Term 2 Flashcards
Define globalisation
Integration of world markets
When is the first globalisation?
1870-1913 (19thC)
Which wave of colonisation coincides with first wave globalisation?
1st wave globalisation & 2nd wave colonisation = late 19C
(1st wave colonisation = 15C to early 19C)
(2nd wave globalisation = late 20C)
Evidence globalisation is taking place
Reduction in ‘t’ = price convergence = integration of world markets = globalisation.
What are the components of ‘t’?
Tariffs, transport costs, information asymmetries.
3 possible causes of globalisation
- Transport revolution - steamship & Suez Canal
- Trade?
- Reduction in information asymmetries - Telegraph & Gold standard
What was the transport revolution?
Steamship: 1840s screw propeller & iron hull, Elder & Radolph’s compound engine in 1853 = enabled long distance trade with more cargo space.
Suez Canal - 1869 Europe closer to Asia
When did Suez Canal open?
1869
By how much did ocean freight rates fall according to North’s index?
41% decline from 1840-1910
What method did Pascali (2016) use to show importance of steamship for globalisation?
Looked at wind patterns as these are exogenous w.r.t trade. Asymmetric reduction in shipping times
Problems with using ocean freight rates to evidence globalisation
They are endogenous to trade - more trade = increase D for shipping = shift in demand curve affects freight rates. affected by economic activity & market structure. Pascali argues gold standard, income growth & trade liberalisation caused demand curve to change. And shipping line cartels created monopoly structure.
Sailing vessels from Western Europe to US took what route? How did this change after the steamship?
Travelled south before heading westward due to clockwise wind Patterns in North Atlantic. After steamship could take direct route as not dependent on wind patterns.
When were the corn laws abolished in Britain?
1846
When were the corn laws introduced?
1815
What free trade treaty did British & France sign and when?
Cobden Chevalier treaty in 1860
Why does trade not explain globalisation?
Because 1870-1880 reversion to protectionism everywhere except Britain in most intense globalisation period.
USA tariffs as north won civil war 1860s.
By how much were German wheat tariffs increased in late 1880?
From5% to 40%
What is asymmetric & symmetric info problems?
Symmetric info = risk e.g. Currency risk
Asymmetric = contracting problems - adverse selection & moral hazard.
When was the classical gold standard era?
1880 to 1914
How did gold standard help reduce information problems?
Reduced currency risk = reduced symmetric info problems
When was the Atlantic telegraph cable built?
1866
Hoag (2006): what are his results on how telegraph helped globalisation?
Hypothesis tests the difference in share prices between NY & London stock exchanges for Erie Railroad. Significance differentials from t=0 to t=9 therefore telegraph reduced time lag by 10 days = share price convergence.
Why do Bordo et al argue that info asymmetries remained a problem?
40% UK pre-1914 overseas investment in railways and 30% in government as deemed lower risk and easier to monitor.
Debt > equity
Proof info asymmetries still a problem - sacrifice profitability for lower risk.
2 expected gains from trade
Comparative advantage - increased output
New trade theory - economies of scale
How does comparative advantage benefit a country even if their ability to produce is unchanged?
If country B becomes more productive in producing good Y, it becomes comparatively even worse at producing good X = willing to trade more Y for same amount of X, so country A receives more Y for every unit of X.
What did Heckscher & Ohlin show are the distributional consequences of globalisation for FOPs?
Country specialises in the good produced using the relatively abundant FOP. E.g. US lots of land and not much labour = specialise in resource / agricultural goods = increased demand for land = rental price of land rises = landowners benefit, while price of scarce FOP falls = wages fall.
What is the factor proportions model?
HOS model of trade similar to Ricardian model but includes labour and capital, not just labour. Different countries have difference endowments of K & L - specialise in & export goods produced using abundant factor. Price of abundant FOP rises, and price of scarce FOP falls.
What is the compensation principle w.r.t. Globalisation?
As long as total benefits > total losses from free trade, it must be possible to redistribute some of the income from winners to the losers so that everyone has at least as much income as before.
Why was there wage convergence between US & UK in 19C?
Before 19C: US wages higher as labour scarce
Globalisation: UK specialised in relatively abundant labour intensive goods = wages rose; US specialised in resource intensive goods = wages fell –> convergence.
What reinforced wage convergence between US & Europe?
Labour flows from Europe to US = increased supply if labour = wages fell in US, opposite in Europe
What mitigated wage convergence between US & Europe?
Capital flows from Europe to US = increased capital in US = makes labour more productive so wages rise, but overall we have wage convergence.
In 19C the impact of globalisation was known as…
The Great Specialisation
Two views on how globalisation impacts industrialisation
- Specialisation in primary products –> deindustrialisation as cannot compete in capital intensive markets = worse off in LR
- Industry in other countries = market for primary products in exchange for high quality industrial goods –> boosts other sectors of economy.
Why is there an issue in estimating the causal effect of trade on development?
Correlation doesn’t mean causation. Issue of reverse causation - development leads to more demand for imports & more exports produced = more trade.