose cardiac abnormalities and to treat various conditions, especially some abnormal heart rhythms

134
Q

Allen test

A

A test for occlusion of the radial or ulnar artery, in which one of these arteries is compressed after blood has been forced out of the hand by clenching it into a fist; failure of the blood to diffuse into the hand when opened indicates that the artery not compressed is occluded.

135
Q

Arterial Insufficiency

A

inadequate blood flow in arteries. It may be caused by occlusive atherosclerotic plaques or emboli; damaged, diseased, or intrinsically weak vessels; arteriovenous fistulas; aneurysms; hypercoagulability states; or heavy use of tobacco. Signs of arterial insufficiency include pale, cyanotic, or mottled skin over the affected area, absent or decreased sensations, tingling, diminished sense of temperature, muscle pains, reduced or absent peripheral pulses, and, in advanced disease, arterial ulcers and atrophy of muscles in the involved extremity.

136
Q

Brawny edema

A

change typical of chronic venous insufficiency, characterized by thickening, induration, liposclerosis and non-pitting edema; the brawny color is due to hemosiderin from lysed RBCs; with chronic ischemia, the skin undergoes atrophy, necrosis, and stasis ulceration, surrounded by a rim of dry, scaling, and pruritic skin

137
Q

Coarctation

A

narrowing. (coarctation of aorta a local malformation marked by deformed aortic media, causing narrowing of the lumen of the vessel.)

138
Q

Embolism

A

the sudden blocking of an artery by a clot of foreign material (Embolus) that has been brought to its site of lodgment by the blood current. The obstructing material is most often a blood clot, but it may be a fat globule, air bubble, piece of tissue, or clump of bacteria.

139
Q

Homan’s Sign

A

Pain in the calf when the ankle is slowly and gently dorsiflexed (with the knee bent), indicative of incipient or established thrombophlebitis in the veins of the leg.

140
Q

Lymphedema

A

Swelling, especially in subcutaneous tissues, as a result of obstruction of lymphatic vessels or lymph nodes, with accumulation of lymph in the affected region.

141
Q

Patent ductus arteriosus

A

• A condition in which the normal channel between the pulmonary artery and the aorta fails to close at birth. In fetal circulation, the blood bypasses the pulmonary circuit because oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged through the placenta. After birth, this channel normally closes in response to expansion of the lungs. With this, blood pools back into the lungs, causing the heart to work harder than necessary.

142
Q

Phlebitis

A

: Inflammation of a vein.

143
Q

Sinus (Sinatrial) node

A

small mass of specialized cardiac muscle fibers located in the posterior wall of the right atrium of the heart that acts as a pacemaker of the cardiac conduction system by generating at regular intervals the electric impulses of the heartbeat

144
Q

Stenosis

A

The narrowing of an opening or passage-way in the body. In arteries, stenosis is caused by a build-up of atherosclerotic plaque, disease, or other disorder.

145
Q

Thrill

A

The vibration accompanying a cardiac or vascular murmur, detectible on palpation.

146
Q

Thrombosis

A

Formation of a clot in the blood that either blocks, or partially blocks a blood vessel. The thrombus may lead to infarction, or death of tissue, due to a blocked blood supply

147
Q

Venous Hum

A

a continuous murmur (blowing, singing, or humming) heard on auscultation over the major veins at the base of the neck and around the umbilicus. It is most audible in the neck when the patient is anemic, upright, and looking to the contralateral side. It is also heard in some healthy, young individuals.;

148
Q

Ascites

A

abnormal accumulation of serous fluid, containing large amounts of protein and electrolytes, in the peritoneal cavity. Ascites is a complication of cirrhosis, congestive heart failure, nephrosis, malignant neoplastic disease, and various fungal and parasitic diseases.

149
Q

Borborygmi

A

a rumbling noise caused by propulsion of gas through the intestines.

150
Q

Cullen’s sign

A

the appearance of faint, irregularly formed hemorrhagic patches on the skin around the umbilicus. The discolored skin is usually blue-black and becomes greenish brown or yellow. Cullen’s sign may appear 1 to 2 days after the onset of anorexia and the severe, poorly localized abdominal pains that are characteristic of acute hemorrhagic pancreatitis. It is also present in massive upper GI hemorrhage and ruptured ectopic pregnancy

151
Q

Flatus

A

Gas generated in or expelled from the digestive tract, especially from the stomach or intestines.

152
Q

Hematemesis

A

vomiting of bright red blood, indicating rapid upper GI bleeding, commonly associated with esophageal varices or peptic ulcer.

153
Q

Hematuria

A

abnormal presence of blood in the urine. It is symptomatic of many renal diseases and disorders of the genitourinary system.

154
Q

McBurney’s Point

A

a point one third of the way along a line drawn from the hip to the umbilicus (between the navel and the right anterior superior iliac spine); the point of maximum sensitivity in acute appendicitis

155
Q

Peristalsis

A

the coordinated, rhythmic serial contraction of smooth muscle that forces food through the digestive tract, bile through the bile duct, and urine through the ureters.

156
Q

Striae

A

(aka a stretch mark) a streak or a linear scar that often results from rapidly developing tension in the skin, such as seen on the abdomen after pregnancy. Purplish striae are among the classic findings in hyperadrenocorticism

157
Q

Ballottement

A

a technique of palpating an organ or floating structure by bouncing it gently and feeling it rebound; Maneuver used in physical examination to estimate the size of an organ not near the surface, particularly when there is ascites, by a flicking motion of the hand or fingers similar to that involved in dribbling a basketball.

158
Q

Colic

A

Spasmodic pains in the abdomen; sharp visceral pain resulting from torsion, obstruction, or smooth muscle spasm of a hollow or tubular organ, such as a ureter or an intestine.

159
Q

Dysphagia

A

difficulty in swallowing, commonly associated with obstructive or motor disorders of the esophagus. Patients with obstructive disorders such as esophageal tumor or lower esophageal ring are unable to swallow solids but can tolerate liquids. Persons with motor disorders, such as achalasia, are unable to swallow solids or liquids. Diagnosis of the underlying condition is made through barium studies, the observed clinical signs, and evaluation of the patient’s symptoms

160
Q

Hematochezia

A

the passage of red blood through the rectum. The cause is usually bleeding in the colon or rectum, but it may result from the loss of blood higher in the digestive tract although blood passed from the stomach or small intestine generally loses its red coloration through enzymatic activity on the erythrocytes. Cancer, colitis, and ulcers are among causes of hematochezia.

161
Q

Lipoma

A

benign tumor consisting of mature fat cells

162
Q

Melena

A

: abnormal black tarry stool that has a distinctive odor and contains digested blood. It usually results from bleeding in the upper GI tract and is often a sign of peptic ulcer or small bowel disease

163
Q

Scaphoid

A

boat-shaped, such as the scaphoid bone of the wrist.

164
Q

Viscus

A

: any large interior organ in any of the three great body cavities, especially those in the abdomen.

Physical Exam terms (4 decks)

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