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prehospital care theory > term test 1 > Flashcards

term test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 3 areas that exercise focuses on

A
  1. cardiovascular (endurance)
  2. physical strength
  3. flexibility
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2
Q

what is the circadian rhythm

A

the circadian system keeps us in sync with the 24 hour day

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3
Q

what’s one thing our internal clock signals in our body

A
  1. digestion
  2. release of certain hormones
  3. body temperature & heart rate
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4
Q

what’s something that creates a misalignment between your internal clock and the outside world

A

shift work

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5
Q

what is infection

A

an invasion and multiplication of microorganisms into the body causing cellular damage (something has to go into the site for an infection to grow or being to multiply)

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6
Q

what is communicable

A

the ability to spread disease person to person

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7
Q

6 steps to the chain of infection transmission

A
  1. agent (germs)
  2. reservoir (where germs live)
  3. portal of exit (how germs get out)
  4. mode of transmission (how germs get around)
  5. portal of entry (how germs get in)
  6. susceptible host (next sick person)
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8
Q

Example for chain of transmission (influenza)

A
  1. infectious agent = influenza virus
  2. reservoir = germs normally live and multiply in the patient’s lungs and air passages
  3. portal of exit = germs leave the body through the respiratory tract by coughing and sneezing
  4. mode of transmission = germs are spread by the touching of contaminated surfaces
  5. portal of entry = germs enter the body from the eyes, nose and mouth
  6. susceptible host = a person who gets an infection because they are unable to successfully fight the infection so people without the annual influenza vaccine
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9
Q

how are infectious diseases spread

A

can be spread easily and quickly when a sick or infected person comes in direct or indirect contact with a healthy individual

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10
Q

6 main ways that infectious diseases are spread

A
  1. through air
  2. saliva of the infected person or animal
  3. blood or other bodily fluids
  4. skin or mucous membranes
  5. urine or feces
  6. soiled, dirty or unhygienic objects
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11
Q

airborne pathogens

A

when an infected person coughs or sneezes, the pathogens are released into the air and can be inhaled by another person and make them sick

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12
Q

7 main diseases spread by air

A
  1. chicken pox
  2. common cold
  3. flu
  4. measles, meningitis, mumps
  5. strep throat
  6. rubella
  7. tuberculosis
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13
Q

urine and feces

A

some diseases are spread by the urine of the infected person coming in contact with a healthy individual through dirty hands or object

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14
Q

skin or mucous membrane contact

A

infection is spread easily by the direct contact of the skin or mucous membrane like that of the nose, throat, genitals etc

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15
Q

blood and bodily fluids

A
  • these infections can spread via blood or any bodily fluid
  • this happens through a used injection device, needle pin or broken skin
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16
Q

what are the 3 most common diseases spread by blood or bodily fluids

A
  1. hepatitis B
  2. hepatitis C
  3. HIV
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17
Q

breaking the chain

A

routine practices are a set of infection control strategies and standards designed to protect workers from exposure to potential sources of infectious diseases

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18
Q

4 routine practices used for breaking the chain

A
  1. immunization
  2. hand hygiene and care
  3. equipment disinfection
  4. PPE
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19
Q

immunization

A

your best defence against infectious diseases

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20
Q

what does PPE stand for

A

personal protective equipment

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21
Q

EMCAP

A

E = environment
M = MOI
C = # of casualties
A = assistance
P = PPE

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22
Q

AVPU

A

A = alert
V = verbal
P = pain
U = unresponsive

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23
Q

ABC

A

A = airway
B = breathing
C = circulation

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24
Q

CMS

A

C = circulation
M = motor
S = sensory
**used for focused assessments (ex.arm)

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25
Q

OPQRST

A

O = onset
P = provoke
Q = quality
R = radiate
S = severity
T = time

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26
Q

SAMPLE

A

S = signs & symptoms
A = allergies
M = medications
P = past medical history
L = last oral intake
E = events leading up to injury

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27
Q

common PPE equipment

A
  • gloves
  • gowns
  • head covering
  • boot and shoe coverings
  • surgical or N95 masks
  • powered air-purifying respirators (PAPR)
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28
Q

donning

A

PPE must be donned correctly and in proper order before any patient care is giving

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29
Q

proper order of donning

A
  1. perform hand hygiene
  2. put on gown
  3. put on mask or N95
  4. put of eye protection
  5. put on gloves
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30
Q

doffing

A

the removal of used PPE

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31
Q

proper order of doffing

A
  1. remove gloves
  2. remove gown
  3. perform hand hygiene
  4. remove eye protection
  5. remove mask or N95
  6. perform hand hygiene
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32
Q

how to decide how much PPE is needed

A
  1. patient’s chief complain
  2. common sense
  3. dispatch information
    ** when in doubt wear more PPE than may be initially required as it can be removed if its not needed
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33
Q

what is a traumatic event

A

“trauma” is different for everyone but there are a # of events that can cause significant distress

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34
Q

examples of events that could cause significant distress

A
  1. threat or death
  2. serious injury
  3. viewing or handling of bodies
  4. death or a serious injury or a close friend, colleague or family member
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35
Q

7 common reactions to a traumatic event

A
  1. panic or anxiety
  2. desire to avoid anything attached to the event
  3. feeling sad, tearful, hopeless, depressed, angry or guilty
  4. increased consumption of alcohol or abuse of other substances
  5. a change in personality, trouble controlling moods
  6. difficulties in concentration, disorientation or memory problems
  7. sleep disturbances or excessive alertness, painfully reliving the event (while awake or asleep)
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36
Q

general impression

A

at distance assessment of the patient to determine how “sick” they are
**look for alertness, position, skin colour etc

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37
Q

2 types of MOI

A
  1. medical
  2. trauma
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38
Q

order for treating a conscious patient

A
  1. EMCAP
  2. general impression
  3. consent
  4. AVPU
  5. primary assessment (ABC & wet check)
  6. focused exam (OPQRST)
  7. SAMPLE
  8. vitals & GCS
  9. transport
39
Q

order for treating a unconscious patient

A
  1. EMCAP
  2. general impression
  3. consent
  4. AVPU
  5. primary assessment (ABC & WC)
  6. head to toe assessment
  7. vitals & GCS
  8. SAMPLE
  9. transport
40
Q

what are the 3 components to the GCS scale

A
  1. eyes
  2. motor
  3. verbal
41
Q

what is the GCS scale out of

A

15

42
Q

levels for GCS (eyes)

A

4 = open
3 = verbal
2 = pain
1 = closed

43
Q

levels for GCS (verbal)

A

5 = orientated
4 = confused
3 = inappropriate words
2 = incomprehensive
1 = none

44
Q

levels of GCS (motor)

A

6 = obeys
5 = local
4 = withdraw
3 = flexion
2 = extension
1 = none

45
Q

what are the 3 stages of a lift

A
  1. plan
  2. communicate
  3. execute
46
Q

3 types of patient consent

A
  1. verbal/expressed
  2. implied
  3. informed
47
Q

what does A stand for in AVPU

A

alert to talking and who they are (person, place, day)

48
Q

what does V stand for in AVPU

A

is responsive to verbal stimuli

49
Q

what does P stand for in AVPU

A

is responsive to pain stimuli (sternum rub)

50
Q

what does U stand for in AVPU

A

unresponsive

51
Q

7 steps to a complete set of vitals

A
  1. heart rate (pulse, rhythm, volume) - timed for 15 secs
  2. respiratory rate (BPM, rhythm, volume)
  3. pupil response
  4. skin condition
  5. GCS
  6. blood pressure
  7. temperature
    **determine order based on chief complaint
52
Q

systolic pressure

A

measured during contraction of the heart, and is the higher of the 2 numbers (top number)

53
Q

diastolic pressure

A

measured during relaxation of the heart, the lower of the 2 numbers (bottom number)

54
Q

how many cervical vertebrae are there

A

7

55
Q

how many thoracic vertebrae are there

A

12

56
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae are there

A

5

57
Q

how many sacral vertebrae are there

A

5 that are fused

58
Q

what results from a spinal cord injury

A
  • swelling and inflammation
  • migration of bone fragments
59
Q

how many coccyx vertebrae are there

A

4 that are fused

60
Q

what can result from a cervical injury to the spine

A

quadriplegia

61
Q

what can result from a thoracic injury to the spine

A

paraplegia

62
Q

true or false
the severity of the injury depends on the location of the injury

A

TRUE

63
Q

what can result from a lumbar injury to the spine

A

paraplegia

64
Q

What are 2 questions you need to ask the patient after applying a C collar

A
  1. Can you breath
  2. Can you swallow
65
Q

What colour is the pediatric collar

A

Yellow

66
Q

What colour is the adult collar

A

Grey

67
Q

what is the structure and function of the spine

A
  1. house and protect the spinal cord
  2. vertebrae has a hollow centre to allow for the spinal cord
  3. spinal cord transmits nerve impulses from the brain to the rest of the body
  4. allows for movement and sensation
  5. vertebrae are divided up into sections (cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral and coccyx)
68
Q

what does a injury from a force from the front cause (bend towards force, then recoil backward)

A

hyper flexion

69
Q

what does a injury from a force from the back cause (bend backward towards force, then recoil forward)

A

hyperextension

70
Q

mechanism

A

energy moves through the body based on the force/impact (think class example - side impacted with force is going to be more severely injured or damaged)

71
Q

TRUE or FALSE - if there is a level of conscious (meaning patient is unconscious) assume there is a spinal injury

A

TRUE - apply C collar

72
Q

what are 3 things required for spinal immobilization

A
  1. immobilization of the head
  2. immobilization of the neck
  3. immobilization of the torso/thorax
    **full immobilization is usually not required
73
Q

what are the 6 steps of spinal immobilization

A
  1. manual C - Spine control
  2. cervical collar (not is there is resistance or pain)
  3. backboard (scoop = better option)
  4. log roll (ensure head, torso, pelvis move as one unit = 2 people movement - person at the head counts)
  5. strapping (shoulder, pelvis, legs) - do the strap chest first because its the heaviest part of the body
  6. head rolls
74
Q

what to look for during the physical exam for a spinal injury - 4 parts of an assessment

A
  1. head
  2. neck
  3. back
  4. extremities
75
Q

what to check for during a spinal check

A

palpate (lateral and midline) and look for any tenderness or deformities of the spine

76
Q

3 things to assess all extremities for

A
  1. strength
  2. mobilization
  3. sensation
77
Q

in what cases would you use the KED

A

used in situations when their is confined space
1. cars
2. stairwells
3. small rooms
4. patients must remain seated

78
Q

what does KED stand for

A

kendric extrication device

79
Q

TRUE or FALSE - KED should only be used for stable patients as it takes time

A

TRUE

80
Q

how long should a patient be on a unpadded long board (backboard) for no longer than

A

45 minutes

81
Q

which stretcher is better the scoop or backboard

A

scoop

82
Q

what is kyphosis

A
  • when a person has rounded shoulders
  • often seen in older populations
  • head needs to be elevated when on a backboard or scoop
83
Q

what is lordosis

A
  • the inward curve of the lumbar spine (just above the butt)
  • seen in people who are pregnant, kids going through growth spurts or those who are overweight
  • blanket needs to be under the elevated part when trying to mobilize the spine
84
Q

what are the 5 possible complications associated with spinal immobilization using a c collar

A
  1. airway problems (aspiration = breathing in anything in the lungs example; mucus)
  2. restricted respiration
  3. dysphagia
  4. skin ulceration
  5. pain
85
Q

what is placed under a children’s body when placed on a spinal board

A

padding is placed under the child’s torso from below the shoulders to the hips to keep their body in alignment with their head so it’s not hyper-flexed

86
Q

airway problems

A

restricted access to the airway can make it difficult to clear vomit or blood

87
Q

dysphasia

A
  • problems or difficulty swallowing
  • problems with patients in unusual neck anatomy following neurological procedures
88
Q

what is the most common type of spinal fracture

A

compression fracture

89
Q

what is a compression fracture

A

causes the vertebrae to collapse making them shorter in height

90
Q

what can happen if the vertebrae collapse

A

it can cause pieces of bone to press on the spinal cord nerves which can cause a decrease amount of blood and oxygen that gets to the spinal cord

91
Q

what is a burst fracture

A

a severe variant of a compression fracture with an increase risk of neurological deficits. the vertebrae is crushed in all directions

92
Q

what is a rotation translation fracture

A

a rotation and translation fracture are severe spinal injuries characterized by the horizontal displacement and rotation of 1 vertebrae

93
Q

what is paralysis

A

Paralysis is a loss of muscle function in part of your body. It can be localized or generalized, partial or complete, and temporary or permanent. Paralysis can affect any part of your body at any time in your life.

94
Q

most common causes of paralysis

A

include strokes, spinal cord injuries and nerve disorders like multiple sclerosis

prehospital care theory (5 decks)

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