Technical Subject Areas Flashcards
1
Q
When should a student pilot obtain a medical certificate?
A
Prior to beginning flight training, a flight instructor should interview the prospective student about any health conditions and determine his or her ultimate goal as a pilot, and should advise the student to obtain the class of medical certificate required. Finding out first whether the student is medically qualified could save time and money.
2
Q
Explain how your student should obtain a medical certificate.
A
A medical certificate is obtained by passing a physical examination administered by a doctor who is an FAA authorized AME. To find the nearest AME, the student should go to the FAA’s AME locator online.
3
Q
What is a “statement of demonstrated ability (SODA)”?
A
At the discretion of the Federal Air Surgeon, a SODA may be granted, instead of an Authorization, to a person whose disqualifying condition is static or non-progressive and who has been found capable of performing airman duties without endangering public safety. A SODA does not expire and authorizes a designated aviation medical examiner to issue a medical certificate of a specified class if the examiner finds that the condition described on its face has not adversely changed.
4
Q
State several medical conditions which might prevent the issuance of a medical certificate.
A
- Clinical diabetes
- Coronary heart disease/heart attack
- Epilepsy
- Disturbance of consciousness
- Alcoholism
- Drug dependence
- Psychosis
5
Q
What should students know about flight operations conducted while suffering from a medical deficiency?
A
No person may act as PIC, or in any other capacity as a required flight crew member, while having a known medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to meet the requirements for his/her current medical certificate.
6
Q
A pilot holds a commercial certificate with ASEL and instrument ratings. The pilot would like to add an AMEL rating to his/her certificate. To be eligible for the practical test, what class of medical certificate is required?
A
The applicant must hold at least a third-class medical certificate.
7
Q
What is the general definition of Hypoxia?
A
Hypoxia means “reduced oxygen” or “lack of oxygen”. Any tissue will die if deprived of oxygen long enough. The greatest concern during flight is hypoxia to the brain.
8
Q
Name off the different types of hypoxia.
A
Hypoxic Hypoxia
Hypemic Hypoxia
Stagnant Hypoxia
Histotoxic Hypoxia
9
Q
What is hypoxic hypoxia?
A
It is the result of insufficient oxygen available to the body as a whole. A blocked airway is an obvious example.
10
Q
What is an example of hypoxic hypoxia as it relates to aviation?
A
Flying at high altitudes without a pressurized cabin or supplemental oxygen can cause hypoxic hypoxia.
It occurs due to the reduction in partial pressure of oxygen molecules. There are fewer oxygen molecules available at the partial pressure required for them to pass between the membranes in the respiratory system, resulting in hypoxia.
11
Q
What are the 14 CFR Part 91 regulations regarding supplemental oxygen altitude requirements?
A
Above 12,500’ MSL: If flying for more than 30 minutes, the crew members must wear and use supplemental oxygen.
Above 14,000’ MSL: The crew members must wear and use supplemental oxygen at all times.
Above 15,000’ MSL: The passengers must be offered supplemental oxygen.
12
Q
What is Hypemic Hypoxia?
A
Occurs when the blood is not able to take up and transport a sufficient amount of oxygen to the cells in the body. Hypemic means “not enough blood”. It results from an oxygen deficiency in the blood, rather than a lack of inhaled oxygen.
13
Q
What are some examples of hypemic hypoxia?
A
Lack of blood (severe bleeding)
Blood disease (anemia)
CO poisoning
Loss of blood due to blood donation
14
Q
What is stagnant hypoxia?
A
Results when oxygen rich blood in the lungs is not moving to the tissues that need it. Stagnant means “not flowing”.
15
Q
What is an example of stagnant hypoxia as related to flying?
A
Pulling excessive G’s during flight.
16
Q
What is Histotoxic Hypoxia?
A
The inability of cells to effectively use oxygen. “Histo” refers to tissues or cells and “toxic” refers to poisonous. Oxygen is being transported to the cells that need it, but they are unable to make use of it.
17
Q
What can cause histotoxic hypoxia?
A
Alcohol and drugs, such as narcotics. These things impair cellular respiration. Drinking 1 oz of alcohol can equate to an additional 2,000’ of physiological altitude.
18
Q
What is typically the first symptom of hypoxia?
A
It is usually euphoria and a carefree feeling.
19
Q
What can occur to your field of vision if hypoxia is present?
A
Your field of vision can start to narrow and make instrument interpretation harder. This is because your eyes use oxygen to function properly.
20
Q
What are the treatments for hypoxia?
A
Flying at lower altitudes.
Having a pressurized cabin.
Using supplemental oxygen.
21
Q
What is hyperventilation?
A
Hyperventilation is the excessive rate and depth of respiration leading to abnormal loss of carbon dioxide from the blood. Basic definition: “over-breathing”.
22
Q
Why can hyperventilation lead to unconsciousness?
A
Hyperventilation can lead to unconsciousness due to the respiratory system’s overriding mechanism to regain control of breathing.
23
Q
What are causes of hyperventilation?
A
Pilots encountering stressful situations may subconsciously increase their breathing rate.
Flying at higher altitudes may cause the pilot to increase breathing rate.
24
Q
What are treatments for hyperventilation?
A
Breathing normally is the best treatment.
Breathing into a paper bag.
Talking out loud.
25
What is the middle ear?
The middle ear is a small cavity located in the bone of the skull. It is closed off from the external ear canal by the eardrum.
26
How is the pressure equalized in your middle ear with the outside air pressure?
Pressure differences between the middle ear & the outside world are equalized by a tube leading from inside each ear to the back of the throat on each side called the Eustachian Tube.
27
What occurs to your middle ear pressure as you climb?
Middle ear air pressure may exceed the pressure of the air in the external ear canal causing the eardrum to bulge outwards.
28
What occurs to your middle ear pressure as you descend?
The pressure of the air in the external ear canal increases, while the pressure inside the inner ear is lower pressure, causing the eardrum to bulge inwards.
This condition can be more difficult to relieve due to the fact that the partial vacuum tends to constrict the walls of the Eustachian Tube.
29
What are different ways you can remedy a middle ear problem?
Pinch the nostrils shut, close the mouth & lips and gently blow. This opens up the Eustachian Tube & allows pressure to equalize.
It may not be possible to equalize the pressure in the ears if a pilot has a cold, an ear infection, or sore throat.
30
How does the air in your sinuses equalize with the outside air pressure?
Air pressure in the sinuses equalizes with the pressure in the flight deck through small openings that connect the sinuses to the nasal passages.
31
What can an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition cause?
An upper respiratory infection or a nasal allergic condition can produce enough congestion around an opening to slow equalization. This is known as a "sinus block".
32
Where can the sinus block occur?
Frontal sinuses
| Maxillary sinuses
33
How can a sinus block be prevented?
Sinus block can be avoided by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition.
34
What is spatial disorientation?
The lack of orientation with regard to the position, attitude, or movement of the airplane in space.
35
What are the three systems your body uses to determine movement and orientation in space?
1. Vestibular System – Organs found in the inner ear that sense position by the way we are balanced.
2. Somatosensory System – Nerves in the skin, muscles, and join that, along with hearing, sense position based on gravity, feeling and sound.
3. Visual System – Eyes, which sense position based on what is seen.
36
What can occur when the visual system is taken away?
When the visual system is taken away, false sensations can cause a pilot to quickly become disoriented.
37
How does the vestibular system work?
Three semicircular canals are positioned at approximate right angles of each other in the inner ear. Each canal is filled with fluid and has a section full of fine hairs. Acceleration of the inner ear in any direction causes the tiny hairs to deflect, which in turn stimulates nerve impulses, sending messages to the brain.
38
How does the somatosensory system work?
Sends signals from the skin, joints, and muscles to the brain that are interpreted in relation to the Earth’s gravitational pull. The body cannot distinguish between acceleration forces due to gravity and those resulting from maneuvering the aircraft, which can lead to sensory illusions and false impressions of an aircraft’s orientation & movement.
39
What is the remedy to spatial disorientation?
Rely completely on the flight instruments.
40
What causes motion sickness?
Motion sickness is caused by the brain receiving conflicting messages about the state of the body. Anxiety & stress can contribute to motion sickness.
41
What techniques can a flight instructor use to overcome motion sickness in their student?
Avoid lessons in turbulent conditions.
| Shorter flight lessons.
42
What is the treatment for motion sickness?
Open air vents.
Focus on an object outside the aircraft.
Avoid unnecessary head movements.
43
What is carbon monoxide?
CO is a colorless gas produced by all internal combustion engines.
44
What occurs during carbon monoxide poisoning?
CO can attach itself to hemoglobin 200x more easily than oxygen. This prevents hemoglobin from binding to oxygen molecules in the blood and carrying oxygen to the cells.
Results in hypemic hypoxia.
45
How can CO get into the cockpit?
Aircraft heater vents and defrost vents may provide CO a passageway into the cabin. Often times the heater works by taking in fresh air and having it flow through a shroud located on the exhaust pipe. The exhaust gases in the muffler heat up the fresh air that gets blown into the cockpit. If there is a crack in the exhaust pipe, CO is able to freely enter the cockpit.
46
What is the treatment for CO poisoning?
```
Turn off the heater.
Open fresh air vents.
Open windows.
Use supplemental oxygen.
Land immediately.
```
47
What is stress?
Stress is the body’s response to physical and psychological demands placed upon it.
48
What is a "stressor" and what are the different types?
A term used to describe an element that causes an individual to experience stress.
Types:
1. Physical Stress – Noise or Vibration
2. Physiological Stress – Fatigue
3. Psychological Stress – Difficult work or personal situations.
49
What is acute stress?
Short term stress. Involves an immediate threat that is perceived as danger. This type of stress triggers a “fight or flight” response in an individual. A healthy person can cope with acute stress and prevent stress overload.
50
What is chronic stress?
Defined as a level of stress that presents an intolerable burden, exceeds the capability of an individual to cope, and causes individual performance to fall sharply. Pilots experiencing this level of stress are not safe and should not exercise their airman privileges. Pilots who suspect they are suffering from chronic stress should consult a physician.
51
What can cause chronic stress?
Psychological pressures such as loneliness, financial worries, and relationship or work problems can produce a cumulative level of stress that exceeds a person’s ability to cope with.
52
What is acute fatigue?
Short term fatigue and is a normal occurrence in everyday living. Rest after exertion & 8 hours of sleep cures this condition.
53
How can you prevent acute fatigue?
Acute fatigue can be prevented by proper diet & adequate rest and sleep.
54
What is chronic fatigue?
Fatigue extending over a long period of time. Usually has psychological roots. Chronic fatigue usually requires treatment by a physician.
55
What is dehydration?
A critical loss of water from the body.
56
What can cause dehydration?
1. Hot flight deck
2. Humidity
3. Diuretic Drinks
57
What is the most noticeable effect of dehydration?
Fatigue
58
How can you prevent dehydration?
1. Drink 2-4 quarts of water every 24 hours.
2. Drink water even when not thirsty.
3. Carry a container in order to measure daily water intake.
4. Limiting daily intake of caffeine and alcohol.
59
What is heatstroke?
A condition caused by an inability of the body to control its temperature.
60
If a pilot is experiencing a hangover from a great time at the club, are they still under the influence of alcohol?
Yes. Motor and mental response impairment is still present. Alcohol can remain in the body for up to 16 hours.
61
What regulation regards to alcohol?
14 CFR 91.17
62
What are the alcohol rules?
No person may act or attempt to act as a crew member of a civil aircraft -
1. Within 8 hours after the consumption of any alcoholic beverage;
2. While under the influence of alcohol;
3. While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen. Alcohol concentration means grams of alcohol per deciliter of blood or grams of alcohol per 210 liters of breath.
63
What is decompression sickness?
DCS describes a condition characterized by a variety of symptoms resulting from exposure to low barometric pressures that cause inert gases (mainly nitrogen), normally dissolved in body fluids and tissues, to come out of physical solution and form bubbles.
64
Why can flying after scuba diving cause DCS?
Scuba diving subjects the body to increased pressure, which allows more nitrogen to dissolve in body tissues and fluids. The reduction of atmospheric pressure that accompanies flying can produce physical problems for scuba divers and cause DCS.
65
What are the waiting times after scuba diving?
Below 8,000’:
- 12 hours after diving that does not require a controlled ascent.
- 24 hours after diving that does require a controlled ascent.
8,000’ or above:
- 24 hours after any dive.
66
Describe some of the challenges a student may encounter during taxi operations.
A pilot taxiing an airplane to or from a runway or otherwise moving about an airport may encounter one or a combination of challenging scenarios. Construction, airport unfamiliarity, time of day, distractions, fatigue, and miscommunications with ATC can add greatly to the challenge of taxiing an airplane safely at an airport.
67
Explain the different types of airport signage and markings a student should be familiar with.
Airport Signs : Mandatory instruction, location, direction, destination, information, and runway distance remaining.
Airport Markings : Runway, taxiway, holding position, closed runways.
68
Pre-flight planning for taxi operations should be an integral part of the student's flight planning process. What information should this include?
1. Review and understand airport signage, markings and lighting.
2. Review the airport diagram, planned taxi route, and identify and "hot spots".
3. Review the latest airfield NOTAMs and ATIS for taxiway/runway closures, construction activity, etc.
4. Conduct a pre-taxi/pre-landing briefing that includes the expected/assigned taxi route and any hold short lines and restrictions based on ATIS information or previous experience at the airport.
5. Plan for critical times and locations on the taxi route (complex intersections, crossing runways, etc.)
6. Plan to complete as many aircraft checklist items as possible prior to taxi.
7. Brief passengers on the importance of minimizing discussions, questions, and conversation during taxi (sterile cockpit).
69
What practical classroom exercise can an instructor use to assist a student in learning to taxi safely at an airport with multiple runways and taxiways?
1. Have the student obtain an airport diagram.
2. Give the student a taxi instruction from aircraft parking to a runway or from a runway to parking.
3. Ask them to indicate on the airport diagram how they would comply with the instruction.
70
Why is it a good idea to teach your students to write taxi instructions down, especially at larger or unfamiliar airports?
Writing down taxi instructions, especially complex instructions, can reduce a pilot's vulnerability to forgetting part of the instruction and provides a reference for read-back of instructions to ATC. It can also be used as a means of reconfirming the taxi route and any restrictions at any time during taxi operations.
71
When issued taxi instructions to an assigned takeoff runway, are you automatically authorized to cross any runway that intersects your taxi route?
No; Aircraft must receive a runway crossing clearance for each runway that their taxi route crosses. When assigned a takeoff runway, ATC will first specify the runway, issues taxi instructions, and state any hold short instructions or runway crossing clearances. ATC is required to obtain a read back from the pilot of all runway hold short instructions.
72
What are some recommended practices that can assist a student in maintaining situational awareness during taxi operations?
1. Have a current airport diagram available for immediate reference during taxi.
2. Monitor ATC instructions/clearances issued to other aircraft for the "big picture".
3. Focus attention outside the cockpit while taxiing.
4. Use all available resources (airport diagrams, airport signs, markings, lighting, and ATC) to keep the aircraft on its taxi route.
5. Cross reference heading indicator to ensure turns are being made in the correct direction and that the student is on the assigned taxi route.
6. Prior to crossing any hold short line, visually check for conflicting traffic; verbalize "clear left, clear right".
7. Be alert for other aircraft with similar call signs on the frequency.
8. Request progressive taxi instructions when unfamiliar with an airport or when confusion exists.
9. Understand and follow all ATC instructions and if in doubt, ASK!
73
What should a student know concerning use of aircraft exterior lighting to enhance situational awareness and safety during airport surface operations?
To the extent possible and consistent with aircraft quipment, operating limitations, and pilot procedures, pilots should illuminate exterior lights as follows:
1. Engine running - turn on the rotating beacon.
2. Taxiing - Rotating beacon and landing light.
3. Crossing/Entering Runway - strobes
74
During calm or nearly calm wind conditions, at an airport without an operating control tower, a pilot should be aware of what potentially hazardous situations?
Aircraft may be landing and/or taking off on more than one runway at the airport. Also, aircraft may be using an instrument approach procedure to runways other than the runway in use for VFR operations. The instrument approach runway may intersect the VFR runway. It is also possible that an instrument arrival may be made to the opposite end of the runway from which a takeoff is being made.
75
When taxiing an aircraft at a non-towered airport, what are several precautionary measures a pilot should take prior to entering or crossing a runway?
Listen on the appropriate frequency (CTAF) for inbound aircraft information and always scan the full length of the runway, including the final approach and departure paths, before entering or crossing the runway. Self-announce your position and intentions and remember that not all aircraft are radio-equipped.
76
What is an airport "hot spot"?
A “hot spot” is a runway safety related
problem area or intersection on an airport.
Typically it is a complex or confusing
taxiway/taxiway or taxiway/runway
intersection. A confusing condition may
be compounded by a miscommunication
between a controller and a pilot, and may
cause an aircraft separation standard to be
compromised. The area may have a history
of surface incidents or the potential for
surface incidents.
77
When should a student request "progressive" taxi instructions?
If the pilot is unfamiliar with the airport or for any reason confusion exists as to the correct taxi routing, a request may be made for progressive taxi instructions which include step-by-step routing directions. Progressive instructions may also be issued if the controller deems it necessary due to traffic or field conditions; i.e., construction or closed taxiways.
78
Lack of preparation in what three major areas contribute to runway incursions?
The three major areas contributing to runway incursions
are communications, airport knowledge, and flight deck
procedures for maintaining orientation.
79
What is the definition of a runway incursion?
A runway incursion is any occurrence at an airport involving an aircraft, vehicle, person, or object on the ground that creates a collision hazard or results in a loss of separation with an aircraft taking off, landing, or intending to land.
80
When receiving taxi instructions from a controller, pilots should always read back what information?
The entire taxi route, especially any hold-short/crossing clearances.
81
What is the relationship between a pilot's physical or mental condition and vision?
The two are closely related. Even a minor illness suffered in day-to-day living can seriously degrade performance of many piloting tasks including the pilot's ability to effectively use his/her vision. Use the IMSAFE checklist.
82
Name several factors that can degrade a pilot's vision.
1. Visibility Conditions: smoke, haze, dust, rain, flying towards sun.
2. Windshield Conditions: dirty or bug-smeared windshield.
3. Bright Illumination: reflected off clouds, water, snow, and desert terrain that produces glare.
4. Dim Illumination: small print and colors on aeronautical charts and aircraft instruments become unreadable.
5. Dark Adaptation: eyes must have at least 20 to 30 minutes to adjust to reduced light conditions.
83
Name several illusions that can occur during flight.
1. Inversion
2. Coriolis
3. Elevator
4. False Horizon
5. Leans
6. Graveyard Spin
7. Graveyard Spiral
8. Somatogravic
84
What is the leans illusion?
An abrupt correction of a banked attitude, which has been entered too slowly to stimulate the motion sensing system in the inner ear, can create the illusion of banking in the opposite direction.
85
What is the inversion illusion?
Reason: An abrupt change from a climb to straight and level flight.
Illusion: Can create the illusion of tumbling backwards.
Result: The pilot will push the aircraft abruptly into a nose low attitude.
86
What is the elevator illusion?
Reason: An abrupt upward or downward vertical acceleration, usually due to an updraft or downdraft.
Illusion: Upward vertical acceleration can create the illusion of being in a climb. Downward acceleration can create the illusion of being in a descent.
Result: The pilot will either push the aircraft into a nose low or nose up attitude.
87
What is a false horizon illusion?
Reason: A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars.
Illusion: Can create the illusion of not being aligned with the horizon properly.
Result: The pilot will put the aircraft into a dangerous attitude.
88
What is autokinesis?
Reason: In the dark.
Illusion: A static light when stared at for many seconds will appear to move about.
Result: The pilot may lose control of the aircraft attempting to align or avoid the light.
89
What is somatogravic illusion?
Reason: A rapid acceleration or deceleration.
Illusion: If accelerating can create the illusion of being in a nose up attitude. If decelerating can create the illusion of being in a nose down attitude.
Result: The pilot will put the aircraft in a nose low, or dive attitude. The pilot will put the aircraft in a nose up, or stall attitude.
90
`What is a graveyard spiral?
Reason: There is an observed loss of altitude during a prolonged constant rate turn.
Illusion: Can create the illusion of a level descent.
Result: The pilot will pull back on the controls, tightening the spiral and increasing the loss of altitude.
91
What is Coriolis illusion?
Reason: An abrupt head movement in a prolonged constant rate turn that has stopped stimulating the motion sensing system.
Illusion: Can create the illusion of rotation or movement in an entirely different axis.
Result: The disoriented pilot will maneuver the aircraft into a dangerous attitude in order to stop the perceived rotation.
92
What is a graveyard spin?
Reason: Recovery from a spin that has ceased stimulating the motion sensing system.
Illusion: Can create the illusion of being in a spin in the opposite direction.
Result: The pilot will return the aircraft to its original spin.
93
Name some landing illusions.
1. Runway Width Illusion
2. Runway & Terrain Slope Illusion
3. Featureless Terrain Illusion
4. Atmospheric Illusions
5. Ground Lighting Illusions
94
What is runway width illusion?
1. A narrower-than-usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach, with the risk of striking objects along the approach path or landing short.
2. A wider-than-usual runway can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a lower altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a higher approach, with the risk of leveling out high and landing hard or overshooting the runway.
95
What is runway/terrain slope illusion?
1. An upsloping runway, upsloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach.
2. A down sloping runway, down sloping terrain, or both, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a lower altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a higher approach.
96
What is featureless terrain illusion?
An absence of ground features, as when landing over water, darkened areas, and terrain made featureless by snow, can create the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a lower approach.
97
What are atmospheric illusions?
1. Rain on the windscreen can create the illusion of greater height.
2. Atmospheric haze can create the illusion of being at a greater distance from the runway.
The pilots who do not recognize these illusions will fly a lower approach.
98
What are ground lighting illusions?
1. Lights along a straight path, such as a road, and even lights on moving trains can be mistaken for runway approach lights.
2. Bright runway and approach lighting systems, especially where few lights illuminate the surrounding terrain, may create the illusion of less distance to the runway. The pilot who does not recognize this illusion will fly a higher approach.
3. The pilot overflying terrain which has few lights to provide height cues may make a lower than normal approach.
99
What is empty field myopia?
Induced nearsightedness. With nothing to focus on, the eyes automatically focus on a point slightly ahead of the plane.
100
What is the regulation number for "See & Avoid" concept, and what does the regulation say?
91.113(b).
“When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether an operation is conducted under instrument flight rules or visual flight rules, vigilance shall be maintained by each person operating an aircraft so as to see and avoid other aircraft.”
101
What is the procedure for proper visual scanning?
Effective scanning is accomplished with a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field. Each movement should not exceed 10 degrees. Each area should be observed for at least 1 second. Peripheral vision can be useful is spotting motion.
102
What are some high hazard areas for potential mid-air collisions?
Aircraft tend to cluster near VORs and class B, C, D & E surface areas.
103
Which regulation number for the right-away-rules?
91.113
104
If you are approaching an aircraft head-on, what action should you do?
Divert to the right.
105
What is the planform?
A planform is the shape of the wing as viewed from directly above.
106
What factors go into the planform design?
1. Aspect Ratio
2. Taper Ratio
3. Sweepback
107
What is Aspect Ratio?
The ratio of wing span to wing chord. Can be thought of as the length of the wing divided by the width of the wing.
108
What occurs if the Aspect Ratio is increased?
An increase in aspect ratio decreases the drag, especially at high angles of attack. High aspect ratio results in smaller wingtips, which decreases induced drag.
109
What is an important factor that needs to be remembered if you increase the aspect ratio?
With an increase in aspect ratio, there is an increase in the length of span, with a corresponding increase in the weight of the wing structure, which means the wing must be heavier to carry the same load. Part of the gain is lost because of the increased weight. A compromise is necessary to obtain the best results.
110
Do most GA aircraft have relatively high or low aspect ratios?
Most GA aircraft have relatively high aspect ratios. This is because they are operated at high coefficients of lift because they are typically slower compared to other aircraft.
111
What type of planes require low aspect ratios?
Airplanes that are developed to operate at very high speeds demand greater aerodynamic cleanness and greater strength and require lower aspect ratios.
112
What does a low aspect ratio result in?
1. High wing loadings.
2. High stall speeds.
3. Coefficient of lift is generally lower, so the plane must be flying faster to compensate.
113
What is taper ratio?
Taper is the decrease from wing root to wingtip in wing chord or wing thickness. Can be thought of as the ratio of the root chord to the tip chord.
114
What does tapering cause?
Tapering causes a decrease in drag and an increase in lift. Smaller wingtips = less induced drag.
115
What are the benefits of a rectangular wing?
1. Simpler to produce and repair.
| 2. The roots usually stall first, providing more warning of a stall with aileron effectiveness.
116
What is sweepback?
The rearward slant of a wing, horizontal tail, or other airfoil surface.
117
How is sweepback beneficial?
1. Helps planes flying at very high speeds.
| 2. Contributes to lateral stability in low-speed planes.
118
What is controllability?
The capability of an aircraft to respond to the pilot’s control, especially with regard to flight path and attitude. It is the quality of the aircraft's response to the pilot’s control application when maneuvering the aircraft, regardless of its stability characteristics.
119
What is maneuverability?
The quality of an aircraft that permits it to be maneuvered easily and to withstand the stresses imposed by maneuvers. It is governed by the aircraft’s weight, inertia, size and location of flight controls, structural strength, and power plant. It is an aircraft design characteristic.
120
What is stability?
Stability is the inherent quality of an aircraft to correct for conditions that may disturb its equilibrium and to return to or to continue on the original flight path. Primarily a design characteristic.
121
What is static stability?
Refers to the initial tendency, or direction of movement, back to equilibrium. In aviation, this refers to the aircraft's initial response when disturbed from a given pitch, yaw or bank.
122
Describe the three different types of static stability.
1. Positive Static Stability: The initial tendency of the aircraft to return to the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed.
2. Neutral Static Stability: The initial tendency of the aircraft to remain in a new condition after its equilibrium has been disturbed.
3. Negative Static Stability: The initial tendency of the aircraft to continue away from the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed.
123
What is dynamic stability?
Refers to the aircraft response over time when disturbed from a given pitch, yaw, or bank.
124
Describe the three different types of dynamic stability.
1. Positive Dynamic Stability: Over time, the motion of the displaced object decreases in amplitude and, because it is positive, the object displaced returns toward the equilibrium state.
2. Neutral Dynamic Stability: Once displaced, the displaced object neither decreases nor increases in amplitude.
3. Negative Dynamic Stability: Over time, the motion of the displaced object increases and becomes more divergent.
125
What is longitudinal stability?
Longitudinal stability is the stability about the aircraft's lateral axis of rotation.
126
What contributes to longitudinal stability?
The CG, CL, and tail. The CG and tail are downward forces, while the CL is an upward force. The CG and tail balance each other out, keeping the aircraft level.
127
What is lateral stability?
Lateral stability is the stability about the aircraft's longitudinal axis of rotation.
128
What design factors contribute to lateral stability?
1. Dihedral
2. Sweepback
3. Keel Effect
4. Weight Distribution
5. Wing Location
129
What is dihedral?
Dihedral is when the outer tips of the wings are higher than the wing roots. An upward angle of the wing.
130
How does dihedral contribute to lateral stability?
When a gust causes a roll, a sideslip will occur. The wing slipping into the wind is subject to an increase in AOA and develops an increase in lift. The wing away from the wind is subject to a decrease in AOA and develops a decrease in lift. The changes in lift create a rolling moment that raises the windward wing.
131
How does sweepback contribute to lateral stability?
10 degree of sweepback on a wing provides about 1 degree of effective dihedral. When a disturbance causes an aircraft to slip or drop a wing, the low wing presents its leading edge at an angle that is more perpendicular to the relative airflow. The low wing acquires more lift, rises, and the aircraft is restored to its original flight attitude.
132
How does wing location effect lateral stability?
A high wing configuration can provide about 5 degrees of effective dihedral over a low wing configuration.
133
Name the four turning tendencies.
1. Torque Effect
2. Gyroscopic Precession
3. Spiraling Slipstream
4. P-Factor
134
Explain torque effect.
Involves Newton’s Third Law: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
While the internal engine parts & propeller are revolving in one direction, an equal force is trying to rotate the aircraft in the opposite direction.
135
What does torque effect cause when airborne?
The aircraft to rotate about the longitudinal axis to the left.
136
What does torque effect cause when on the ground?
It wants to roll the airplane to the left, but can't since both wheels are on the ground. This causes the left main landing gear to have more weight applied to it, making the friction greater than the right landing gear. This causes the aircraft to yaw to the left.
137
Explain spiraling slipstream.
The rotation of an aircraft propeller gives a corkscrew or spiraling rotation to the slipstream. The slipstream strikes the vertical fin on the left side, causing the aircraft to yaw towards the left.
138
When is spiraling slipstream strong? Weak?
At high propeller speeds and low forward speeds, this spiraling rotation is very compact and exerts a strong sideward force on the aircraft’s vertical tail surface. As forward speed increases, the spiral elongates and becomes less effective.
139
Explain gyroscopic precession.
Precession is the resultant action, or deflection, of a spinning rotor when a deflecting force is applied to its rim. When a force is applied, the resulting force takes effect 90 degrees ahead of and in the direction of rotation. The rotating propeller makes for a very good gyroscope. Any yawing around the vertical axis results in a pitching moment. Any pitching around the lateral axis results in a yawing moment.
140
Explain P-Factor.
When an aircraft is flying with a high AOA, the “bite” of the downward moving blade is greater than the “bite” of the upward moving blade. This moves the center of thrust to the right of the propeller, causing a yawing moment to the left.
141
Explain P-Factor more in depth in regards to velocity.
This asymmetric loading is caused by the resultant velocity. The right downward swinging blade, is passing through an area of greater resultant velocity than that affecting the left upward swinging blade. Since the propeller blade is an airfoil, increased velocity means increased lift.
142
What is the general definition of load factor?
Load factor is the ratio of the total load acting on the airplane to the gross weight of the airplane.
143
How is load factor measured?
Load factor is measured in the acceleration of gravity, or “Gs”. A LF of 3 means that the total load on the structure is 3x its gross weight, expressed as 3 G’s.
144
Why is load factor important?
1. It is possible for a pilot to impose a dangerous overload on the aircraft structures.
2. An increased load factor increases the stalling speed and makes stalls possible at seemingly safe flight speeds.
145
What are the category system, maneuvering load factor limits?
1. Normal : 3.8 to -1.52
2. Utility (mild acrobatics, including spins) : 4.4 to –1.76
3. Acrobatic : 6 to –3
146
How are vortices created?
Whenever the wing is producing lift, pressure on the lower surface of the wing is greater than the upper surface. The high-pressure air wants to reach the low-pressure air. The path of least resistance are the wing tips. The high-pressure air under the wing tends to flow laterally outward on the wingtip and swirl up to the top of the wingtip and equalize with the low-pressure air. This causes a clockwise vortex on the left wing and a counterclockwise vortex on the right wing.
147
What governs the strength of vortices?
The strength of the vortex is governed by the weight, speed, and shape of the wing. The AOA directly affects the strength.
1. As weight increases, AOA increases.
2. A wing in the clean configuration has a greater AOA than with flaps.
3. As airspeed decreases, AOA increases.
As AOA increases, the pressure gradient steepens between the air below and above the wing, making the vortices stronger.
148
What is the behavior of vortices?
Vortices tend to sink and travel with the wind. When larger aircraft vortices sink to the ground, they tend to move laterally (2-3 knots). A wind will decrease lateral movement of the upwind and increase movement of the downwind.
149
How can you avoid wake turbulence when landing and taking off?
1. Landing: Stay above/land beyond the preceding aircraft’s touchdown point.
2. Takeoff: Lift-off before the preceding aircraft’s lift-off point.
150
Name and give a general definition of the four forces of flight.
1. Lift : The upward force created by the effect of airflow as it passes over and under the wing.
2. Weight : Opposes lift, and is caused by the downward pull of gravity.
3. Thrust : The forward force which propels the airplane through the air.
4. Drag : Opposes thrust, and is the backward force, which limits the speed of the plane.
151
Explain how lift is created using Newton's Third Law.
Newton's Third Law states, "For every action has an equal and opposite reaction". As an airfoil has air flowing over the top and bottom of it, the air gets deflected off the trailing edge in a downward motion called "backwash". The equal and opposite reaction is an upward motion, hence lift. Also as you increase the angle of attack, air is hitting the bottom of the airfoil at a more perpendicular angle, causing the airfoil to get deflected upwards. If you think of putting your hand outside a car window on the highway and subjecting it to an angle, your hand gets blown upwards.
152
What is Bernoulli's Principle?
Daniel Bernoulli did an experiment using a Venturi tube. He measured the internal pressure and velocity of a fluid going through the Venturi. What he discovered was that as the fluid increased in velocity, the internal pressure of that fluid decreased.
153
How does Bernoulli's Principle relate to lift?
The curvature or "camber" of the airfoil causes the airflow over the top surface to travel at a higher velocity than the lower surface. The air pressure on top of the airfoil is a lower pressure than the bottom since the airflow is at a higher velocity on the top than the bottom. High pressure always seeks out low pressure. The high pressure under the wing causes a force to push the wing up as it tries to get to the lower pressure on top of the wing. This is called a "pressure gradient", and produces lift.
154
What is an airfoil?
An airfoil is a surface designed to create an aerodynamic force by the use of an airstream.
155
What is a chord line?
The chord line of an airfoil is when you draw an imaginary line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the airfoil.
156
What is angle of attack and why is it important?
The angle of attack is the angular distance between the chord line of the airfoil and the relative wind. It is important because it directly affects the coefficient of lift, which affects the product of lift. It is also important when discussing stalls.
157
What is the relative wind?
The relative wind is the oncoming direction of airflow in respect to the airfoil. Relative wind is always opposite and parallel to the flight path.
158
What factors affect lift?
1. Density of the Air
2. Surface Area of the Airfoil
3. Coefficient of Lift
4. Velocity
159
What is the lift equation?
L = (1/2)rho*V^2*S*CL
160
Which factors affect the coefficient of lift?
The coefficient of lift is effected by the shape of the wing and the angle of attack.
161
What are the three axes of rotation?
1. Longitudinal
2. Lateral
3. Vertical
162
What are ailerons?
Control roll about the longitudinal axis. Attached to the outboard trailing edge of each wing and move in the opposite direction of each other. Connected by cables, bell cranks, pulleys, an/or push-pull tubes to a control wheel or stick.
163
What is adverse yaw?
The downward deflected aileron produces more lift. It also produces more induced drag. This added drag causes the wing to slow down slightly. This results in the aircraft yawing toward the wing which had experienced an increase in lift. It causes the plane to yaw in the opposite direction of the bank.
164
Name some different types of ailerons.
1. Differential Ailerons
2. Frise-Type Ailerons
3. Coupled Aileron & Rudder
165
What are differential ailerons?
One aileron is raised a greater distance than the other aileron is lowered for a given movement of the control wheel. This produces an increase in drag on the descending wing. The greater drag results from deflecting the up aileron on the descending wing to a greater angle than the down aileron on the rising wing.
166
What are Frise-Type Ailerons?
The aileron that is being raised pivots on an offset hinge. These projects the leading edge of the aileron into the airflow and creates drag. Frise-Type ailerons may also be designed to function differentially.
167
What is Coupled Aileron & Rudder?
Coupled ailerons and rudder are linked controls. It helps correct for aileron drag by automatically deflecting the rudder at the same time the ailerons are deflected. When the control wheel is moved to the left, the interconnect cable and spring pulls forward on the left rudder pedal just enough to prevent the nose of the aircraft from yawing to the right.
168
What is an elevator?
Controls pitch about the lateral axis. Connected to the control column in the flight deck by a series of mechanical linkages.
169
Name two different types of elevators.
1. T-Tail
| 2. Stabilator
170
What is a T-Tail?
The elevator is above most of the effects of downwash from the propeller, as well as airflow around the fuselage and wings during normal flight conditions. Operation of the elevators in this undisturbed air allows control movements that are consistent through most flight regimes.
171
What is a rudder?
Controls yaw about the vertical axis. Operated through cables.
172
What are flaps?
Flaps are the most common high-lift devices used on aircraft. These surfaces are attached to the trailing edge of the wing and increase both lift and induced drag for any given AOA. They allow a compromise between high cruising speed and low landing speed because they retract.
173
Name four types of flaps.
1. Plain
2. Split
3. Slotted
4. Fowler
174
What are plain flaps?
Simplest type of flap. It increases the airfoil camber, resulting in a significant increase in the coefficient of lift at a given AOA. It greatly increases drag and moves the center of pressure aft on the airfoil.
175
What are split flaps?
Deflected from the lower surface of the airfoil and produces a slightly greater increase in lift than the plain flap. More drag is created because of the turbulent air pattern produced behind the airfoil.
176
What are slotted flaps?
The most popular type of flap. Increase the lift coefficient significantly more than plain or split flaps. The hinge is located below the lower surface of the flap, and when the flap is lowered, a duct forms between the flap well in the wing and the leading edge of the flap. When the slotted flap is lowered, high energy air from the lower surface is ducted to the flap’s upper surface. The high energy air from the slot accelerates the upper surface boundary layer and delays airflow separation, providing a higher coefficient of lift.
177
What are fowler flaps?
Type of slotted flap. Not only changes the camber of the wing but also increases the wing area. Instead of rotating down on a hinge, it slides backwards on tracks.
178
What is trim?
Trim systems are used to relieve the need to maintain constant pressure on the flight controls. They usually consist of cockpit controls and small hinged devices attached to the trailing edge of primary control surfaces. Minimize workload by aerodynamically assisting movement and position of the controls attached to.
179
Describe class A airspace.
18,000’ MSL up to and including FL600. Overlies the US and the waters within 12 NM of the coast of the 48 contiguous states and Alaska. IFR only.
180
Describe class B airspace.
Generally, from the surface to 10,000’ MSL. Surrounds the nation’s busiest airports in terms of airport operations or passenger enplanements. Each class B area is individually tailored, consists of a surface area and two or more layers, and is designed to contain all published instrument procedures once an aircraft enters the airspace. Can resemble an upside-down wedding cake.
181
Describe class C airspace
From the surface to 4,000’ AGL. Charted in MSL. Surrounds airports that have an operational control tower, are serviced by a radar approach control, and have a certain number of IFR operations or passenger enplanements. Usually consists of a surface area with a 5NM radius and an outer area that has a 10NM radius and goes from 1,200’ AGL – 4,000’ AGL.
182
Describe class D airspace.
From the surface to 2,500’ AGL. Surrounds airports that have an operational control tower. Class D only when tower is in operation. Reverts to class E when tower is closed. Typically, a 4 NM radius.
183
Describe class E airspace.
Controlled airspace not classified as A, B, C, or D. A large amount of airspace over the US is class E. Provides sufficient airspace for the safe control and separation of aircraft during IFR operations.
1. Class E and the Low Altitude Airway System - Connects one NAVAID to another. Airways are usually 8NM wide. Unless otherwise specified, they extend upward from 1,200’ AGL to, but no including, 18,000’ MSL.
2. Class E and Airports - Surface Area: to surface of airport. Transition Area: 700’ AGL
184
Describe glass G airspace.
Airspace that has not been designated Class A, B, C, D, or E. Extends from the surface to the base of the overlying class E airspace. ATC has no authority or responsibility to control air traffic in this airspace.
185
What are class A requirements?
1. ATC Clearance.
2. IFR Equipped
3. Instrument Rating.
186
What are class B requirements?
1. ATC Clearance
2. Two-way radio, Transponder with altitude reporting capability (Mode C).
3. Private Pilot Cert, Student or recreational pilot may operate at other than the primary airport if seeking private pilot certification and if regulatory requirements are met. Must receive training and an endorsement. 61.95
187
What are class C requirements?
1. Two-way radio communications prior to entry.
| 2. Two-way radio, Transponder with altitude encoding capability (Mode C).
188
What are class D requirements?
1. Two-way radio communication prior to entry.
| 2. Two-way radio.
189
What are class E requirements?
Mode C Transponder if at or above 10,000’ MSL.
190
What are class B weather minimums?
3SM, Clear of Clouds.
191
What are class C weather minimums?
3SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.
192
What are class D weather minimums?
3SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.
193
What are class E weather minimums?
1. Less than 10,000’ MSL:
3SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.
2. At or above 10,000’ MSL:
5SM, 1,000’ above, 1,000’ below, 1SM horizontal.
194
What are class G weather minimums?
1. 1,200’ or less AGL:
a) Day:
1 SM, Clear of Clouds.
b) Night:
3 SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.
2. More than 1,200’ AGL but less than 10,000’ MSL:
a) Day:
1 SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.
b) Night:
3 SM, 1,000’ above, 500’ below, 2,000’ horizontal.
3. More than 1,200’ AGL and at or above 10,000’ MSL:
5 SM, 1,000’ above, 1,000’ below, 1 SM horizontal.
195
What is special use airspace (SUA)?
Special Use Airspace (SUA) exists where activities must be confined because of their nature. In SUA, limitations may be placed on aircraft that are not part of the activities.
196
Name several types of SUA.
1. Prohibited Areas
2. Restricted Areas
3. Warning Areas
4. MOAs (Military Operations Areas)
5. Alert Areas
6. Controlled Firing Areas (CFA)
197
What is a prohibited area?
Airspace within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited. Established for security or other purposes associated with the national welfare. Published in the federal register and are depicted on aeronautical charts.
198
What is a restricted area?
Airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Denote the existence of unusual, often invisible hazards to aircraft. An aircraft may not enter a restricted area unless permission has been obtained from the controlling agency.
199
What is a warning area?
Airspace extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the US, that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The US does not have jurisdiction over this airspace.
200
What is an MOA?
Consist of airspace established for the purpose of separating certain military training activity from IFR traffic. IFR traffic may be cleared through a MOA if IFR separation can be provided by ATC, otherwise ATC will reroute traffic. There is no restriction against a pilot operating in VFR in these areas. A pilot should, although, be alert since training activities may include aerobatic and abrupt maneuvers.
201
What is an alert area?
Are to advise pilots that a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity is taking place.
202
What is a CFA?
Contain activities, which, if not conducted in a controlled environment, could be hazardous to aircraft. Activities here must be suspended when a potter aircraft, radar, or ground lookout position indicates an aircraft might be approaching the area. Not charted on a sectional.
