Technical Flashcards

1
Q

Reciprocal Heading Formula

A

Init Hdg + 200° − 20° = Recip Hdg
(When smaller than 180°)

or

Init Hdg − 200° + 20° = Recip Hdg
(When greater than 180°)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Temp Conversion Formulas

A

Every 5°C = 9°F

[ (°C × 2) – 10%] + 32 = °F
[ (°F – 32) + 10%] ÷ 2 = °C

(2 × °C) + 30 = °F
(°F – 30) ÷ 2 = °C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pressure Altitude calculation

A

Every .01 inHG = 10 feet

Standard 29.92

Add below, subtract above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Visibility to RVR

A
1/4 sm = 1600 RVR
1/2 sm = 2400 RVR
3/4 sm = 4000 RVR
1 sm = 5000 RVR
1 1/4 sm = 6000 RVR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Knots/Mach conversion to miles per minute

A

60 knts = 1 mile per minute
30 knts = 0.5 mile per minute

Mach x 10 = NM/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Time-speed-distance formulas

A

GS x Time = Distance

TAS +/- Wind = GS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Enroute Decent Calculation

A

altitude to lose x 3

1 nm per 10 knts of airspeed to lose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Calculating VDP

A

DME method: HAT/300

Time method: HAT x 0.10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Approach Category minimum RVR requirement

A

Non - Precision: 2400’
Cat 1: 1800’ or 1400’ with special authorization
Cat 2: 1200’ or 1000’ with special authorization
Cat 3a: 700’
Cat 3b: 150’
Cat 3c: 0’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Standard Circling Radii

A
Cat A: 1.3
Cat B: 1.5
Cat C: 1.7
Cat D: 2.3
Cat E: 4.5

*expanded Radii marked with boxed C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

MSA

A

Minimum Safe/Sector Altitude

1000’ obstacle clearance within 25 NM of nav facility

ESA: 1000’ clearance in non mountainous and 2000’ in mountainous within 100 NM of nav facility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

MVA

A

Minimum Vectoring Altitude

  • may be lower than MEA
  • usually published only to controllers
  • obstacle clearance 1000’ non-mountainous; 2000’ mountainous
    • 1000’ clearance in mountainous may be authorized where needed with the use of Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

MEA

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude

  • lowest published altitude between fixes that guarantees signal coverage and obstacle clearance (2000’ mountainous; 1000’ non-mountainous)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MOCA

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude

  • assures signal coverage within 22 NM of VOR and meets obstacle clearance requirements (2000’ mountainous, 1000’ non-mountainous)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

TDZL

A

Touchdown Zone Lighting

  • 2 rows of white lights to indicate the touchdown zone. Start 100’ beyond landing threshold and extend to 3000’ or midpoint of the runway, whichever is less
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Distance remaining indications on a Precision runway

A

Runway edge lights: change from white to yellow for the last 2000’ or half the runway, whichever is less

Runway Centerline Lighting System (RCLS) - white lights at 50’ intervals along the centerline of the runway until the last 3000’; alternate white and red for the next 2000’; red for the remaining 1000’

Distance Remaining Markings - signs along the side of the runway spaced at 1000’ intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HIRL

A

High Intensity Runway Lighting

  • runway edge lights are white, except the last 2000’ or half the length of the runway, whichever is less, change to yellow to form a caution zone.
  • lights marking the end of the runway emit red towards departing aircraft to indicate the end and green towards arriving aircraft to indicate the threshold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Maximum Holding Speeds

A

FAA:
MHA - 6000’ : 200 kts
6001’ - 14,000’ : 230 kts (may be restricted to 210 kts)
14,001 and above : 265 kts

ICAO:
Up to 14,000’ : 230 kts
14,001’ - 20,000’ : 240 kts
20,000’ - 34,000’ : 265 kts
Above 34,000’ : Mach 0.83

NOTE Maintain 200 kts below 6,000’; 220 kts below 14,000’; and 240 kts above that, you will stay within all international holding speed limitations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum timing for Inbound holding legs

A

1 minute at 14,000’ and below

1 1/2 minutes above 14,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Requirements to continue descent below DA/MDA

A

1) position to make normal descent to touchdown within the TDZ
2) flight visibility not less than required for the approach
3) distinctly visible threshold (markings or lights), runway (markings or lights), TDZ (markings or lights), VASI, or REILs, or ALS to 100’ above TDZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When can you continue an approach if weather goes below mins

A

If weather drops below min:

FAA: after the final approach segment has been started the approach can continue to DA/MDA

ICAO: after aircraft is below 1000’ HAA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Required ATC calls under Radar contact

A
  • Time and altitude over designated reporting points , if requested by ATC
  • unforecast weather
  • information regarding the safety of flight
  • malfunction of nav, comm, or approach equipment
  • time and Alt entering or leaving a holding clearance limit
  • altitudes, altitude restrictions, and heading vectors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

VOR Check Requirements

A

Every 30 days

  • Ground VOR/VOT check: +/-4°
  • Airborne check: +/-6°
  • Dual VOR check: within 4° of each other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lost Comm Procedures

A

FAA:
Route: (AVEF)

1) last ATC clearance received (A = assigned)
2) if being vectored, direct to vector clearance (V = vector clearance)
3) route advised to be expected (E = expected)
4) route filed (F = Filed)

Altitude (highest of)

1) minimum IFR altitude
2) expected in further clearance
3) assigned in last ATC clearance

ICAO:
*where radar is NOT used in the provision of air traffic control, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 20 minutes following the aircraft’s failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point

*in airspace where radar is used in the provision of air traffic control, maintain the last assigned speed and level, or minimum flight altitude if higher, for a period of 7 minutes following:

1) the time the last assigned level or minimum flight altitude is reached; or
2) the time the transponder is set to Code 7600; or
3) the aircraft’s failure to report its position over a compulsory reporting point;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

When is a destination alternate required?

A

Domestic: +/- 1 hr of ETA - weather below 2000’ ceilings and 3 sm vis

Flag operation:

  • flights greater that 6 hrs require and alternate
  • flight is under 6 hrs and +/- 1 hr of ETA weather below: for circling approach ceiling at least 1500’ above MDA; or 1500’ above the lowers published approach min or 2000’ above airport elevation, whichever greater; and vis at least 3 sm or 2 sm above lowest approach min, whichever greater

Supplemental: must list an alternate for each destination in the release unless fuel requirements are met (at least an additional 2 hr supply after reaching destination)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Takeoff alternate requirement

A
  • weather conditions at takeoff airport are below landing mins

For 2 engines: alternate must be within 1 hr at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inop

For 3 or 4 engines: alternate must be with 2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Alternate Airport Weather Mins

A

Basic: 600/2 precision approach or 800/2 non precision approach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When are pilots required to wear O2 mask

A

Above FL410, one pilot at controls must wear a mask if the other leaves his station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Takeoff Visibility Mins

A

Usually defined in Ops Specs

STD: 1 and 2 eng: 1 sm/RVR5000; 3 and 4 eng: 1/2 sm/RVR2400

Adequate Vis Ref: All engines: 1/4 sm/RVR1600

With CL and RCLM: All engines: RVR500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CDA or CDFA

A

Continuous Descent Final Approach - technique of flying the final segment of a NPA with a continuous descent from an altitude at or above FAF to 50’ above landing threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

V1 definition

A

Maximum speed in a takeoff at which the pilot must take first action (decision speed)

  • affected by aircraft weight, flap setting, density altitude, runway slope, and wind condition*
  • must be greater the Vef + pilot reaction time of 2 sec*
  • must be equal or greater than Vmcg*
  • only accounts for an engine failure, not a structural failure or some other abnormal event*
  • V1 increase with altitude*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

V2 definition

A

Takeoff/single engine safety speed

  • min speed to be maintain to 400’ in case of engine failure
  • guarantees 2.4% climb gradient for 2-engine airplanes (2.7 for 3 eng and 3.0 for 4 eng
  • engine-out best rate of climb in takeoff
  • increase in density altitude has the effect of lowering V2 speed because a higher density altitude reduces engine thrust*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Vmca definition

A

Minimum controllable airspeed airborne at which if the critical engine fails it is still possible to maintain control of the aircraft and maintain straight flight (within 20º of heading) with no more than a 5° bank

reduces as density altitude increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Vmcg definition

A

Minimum controllable airspeed on the ground
airspeed during the takeoff run at which when the critical engine becomes inoperative it is still possible to maintain control of the aircraft using rudder control only

  • no more that 30 feet excursion from centerline*
  • limited 150 pounds of force*
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Vref definition

A

Airspeed that is 1.3 times stalling speed in landing config

*airspeed required to be flown when crossing the landing threshold in landing config

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Accelerated Stop Distance

A

the amount of runway required to accelerate the aircraft to just below V1, lose an engine, take the first action to stop the airplane, and come to a complete stop on the remaining runway and stopway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

EPR

A

Engine Pressure Ratio: ratio of engine output pressure to engine intake pressure. Measure on the A320 by the P2/T2 sensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Transformer Rectifier vs Static Inverter

A

TR: Converts AC to DC

Static Inverter: converts DC to AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Likely Condition for Turbine engine icing

A

High turbine speed. On the ground

Dry air with temps between -15C and 5C or with visible moisture and temps between -15C and 7C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What effects stall speed?

A

Weight, load factor, and power

  • for a given flap setting and aircraft will stall at the same angle of attack
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How to achieve best range with a tailwind

A

Decrease cruise speed with a TW and increase cruise speed with a HW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Types of Hydroplaning

A

Dynamic: rolling over standing water on the runway. Occurs at 9 x square root of tire pressure

Viscous: roll over slick surface on the runway. Occurs at slow speeds

Reverted Rubber: locked wheel skid on a damp runway. Water trapped between locked wheel and the runway. Minimum contact with the runway.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Grid MORA

A

Grid min off-route altitude: derived by Jeppensen to clear all terrain and man made structures.

  • does not proved navaid or comm coverage
  • elevations 5000’ MSL and below 1000’ clearance over all terrain and manmade structures
  • elevations 5000’ MSL and above 2000’ clearance over all terrain and manmade structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Threat Error Management (TEM)

A

Safety concept regarding safety operation and human performance.

  • It assumes pilots will naturally make mistakes and encounter risky situation.
  • Focus on the pilot identifying and managing threats and errors so as not to impair safety
  • Three components:
    • Threats: external errors or events outside the influence of the flight crew (weather, traffic density, terrain)
    • Errors: actions or inaction by the flight crew that lead to deviations from company or operational intentions or expectations
    • Undesired State: aircraft configuration or circumstance other than intended caused by flight crew error or external factor (climbing through assigned altitude, flap overspeed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Balanced Field Length

A

Amount of runway and stopway for an aircraft to accelerate to just below V1, lose an engine, and stop on the remaining runway; or accelerate to just above V1 and continue to obstacle clearance altitude

  • accelerate-go performance is equal to accelerate-stop performance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Accelerate Go Distance

A

amount of runway required to accelerate the aircraft to V1, lose an engine, and continue the takeoff to the prescribed obstacle clearance altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Accelerate Stop Distance

A

amount of runway required to accelerate the aircraft to just below V1, lose an engine, take the first action to stop the airplane, and come to a complete stop on the remaining runway and stopway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Ice Types and when they would be encountered

A

Moisture must be present and aircraft surface below 0°C

Rime: small in droplet size, -15ºC to -20ºC, stratiform clouds
Clear Ice: large in droplet size, 2ºC to -10ºC, cumuliform clouds
Mixed: medium in droplet size, -10ºC to -15C, stratiform and cumuliform clouds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Expanded Circling Radii Cat C and D

A
> 1000: 2.7 (C), 3.6 (D)
1000-3000: 2.8 (C), 3.7 (D)
3001-5000: 2.9 (C), 3.8 (D)
5001-7000: 3.0 (C), 4.0 (D)
7001-9000: 3.2 (C), 4.2 (D)
9000 > : 3.3 (C), 4.4 (D)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

LPV vs LP vs LNAV/VNAV approaches

A

LPV (localizer performance with vertical navigation): very similar to an ILS by using refined accuracy of WAAS (wide-area augmentation system) lateral and vertical guidance. Sensitivity increases as aircraft gets closer to the runway

LNAV/VNAV: lateral and vertical guidance … vertical guidance used internally generated glide slope. RAIM must be checked

LP )(localizer performance without vertical guidance): Uses WAAS lateral guidance. Similar to a loc approach. Independent of an LPV approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Low V1 limit vs High V1 limit

A

Low V1 limit: the lowest speed from which and aircraft can continue and still climb to at least 35’ above the runway surface and not lower than Vmcg

High V1 limit: the highest speed at which the aircraft can still stop on the runway and not higher than Vr

52
Q

Reduced V1

A

A speed lower than maximum V1 to reduce the rejected takeoff stopping distance
*must also make sure the continued takeoff performance is met

53
Q

Takeoff Distance

A

Distance from brake release:

  - accelerate to V1
  - lose the critical engine
  - accelerate to Vr and Vlof
  - proceed  to 35’ at V2 with gear down (Dry)

Distance from break release:

   - accelerate to V1
   - lose the critical engine
   - accelerate to Vr and Vlof
   - proceed to 15’ at V2 with gear down (Wet)
54
Q

Runway limit weight

A
  • maximum weigh limit under current conditions that guarantees the aircraft meets balanced field length requirements
  • maximum weight at which the aircraft can experience a so-called V1 failure and still stop on the remaining runway or continue to a point 35 feet above the runway within the runway/clearway distance limits
  • most restrictive weigh limit
55
Q

Takeoff Climb Segments

A

1st: brake release to a point at least 35’ above the runway surface at V2 with gear retracted
2nd: V2 and gear retraction until acceleration altitude (typically 400’)
3rd: acceleration altitude until aircraft is cleaned up and in cruise/climb config and airspeed
4th: climb config and airspeed until 1500’ (Enroute environment)

56
Q

Minimum climb gradient required

A

2 eng:

  • 1st seg: positive rate
  • 2nd seg: 2.4%
  • 3rd and 4th seg: 1.2%

3 eng:

  • 1st seg: 0.3%
  • 2nd seg: 2.7%
  • 3rd and 4th seg: 1.5%

4 eng:

  • 1st seg: 0.5%
  • 2nd seg: 3.0%
  • 3rd and 4th: 1.7%

*conversions - 1.2% = 12’ per 1000’ traveled; 1.5% - 15’ per 1000’ traveled; etc

57
Q

Landing Distance Required

A

Must be able to land within 60% of available runway - Dry

Runway available must be 115% of aircrafts computed required runway length - Wet

58
Q

Maximum bank angles

A

50’ < 100’ : 15°
100’ < 400’ : 20°
400’ < 25°

*no banks prior to 50’ or 1/2 wingspan of the aircraft

59
Q

Aircraft Approach Categories

A

1.3 x Vso (Vref) at MLW

Cat A: 90 knts or less
Cat B: 91 knts to 120 knts
Cat C: 121 to 140 knts
Cat D: 141 to 165 knts
Cat E: above 165 knts
60
Q

Does accelerate stop distance include the use of reverse thrust

A

Dry runway: reverse thrust cannot be used in the calculation

Wet runway: reverse thrust can be used in the calculation

61
Q

MALSR, MALSF, ALSF-1, ALSF-2

A

MALSR: Medium-intensity Approach Lighting System with Runway Alignment Indicator Lights

MALSF: Medium-intensity Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashing lights

ALSF-1: Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashing Lights configuration 1

ALSF-2: Approach Lighting System with Sequenced Flashing Lights configuration 2

62
Q

When to begin slowing prior to a hold?

A

FAA: 3 minutes or less from the fix if clearance beyond has not been received

ICAO: states that holding patters shall be entered and flown at or below the given airspeeds

63
Q

O2 requirements for pressurized turbine aircraft

A
  • not less than a 2 hr supply for each flight crew member on duty
    • enough for a constant rate descent from max altitude to 10,000’ in 10 mins and an addition 110 mins at 10,000’
  • with quick doning mask one must wear mask if other leaves station above FL410
64
Q

Position Report Items

A
  • identification
  • position
  • time
  • altitude and flight level
  • ETA and name of next reporting point
  • name of next succeeding reporting point
  • pertinent remarks
65
Q

Additional Reports

A
  • vacating any previously assigned altitude
  • unable to climb/descend at 500’ per min
  • missed Approach
  • change in average airspeed by 5% or 10 knts
  • time and altitude reaching a holding fix
  • loss of NAV/Comm equipment
  • info related to safety of flight
  • unforecast weather
66
Q

Effects of wind after an engine failure?

A

Takeoff and landing:

  • A crosswind would be a factor in the amount of rudder required. - A loss of the upwind engine would greater the amount of rudder required
  • A headwind would allow for an increased V2 with increased performance
  • tailwind would increase ASD
  • Headwind decrease ASD

Enroute: a headwind or tailwind would effect performance to an alternate

67
Q

Maximum takeoff weight for a given runway

A

When balanced field length equals runway length available

68
Q

Climb Limit Weight

A

Guarantees aircraft ability to climb from 35’ above the runway surface to 1500’ with required climb gradient

69
Q

Ground Speeds ———> miles per min

A

60 knts = 1 mile/min
90 knts = 1.5 miles/min
120 knts = 2 miles/min
150 knts = 2.5 miles/min

240 knts = 4 miles/min
300 knts = 5 miles/min
360 knts = 6 miles/min
420 knts = 7 miles/min
480 knts = 8 miles/min
540 knts = 9 miles/min
70
Q

Fuel requirements (domestic)

A

1) fly to airport in dispatch release (trip fuel)
2) fly to the most distant alternate (alternate fuel)
3) fly 45 mins at normal cruising speed (reserve fuel)

71
Q

Fuel requirements (flag operation)

A

1) fly to destination airport (trip fuel)
2) 10 % of of fuel required to the destination (contingency fuel)
3) fly to alternate airport (alternate fuel)
4) fly for 30 mins at 1500’ above alternate (reserve fuel)
* if no alternate enough to get to destination plus 2 hrs (reserve fuel)

72
Q

Emergency Fuel

A

FAA:
- The point at which, in the judgment of the pilot-in-command, it is necessary to proceed directly to the airport of intended landing due to low fuel

  • enough fuel to land at best suitable airport with fuel reserve (no alternate fuel)
  • Declaration of a fuel emergency is an explicit statement that priority handling by ATC is both required and expected
  • per FAA: There is no regulatory definition as to when, specifically, a pilot must declare “minimum fuel” or a fuel emergency*

ICAO:
- fuel emergency ”MAYDAY FUEL”, is when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final reserve fuel

73
Q

SLOP

A

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedure

  • encourages aircraft operation in the NAT (North Atlantic Region/Airspace) to fly self-selected lateral offsets to provide additional safety margins
  • mitigates the risk of traffic/separation conflicts
  • collision risk reduces
  • reduces the probability of encountering wake turbulence
  • right offsets of centerline allowed up to a maximum of 2 NM
    • offsets to the left not permitted
    • if aircraft without auto offset must fly centerline
    • no ATC clearance required for this procedure
74
Q

Clearway

A

An area beyond the runway obstacle free (threshold lights permitted) at least 500’ wide

75
Q

Stopway

A

area beyond the takeoff runway at least the width of the runway and centered upon the extended centerline of the runway, able to support the airplane during an aborted takeoff, without causing structural damage to the airplane

76
Q

OTS (Organized Track System)

A
  • Daytime and Nighttime OTS published Daily
  • Shanwick publishes daytime at 0000Z
  • Gander publishes nighttime at 1200Z
  • use of tracks not mandatory
  • use of tracks allow ATC to effectively separate aircraft
  • aligned in ways in minimize headwinds and maximize tailwinds
77
Q

NAT HLA

A

North Atlantic Traffic High Level Airspace

  • re designated in 2016 to support the PBN (performance based navigation) transition
  • FL285 —> FL420
  • Datalink required between FL350 —> FL390
78
Q

ADS (Automatic Dependent Surveillance)

A

ADS-B (broadcast):

  • Out: sends GPS position to ATC and other aircraft with ADS-B
  • In: more accurate version of TCAS
  • broadcasts position, altitude, vector, and other info to ATC
  • used by aircraft and surface vehicles

ADS-C (contract):
- transmits information to one or more specific ATS (air traffic service) or AOC facilities

79
Q

METAR

A
  • Usually issued hourly and valid for 1 hr

- SPECI: unscheduled report containing change in WX

80
Q

TAF

A
  • Valid for 24 - 30 hr period
  • published 4 times per day (0000, 0600, 1200, 1800)
  • within 5 miles of the airport
  • BECMG: trend over period of time
  • PROB: probability
  • TEMPO: less than 1 hr with greater than 50% probability
81
Q

CPDLC (Controller Pilot Data Link Communication)

A
  • Replacement of HF over Oceanic and VHF in some domestic areas
  • reduces time it takes ATC to issue instructions and receive pilot acknowledgment
  • if round trip time of a message between ATC and the pilot can be reduced to 240 seconds or less, the lateral and longitudinal spacing can be reduced (RCP 240)
82
Q

AIRMETs

A
  • issued every 6hr starting at 0245 UTC
  • Sierra: IFR Conditions (less than 1000’ ceilings/3 miles vis) and mountain obscurations
  • Tango: moderate turbulence and winds greater than 30 knts
  • Zulu: moderate icing and freezing levels
83
Q

SIGMET

A
  • convective or non-convective activity important to all aircraft
  • severe icing
  • severe or extreme turbulence
  • dust storms
  • volcanic ash
  • issued as needed and valid for 4 hrs
  • if issued due to hurricane or volcanic ash valid for 6 hrs
84
Q

Convective SIGMET

A
  • implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing, low level windshear, severe thunderstorm
  • hazardous to all categories of aircraft
  • issued hourly and valid for 2 hrs
85
Q

Takeoff Path

A

From start of the runway to a point aircraft reaches at least 1500’

  • provides obstacle clearance for all four segments
  • allows for aircraft to accelerate to Vef, at which point the most critical engine become inop , and allow the aircraft to accelerate to V2 before reaching 35’
  • maintain V2 until 400’
  • maintain 1.2% climb after 400’ (two-engines)
86
Q

Takeoff Run

A

Distance that allows pilot:

  • accelerate to V1
  • lose critical engine
  • accelerate to Vr and Vlof
  • reach a point 1/2 between liftoff and 35’ above takeoff surface
87
Q

Net Takeoff Flight Path

A

Actual takeoff path during certification reduced by 0.8%, or 8’ per 1000’ traveled (twin engine)

Vertical profile through the 4 takeoff segments that clears all obstacles by 35’ vertically, or by 200’ horizontally within the airport boundaries (300’ after passing the airport boundaries)

88
Q

ETOPS

A

Extended Operations (previously Extended Twin-Engine Operation)

  • begins when an airplane is more that 60 mins (twin engine) or 180 mins ( three or four engines) flight time from an adequate diversionary airport at one engine inoperative cruise speed in still air
89
Q

Screen Height

A

Imaginary screen at the end of the runway or clearway that the airplane would just clear with wings level and landing great down at 35’ and V2 (15’ on a wet runway)

90
Q

Weather Deviations on NAT

A
  • Advise intentions on 121.5 and 123.45
  • If deviation is greater than 5NM descends 300’ if North of track or climb 300’ if South of track (start climb or descent after passing 5NM from track) : SAND = South Ascend North Descend
  • clear of weather….return to track and level
91
Q

Oceanic Inflight Contingency Procedure

A

If unable to follow ATC clearance and unable to obtain a new clearance:

Within NAT:

  • offset left or right of track 30º to 5NM
  • alert other aircraft on 121.5 and 123.45
  • turn on all exterior lights
  • squeak 7700
  • parallel track and establish 500’ vertical offset (1000’ above FL410)
  • preferably descend below FL290 to an altitude with less traffic and establish 500’ vertical offset
  • obtain a new clearance with ATC

Other than NAT:

  • offset left or right of track 45º and 15NM
  • alert other aircraft on 121.5 and 123.45
  • turn on all exterior lights
  • squeak 7700
  • clear of 10NM establish 500’ vertical offset (1000’ above FL410)
92
Q

Standard Separation between NAT OTS (North Atlantic Tracks Organized Track System)

A

1 degree (approx 60 nm) of latitude at significant points

*RLatSM: reduces lateral separation to 1/2 degree of latitude (approx 25 nm)

93
Q

Jet Stream

A
  • Long relatively narrow band of strong wind primarily blowing from west to east
  • strongest in the winter
  • Polar Jet Stream located at approximately 50-60 degrees N and S
  • Sub-tropical Jet Stream located at approximately 30 degrees N and S
  • common area of Clear Air Turbulence
  • found at the tropopause (boundary between troposphere and stratosphere)
  • follow boundaries between cold and hot air
94
Q

Icing Conditions

A
  • defined as conditions of OAT (on the ground) or TAT (in flight) below 10ºC with visible moisture
  • most icing tends to form between 0º and -20º at altitudes around 10,000’
  • structural icing forms when supercooled droplets come in contact with the aircraft surface
95
Q

Runway Condition

A

Dry - Runway is not wet or contaminated; clear of contaminates and moisture

Wet:

     - FAA: more than 25% of the runway surface is covered be visible dampness or less than 3mm of water 
     - ICAO: neither Dry nor Contaminated

Contaminated:

      - FAA: more than 25% of the runway surface is covered by frost, ice, or any depth of snow, slush, or water
      - ICAO: more than 25% of the runway surface is covered by water, more that 3mm of slush, compacted snow, loose snow more that 20mm, or ice

Damp:
- EU: surface not Dry, but moisture does not give off shiny appearance. (Considered Dry)

96
Q

Stabilized Approach Criteria

A

Prior to 1000’ IMC, 500’ VMC:

  • Vref -0/+20
  • 1000 fpm descent or less
  • landing configuration
  • correct flight path and power setting
  • checklist complete
  • within 1 dot of loc/gs
97
Q

QNE vs QNH vs QFE

A

QNE: altimeter is set to International standard of 29.92” or 1013 millibars. Altimeter reads pressure altitude and is used in the flight levels

QNH: local altimeter setting when operating below the flight levels. Pressure altitude corrected for local conditions. Will read field level when on the ground

QFE: QNH adjusted for field elevation. Altimeter will read 0’ on the ground

  • QNH = “nautical height”
  • QFE = “field elevation”
98
Q

Minimum Fuel

A

FAA:

  • an aircraft’s fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching the destination, it can accept little or no delay
  • This is not an emergency situation but merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur
  • A minimum fuel advisory does not imply a need for traffic priority
  • per ATC common sense and good judgment will determine the extent of assistance to be given in minimum fuel situations
  • If, at any time, the remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, the pilot should declare an emergency and report fuel remaining in minutes

ICAO:
- when having committed to land at a specific airport the pilot calculates that and delay or change to the current clearance may result in landing with less than the Final Fuel Reserve (30 mins at Holding Speed at 1500’ HAA in standard conditions)

  • “MINIMUM FUEL” informs ATC that, for a specific aerodrome of intended landing, the aircraft has sufficient fuel remaining to follow the cleared routing, execute an arrival and approach procedure and land with the required fuel reserves
  • not an emergency situation, but an advisory that an emergency could arise from any further delay*
99
Q

Visual Aids to assist pilots in LAHSO

A
  • yellow pavement markings
  • red and white signage
  • in-pavement lighting
100
Q

LAHSO Restrictions

A

For Air Carrier must be:

  • 1,500’ ceiling and 5 miles vis; or 1,000’ ceiling and 3 miles vis with VASI or PAPI
  • ALD must be dry
  • tailwind less that 3 knts
  • no windshear reported
101
Q

Dutch Roll

A
  • characteristic of Swept-back wings
  • tendency of aircraft to roll as it yaws
  • with a yaw the effective wing span between left and right changes
  • the forward wing creates more lift than the opposite causing a rolling action
  • as more light is generated dray increases on that wing creating an opposite rolling action and oscillations
102
Q

Class 1 vs Class 2 Airspace

A

Class 1:

  • any en route flight operation conducted in controlled or uncontrolled airspace that is entirely within operational service volumes of ICAO standard NAVAIDs (GNSS, VOR, VOR/DME, and NDB)
  • the operational service volumes of the NAVAIDs solely determine the lateral and vertical boundaries of Class 1 navigation

Class 2: Class II navigation is any en route operation not categorized as Class I navigation and includes any operation, or portion of an operation, that takes place outside the operational service volumes of ICAO standard NAVAIDs

note: with updated ACs most references to Class 1 and Class 2 Airspace have been removed

103
Q

Domestic vs Flag vs Supplemental

A

Domestic: any scheduled operation that is operated entirely within the 48 contiguous US

Flag: any schedule operation that operated between any point

  - within Alaska or Hawaii and any point outside of Alaska or Hawaii
  - within the 48 CONUS and any point outside the 48 CONUS
  - between two points completely outside the 50 US 

Supplemental: charter/non scheduled operations

104
Q

When is a second alternate required?

A

When weather conditions at the destination airport and first alternate are reported as marginal

105
Q

VOR Service Volumes

A

Terminal: 1,000’ - 12,000’ and 25NM

Low: 1,000 - 18,000’ and 40 NM

High: 1,000’ - 14,500’ and 40 NM
14,500’ - 18,000’ and 100 NM
18,000’ - 45,000’ and 130 NM
45,000’ - 60,000’ and 100 NM

106
Q

Aircraft Weight Categories

A

Small: under 41,000 lbs MTOW

Large: 41,000 lbs to 299,999 lbs MT0W

Heavy: Greater that 300,000 lbs MTOW

107
Q

Characteristics of Aft CG

A
  • Aft CG limit of an aircraft determined largely by consideration of stability
  • Less tail down force
  • Higher cruise speed
  • less drag
  • stall recovery more difficult
  • less stable as CG moves toward rearward limit
108
Q

Characteristics of a FWD CG

A
  • lower cruise speed
  • higher stall speed
  • increased wing loading
  • nose down tendencies
109
Q

Official weather for establishing ILS Critical Areas

A

Ceiling 800’ and Vis 2 SM

110
Q

Reduced Thrust vs Derated Thust

A

Reduced Thrust (Flex-temp, Assumed Temp Thrust):

  • performance based on “assumed temperatures”
  • thrust setting that although requiring more runway and will still safely maintain FAA-required minimum takeoff and climb performance on departure
Derated Thrust (Thrust 1 or Thrust 2):
- fixed valued thrust reduction without considering temperature into the performance equation

Advantages to both:

  • maintenance cost savings
  • increased reliability
  • reduced engine wear and engine noise
111
Q

DME Arc protection

A

Initial phase:

  - Primary Area: 4NM each side and 1,000’ ROC (Required Obstacle Clearance)
  - Secondary Area: 2NM each side and tapers to 0’ ROC

Intermediate phase:

 - Primary Area: 4NM each and 500’ ROC
 - Secondary Area: 2NM each side and tapers to 0’ ROC
112
Q

Holding Pattern Protection

A
  • Size of hold is determine by aircraft speed and TERPS tables
  • protection on both holding and non-holding side
  • Primary area: 1000’ ROC in holding area
  • Secondary area: 2NM area around Primary with 500’ ROC tapering to 0’
113
Q

PRM Approaches

A
  • PRM = Precision Runway Monitor
  • used in simultaneous close parallel approaches
  • surveillance system used to monitor No Transgression Zone (NTZ) for aircraft separation of close parallel runways
  • specific airborne equipment, training, procedures required
114
Q

Requirements for CATII and CAT III approaches

A
  • special ground and airborne equipment
  • special aircrew training and authorization
  • Air Carrier Ops Specs covers details
  • TDZ RVR is controlling and must be used
  • CATIII require TDZ, Midpoint, and Rollout RVR
115
Q

What temp does Fuel Freeze at?

A

-40ºC

116
Q

Meaning of FM, BECMG, TEMPO, PROB on a TAF

A

FM (FROM): prevailing weather conditions are expected to rapidly change over a period of 1 hour

BECMG (BECOMING): gradual change in weather over a period of 2 hours

TEMPO: temporary fluctuation in weather forecast to last 1 hour or less

PROB: Probability of forecasts weather

117
Q

Typical Required Obstacle Clearance (ROC)

A

Typical ROC values are:

  • 1000 feet (2000 over designated mountainous terrain) for en route, STAR, and feeder segments
  • 1000 feet for initial segments
  • 500 feet for intermediate segments
  • 250-500 feet for final segments.
118
Q

Requirements of a circling approach

A
  • 300’ ROC in circling approach area
  • circling area based Category aircraft TAS
  • final approach course alignment greater that 30º
  • descent gradient is greater than 400 ft/NM from the FAF to the threshold crossing height (TCH)
119
Q

Standard climb gradient in ft/nm during initial departure

A

200 ft/nm per TERPS

120
Q

When does Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS)require a low visibility taxi plan?

A

Surface vis below 1200 RVR

121
Q

Trigger Notam

A

-issued to “alert” people of changes to the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) or aeronautical databases

122
Q

Runway Illusions

A
  • Narrow runway = feels higher
  • Wider runway = feels lower
  • upslope runway = feels higher
  • downslope runway = feels lower
  • overwater/dark surroundings/featureless = feels higher
  • rain on windshield = feels higher
  • haze = extra depth and height
  • penetrating fog = illusion of pitching up
123
Q

Flight/Duty time limits all-cargo supplemental

A
  • 1,000 flight hours per cal year
  • 100 flight hours per 30 consecutive days
  • 8 hours between rest periods (2 pilots)
124
Q

Vr definition

A
  • the rotation speed or the speed at which the nose may be raised to initial climb attitude
  • speed to which the aircraft should be accelerated prior to establishing the takeoff/climb pitch attitude for liftoff
  • increase with altitude for a given weight
125
Q

Extended Twin-Engine Operation ETOPS Authorizations

A

ETOPS-75 mins (Caribbean)
ETOPS-90 mins (Micronesia)
ETOPS-120 mins
ETOPS-180 mins (includes 207 mins in North Pacific)
ETOPS-Beyond 180 mins (excluding 207 in North Pacific)
ETOPS-240 mins

126
Q

When is ETOPS required?

A

2 Engines:
Route contains a point with an adequate airport beyond 60 mins with one engine inoperative in still air

3 and 4 Engines:
Route contains a point with an adequate airport beyond 180 mins with one engine inoperative in still air